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Aircraft avionic & Informations

Total questions: 116

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main purpose of this equipment?

a)

To communicate with ATC

b)

To detect location of another flying aircraft

c)

To provide power to start engine

d)

To provide weather condition during flight

2.

To certify a new type of airplane with 19 passengers configuration, the applicant must complies to:

a)

CASR 27

b)

CASR 29

c)

CASR 23

d)

CASR 36

3.

Which instrument is not a basic-T requirement?

a)

Horizontal Situation Indicator

b)

Altitude Indicator

c)

Airspeed Indicator

d)

VOR Indicator

4.

To make sure the frequency for AC voltage constant at 400Hz is the function of:

a)

GCU

b)

CSD

c)

Auxiliary Battery

d)

RAT

5.

To convert AC voltage to DC voltage in the aircraft is the function of:

a)

Transformer Rectifier Unit

b)

Inverter

c)

Auxiliary Power Unit

d)

Power Distribution Unit

6.

These are example of ground based navigation system on the aircraft, except:

a)

VOR

b)

DME

c)

ADF

d)

HF

7.

According to CASR, the minimum battery capacity for normal category airplanes with maximum altitude over 25.000 feet is:

a)

1 Hour

b)

30 Minutes

c)

90 Minutes + Injury Time

d)

5 Minutes

8.

System that the aircraft needs to be able to continue safe operation is:

a)

Main battery

b)

Auxiliary battery

c)

Non Essential system

d)

Essential system

9.

Below is the type of power source, except:

a)

Generator control unit

b)

Essential bus

c)

Auxiliary battery

d)

Ram air turbine

10.

Below is the typical CAS message color, except:

a)

White

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

11.

CAS message color that indicates an advisory is:

a)

White

b)

Blue

c)

Yellow

d)

Red

12.

Most common type of aircraft battery used in aircraft, except:

a)

Li-ion

b)

NiCd

c)

Alkaline

d)

Lead Acid

13.

What kind of output will be given by Air Data Computer?

a)

IAS

b)

GPS position

c)

Navigation database

d)

Terrain

14.

To prevent overload damage to the electrical system power distribution and to avoid fire hazard caused by overheating wiring, is the main function of:

a)

Inverter

b)

Circuit breaker

c)

Outside Air Temperature probe

d)

Auxiliary battery

15.

Below are electromagnetic effect test required by CASR, except:

a)

EMC Test

b)

HIRF Test

c)

Indirect Effect Lightning Test

d)

Electrical Grounding Bonding Test

16.

The main function of TCAS:

a)

to prevent unintentional impacts with the ground

b)

to communicate with ground based station

c)

to avoid mid air collision

d)

to provide air data to PFD

17.

The main function of TAWS:

a)

to prevent unintentional impacts with the ground

b)

to communicate with ground based station

c)

to avoid mid air collision

d)

to provide air data to PFD

18.

What is the main purpose of Radio Altimeter?

a)

to provide radio communication with ATC

b)

to provide aircraft altitude above ground level

c)

to provide positioning for ADSB

d)

to provide aircraft altitude information during cruise phase

19.

What is the purpose of this component?

a)

as the main power source for aircraft

b)

to provide thrust

c)

to provide power in case of generator and APU fail

d)

for air conditioning

20.

Below are methods of compliance that can be proposed by the applicant to DGCA for a new type aircraft certification, except:

a)

Analysis

b)

Flight Test

c)

Exemption

d)

Inspection

21.

______ instruments are those designed to measure operating parameters of the aircraft’s engine(s).

a)

Hydraulics

b)

Flight

c)

Navigation

d)

Powerplant

22.

The instruments used in controlling the aircraft’s flight attitude are known as the _______ instruments.

a)

Pressure

b)

Engine

c)

Powerplant

d)

Flight

23.

_______ instruments are those that contribute information used by the pilot to guide the aircraft along a definite course. This group includes compasses of various kinds, some of which incorporate the use of radio signals to define a specific course while flying the aircraft en route from one airport to another.

a)

Flight

b)

Navigation

c)

Powerplant

d)

Engine

24.

(GPS) stands for

a)

Global Positioning Systems

b)

Global Parameter Systems

c)

Global Positioning Structure

d)

None of the Above

25.

______ is a flight deck instrument display system in which the display technology used is electronic rather than electromechanical

a)

Primary Flight Display (PFD)

b)

Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS)

c)

Navigation Display

(ND)

d)

Liquid Crystal Display (LCD)

26.

Calculate aircraft turns in various axis of operation also called pitch yaw and roll.

a)

DFDR

b)

Flight Envelope

c)

ELAC

d)

Gyroscope

27.

An instrument that indicates the speed of the crankshaft of a reciprocating engine. It can be a direct- or remote-indicating instrument, the dial of which is calibrated to indicate revolutions per minutes (rpm).

a)

Tachometer

b)

Accelerometer

c)

Hydraulic Gauge

d)

Vertical Speed

28.

The most important instrument used by the pilot to perceive the health of an engine is the _____.

a)

Engine Fuel Pressure Gauge

b)

Engine Oil Pressure Gauge

c)

Engine Pneumatic Pressure Gauge

d)

Engine Bleed Pressure Gauge

29.

_____ are instruments which have a mechanical gyroscope incorporated into their design.

a)

Differential Flight Instruments

b)

Pressure Flight Instruments

c)

Gyroscopic Flight Instruments

d)

Mechanical Flight Instruments

30.

This category covers a range of miscellaneous gauges and indicators not included in the previous that provide data on positions of moveable components on the aircraft, and the condition of various aircraft components or systems.

a)

Powerplant Instruments

b)

Flight and Navigation Instruments

c)

Gyroscope Instrument

d)

System-Instrument

31.

The most common type of pressure measurement is ______. This is the difference between the pressure to be measured and the atmospheric pressure.

a)

Pressure Gauge

b)

Pneumatic Pressure

c)

Air Pressure

d)

Oil Pressure

32.

A typical EFIS system comprises a

a)

Primary Flight Display (PFD) & Electronic Attitude Direction Indicator (EADI)

d)

Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) (Navigation Display)

33.

Which isn't an aircraft component?

a)

Trap

b)

Wing

c)

Flap

d)

Slat

34.

Which isn't an aircraft component?

a)

Pegs

b)

Static wick

c)

Horizontal stabiliser

d)

Elevator

35.

Which isn't an aircraft component?

a)

Fuselage

b)

Power Plant

c)

Cockpit/flight deck

d)

Flux capacitor

36.

When are slats and flaps used?

a)

During an emergency

b)

During landing

c)

During take-off

d)

During landing and take-off

37.

Which flight surface control is located on the horizontal stabilizer?

a)

Spoiler

b)

Rudder

c)

Elevator

d)

Aileron

38.

What do wings NOT do?

a)

Carry fuel

b)

Power the Aircraft

c)

Generate lift

d)

House the ailerons

39.

What generates thrust?

a)

Engines

b)

Cockpit

c)

Batteries

d)

Landing gear

40.

When are spoilers used as an airbrake?

a)

Only in emergencies

b)

When the engines cut out

c)

Take off

d)

Landing

41.

What is the main function of the ailerons?

a)

Rolling left and right

b)

Pitching up and down

c)

Yawing left and right

d)

Allows aircraft to hover

42.

What does the fuselage NOT carry?

a)

Fuel

b)

Passengers

c)

Static wicks

d)

Cargo

43.

Where is the aircraft controlled from?

a)

Cabin

b)

Cockpit

c)

Undercarridge

d)

Cowling

44.

Where is the winglet located?

a)

At the wing tip

b)

On the horizontal stabilizer

c)

On the vertical stabilizer

d)

In front of the wing

45.

Which major component is produced in Broughton?

a)

Fuselage

b)

Tailplane

c)

Engines

d)

Wings

46.

What is the most commonly used aircraft material?

a)

Alluminium Alloy

b)

Titanium

c)

Carbon Fibre Reinforced Polymer

d)

Stainless Steel

47.

What forces are required for an aircraft to remain in flight

a)

Lift

b)

Drag

c)

Weight

d)

Thrust

48.

What part of the aircraft adjusted the pitch?

a)

Aileron

b)

Elevator

c)

Flap

d)

Rudder

49.

What part of the aircraft adjusts the roll?

a)

Elevator

b)

Flap

c)

Aileron

d)

Rudder

50.

What part of the aircraft adjusts the yaw?

a)

Rudder

b)

Elevator

c)

Slat

d)

Aileron

51.

What job does the Spoiler do?

a)

Gives better aerodynamic properties

b)

Slows the aircraft down

c)

Keeps the aircraft flying

d)

Just makes the wing looks good

52.

For an aircraft to generate more lift at slower speeds what part of the aircraft is used

a)

Flaps and Slats

b)

Spoilers

c)

Landing gear

d)

Rudder

53.

When the wing is generating more lift the air is travelling faster over the top.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" This is what?

a)

Newtons First Law

b)

Newtons Second Law

c)

Newtons Third Law

d)

Daniel Bernoulli

55.

What is this?

a)

Yoke

b)

Control Column

c)

Side Stick

d)

Steering wheel

56.

Popularly known as the Military Time

a)

18 hour clock

b)

24 hour clock

57.

IATA stands for

a)

International Air Transport Association

b)

International Air Traffic Association

58.

IATA SSR code for Cabin Baggage

a)

CCGG

b)

CBBG

59.

Airport Familiarization: A strip of land used for takeoff and landing of aircrafts.

a)

Runway

b)

Taxiway

60.

Theory of flight: The force applied by the earth

a)

Lift

b)

Gravity

61.

Movement of aircraft: Turns the aircraft (Yaw)

a)

Rudder

b)

Elevator

62.

Movement of aircraft: Part of the wing the moves the A/C up or down (ROLL)

a)

Rudder

b)

Aileron

63.

Terminologies: Activity/process of loading or accommodating passengers onto the aircraft

a)

Boarding

b)

Check-in

64.

Parts of the A/C: Its purpose is to produce power for taxi and take off

a)

Landing Gears

b)

Engine

65.

Aircraft Interior: Area on the aircraft where food and beverage are stored and prepared.

a)

Galley

b)

Lavatory

66.

Older GPS approaches created before WAAS technology generally offer only ____ minimums and circling minimums.

a)

LNAV

b)

LNAV/VNAV

c)

LPV

d)

LP

67.

What are GPS approaches are generally titled "RNAV (GPS) . . ." ?

a)

R stands for "relative" and GPS measures distance relative to the center of the earth

b)

Some aircraft use other area navigation equipment besides GPS to fly the approaches

c)

RNAV means "radio navigation" . . . all GPS approaches can also be flown with traditional radio navigation (ILS, LOC, VOR, NDB)

68.

Which line of GPS approach minimums is NOT a WAAS approach

a)

LPV

b)

LP

c)

LNAV/VNAV

d)

LNAV

69.

Which line of GPS minimums is generally considered "best"

a)

LPV

b)

LP

c)

LNAV/VNAV

d)

LNAV

70.

Which line of GPS minimums offers lateral accuracy similar to a LOC approach

a)

LPV

b)

LNAV/VNAV

c)

LNAV

d)

LNAV+V

71.

Garmin brand avionics often provides a suggested vertical descent path ("+V") from the FAF onwards. Describe a DRAWBACK of this vertical guidance

a)

it is not surveyed for obstacles between the MAP and threshold

b)

the descent angle of the +V path varies along the final approach segment

c)

the +V flight path tends to destabilize the final approach

d)

the +V flight path intersects the ground prior to the runway

72.

You are flying an approach with both LPV and LNAV minimums published. Approaching the FAF, your GPS reads "LNAV" when you were expecting "LPV." You should:

a)

descend to LPV minimums since the approach plate supports it

b)

descend only to LNAV minimums since satellite accuracy does not support LPV

c)

fly a missed approach because satellite accuracy is not safe for IFR flight

d)

expect your GPS to switch to LPV after you pass the FAF

73.

True or False: if a GPS approach has a final approach waypoint and a missed approach waypoint that exactly match with a VOR-DME approach, you may substitute VOR-DME navigation for GPS navigation.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

How do you know if your aircraft is able to use GPS approaches and RNAV departures with "RNP 1.0" or "RNP 0.3" in the title?

a)

specific procedures for RNP approaches will be published in the Flight Manual or company operational specifications for RNP approaches

b)

all WAAS-equipped GPS units support RNP approaches and departures

c)

phone the FAA

d)

the power-on screen of the GPS will list "RNP 1.0 capable" and/or "RNP 0.3 capable"

75.

Which GPS approach minimums include a vertical glidepath from the FAF to the threshold that guarantees obstacle clearance? Select all that apply.

a)

LPV

b)

LP

c)

LNAV/VNAV

d)

LNAV

76.

Which type or types of GPS minimums below includes an MDA rather than a DA? Select all that apply.

a)

LPV

b)

LP

c)

LNAV/VNAV

d)

LNAV

77.

Garmin avionics often display a +V glide path that is NOT surveyed for obstacles all the way to the threshold. Why is it still safe to fly these approaches when there could be unknown obstacles?

a)

GPS allows for greater lateral precision.

b)

All GPS aircraft must have a Terrain Awareness Warning System installed . . . it will warn of all obstacles to ensure safety.

c)

The approach IS surveyed for obstacles down the MDA. Below the MDA, the aircraft must have the runway environment in sight to continue descent. So any obstacles can be avoided.

d)

GPS allows for greater vertical precision.

78.

Which type of GPS approach minimums are flown using pilot procedures and techniques very similar to flying an ILS?

a)

LNAV

b)

LPV

c)

LP

79.

What are drawbacks of flying with a non-WAAS GPS. Select all that apply.

a)

older technology

b)

only LNAV (and sometimes LNAV/VNAV) mins are available

c)

LNAV minimums are not available

d)

it is impossible to perform a RAIM check with a non-WAAS GPS

80.

What is a RAIM check?

a)

a check of the GPS unit's electrical functions

b)

a check of real-world GPS system accuracy as reported by other pilots in the last 24 hours

c)

a check of a mathematical model to predict GPS system accuracy at specific places and times in the future

d)

a check of the strength of the GPS backup battery strength

81.

Which statement is TRUE about WAAS-equipped GPS units and RAIM checks?

a)

A RAIM check is required for IFR operations regardless of weather.

b)

A preflight RAIM check is generally NOT required when using a WAAS GPS. These units automatically check RAIM for all loaded routes.

c)

A RAIM check is required only if a GPS approach is planned at the destination airport or alternate airport.

d)

A RAIM check is required for any flight using the GPS whether IFR or VFR.

82.

Your GPS unit has an out-of-date obstacle database but a current navigation database. How does this impact a planned IFR flight?

a)

The GPS may not legally be used for primary navigation on any stage of the IFR flight.

b)

The GPS may be used normally on the IFR flight.

c)

The GPS may be used normally but the pilot must disregard all obstacle warnings from the aircraft avionics.

d)

The GPS may be used for enroute navigation only. Any departures or approaches must be flown with traditional navigation systems other than GPS.

83.

Your GPS unit has an out-of-date navigation database but a current obstacle database. How does this impact a planned IFR flight?

a)

The GPS may not legally be used for primary navigation on any stage of the IFR flight.

b)

The GPS may be used normally on the IFR flight.

c)

The GPS may be used normally but the pilot must disregard all obstacle warnings from the aircraft avionics.

d)

The GPS may be used for enroute navigation only. Any departures or approaches must be flown with traditional navigation systems other than GPS.

84.

A GPS unit incorporates the display of electronic charts. The chart data is out-of-date, but the GPS navigation database is current. How does this affect a planned IFR flight?

a)

The pilot must bring paper charts (or iPad / Android charts, etc.)

b)

The chart database must be updated before the IFR flight.

c)

There is no impact because the FAA requires backup paper charts to be carried in all cases.

d)

There is no impact because once the avionics powers on, charts will automatically download through satellite datalink.

85.

Which statement is TRUE about editing GPS waypoints on a GPS approach?

a)

A pilot may not edit, insert, or delete waypoints on a GPS approach. Waypoints must be flown per the nav database.

b)

A pilot may edit, insert, or delete waypoints on a GPS approach if a change is published in a NOTAM.

c)

Any editing must be done prior to takeoff and checked by a pilot-qualified crewmember.

d)

Waypoints may ONLY be edited to permit a circle-to-land or sidestep approach.

86.

Marshalling ensure Aircraft can be landed safely

a)

True

b)

False

87.

How many types of hand signal are there for Helicopter Marshalling?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

88.

What are the ways of Aircraft Marshalling?

(choose 2)

a)

Radio Communications

b)

Handphone

c)

Hand Signals

d)

Walkie-Talkie

89.

What are the common safety equipment used by marshaller?

(choose 3)

a)

Touch light

b)

Gloves

c)

Safety Vest

d)

Marshalling Wands

90.

What colour normally is the "follow me" van?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Yellow

d)

White

91.

Cabin crew baggage and last minute baggage is held in/on:

a)

containerized cargo

b)

palletised cargo

c)

bulk cargo

d)

passenger compartment

92.

The passengers personal belonging of a large transport aircraft flying from Kuala Lumpur to London should be placed:

a)

on cargo pallets, safety tied by nets

b)

as baggage in cargo containers

c)

in overhead compartment, so they are easily accessible during flight

d)

underneath as bulk cargo, to minimize the space required

93.

Which statement about standard size container is true?

a)

Maximum mass of cargo loaded in the containers is always limited by the MTOM.

b)

They are designed to fit and lock into the cargo compartment for maximum space efficiency.

c)

With the cargo loaded in containers, one does not have to observe the maximum floor loading limit.

d)

Maximum mass of cargo loaded in the containers is often limited by the aircraft center of gravity.

94.

If a load moves in flight:

a)

the aircraft would become tail heavy

b)

the aircraft would become nose heavy

c)

a change of the moment of the load would cause the aircraft CG to change

d)

a change of the moment of the load would be unlikely to cause the aircraft to change

95.

Which of the following statements is the correct reason for cargo loads to be tied down?

a)

Preventing cargo loads from moving and to remain within the CG limits of the aircraft

b)

Maximizing the performance of the aircraft during take-off and landing procedures

c)

Maximizing the space and increasing the maximum payload of the aircraft

d)

Maintaining enough space in the compartment hold in case of evacuation

96.

Which of the following statements about loading is correct?

a)

Live animals cannot be loaded as bulk cargo.

b)

Containers are designed so that freight or pieces of baggage can be loaded efficiently into the aircraft cargo compartment and each container has its own manifest.

c)

Pallets are mainly used on small aircraft and strapped down.

d)

Bulk cargo loading requires ground personal to load it at the forward cargo compartment.

97.

What is aircraft maintenance?

a)

the performance of tasks required to ensure the continuing airworthiness of an aircraft

b)

the performance of flights required to ensure the continuing combat readiness

c)

to regulate the maintenance tasks, personnel and inspection system

d)

working in avionics, which deals with electronic systems

98.

Decipher the abbreviation AMT.

a)

Aviation Mechanic Technician

b)

Aircraft Maintenance Technician

c)

Aircraft Maintenance Tasks

d)

Aviation Maintenance Technology

99.

Decipher the abbreviation ICAO.

a)

Intercontinental Civil Aviation Organization

b)

International Civil Administrative Organization

c)

International Citizen Administrative Organization

d)

International Civil Aviation Organization

100.

What is the Federal Aviation Administration responsible for?

a)

certifying jetliners in the Europe

b)

certifying the repair stations and AMTs

c)

certifying the aircrafts

d)

certifying fuel stations in the European Union and member states

101.

Decipher the abbreviation EASA.

a)

European Aircraft Safety Agency

b)

European Aviation Safety Association

c)

European Aviation Safety Agency

d)

Eurasian Aviation Safety Agency

102.

What are the routine maintenance tasks performed by an AMT?

a)

cleaning aircraft and components, replacing components,

checking and servicing hydraulics and pneumatic sytems

b)

replacing components, inspecting for general wear and tear

c)

lubricating parts, draining and trouble shooting fuel systems

d)

all answers are correct

103.

Maintenance practices are classified into:

a)

protective and inspection

b)

servicing and corrective

c)

protective and servicing

d)

protective and corrective

104.

There are two parameters give the time of maintenance:

a)

hard time, cycles

b)

hard time, weekly

c)

easy time, cycles

d)

hard time, monthly

105.

What are the categories for engine?

a)

A1, B, C, D, E,F

b)

A1, B, C, D1, T1

c)

A, B, C, D, E

d)

A1, B1, C1, D1, T2

106.

Translate the word "airworthiness ".

a)

воздушный поток

b)

обеспечить

c)

профилактический ремонт

d)

полётопригодность

107.

Translate into English: профилактический ремонт

(a)  

108.

Choose the correct translation: переоборудование самолетов

a)

defect rectification

b)

alterations of aircraft

c)

comprehensive, ongoing process

d)

to ensure

109.

The time between overhauls is ...

(a)  

110.

How is protective maintenance divided?

a)

inspection, servicing

b)

corrective, preventative

c)

hard time, cycles

d)

checking, repairing

111.

Translate into English: техник по авиационному техническому обслуживанию

(a)  

112.

What does Part 145 certify?

a)

aircrafts

b)

repair jobs

c)

aircraft maintenance technicians

d)

repair stations

113.

What are certified under FAR Part 65?

a)

aircraft parts

b)

aircraft maintenance technicians

c)

types of maintenance

d)

repair stations

114.

Translate into English: Европейское агентство по безопасности полётов

(a)  

115.

Translate into English: устранение дефектов

(a)  

116.

What does detail the standards regarding the maintenance, preventative maintenance, and alterations of aircraft and aircraft articles and systems?

a)

FAR Part 145

b)

FAR Part 65

c)

FAR Part 43

d)

FAR Part 66