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Aqa Physics paper 1 (part 2 )

Total questions: 218

Worksheet time: 4hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why are coal, oil, and natural gas classified as nonrenewable resources?

a)

They are limitless

b)

They exist in many places on Earth.

c)

They are originally from once-living things.

d)

They take millions of years to form.

2.

Which statement is true about coal and natural gas?

a)

Both are renewable resources

b)

Both require wind in order to work

c)

Both lead to greenhouse gases and climate change

d)

Neither one causes global warming

3.

What are two advantages of geothermal energy?

a)

cheap and a lot pollution

b)

expensive and a lot of pollution

c)

cheap and little pollution

d)

expensive and little pollution

4.

What is a disadvantage to Hydroelectricity?

a)

lots and lots of pollution

b)

Kills wild bird population

c)

Radioactive waste

d)

Increases potential for flooding

5.

What is a negative impact of most renewable energy resources?

a)

expensive start up costs

b)

produce CO2 gas

c)

damage the environment

d)

produce poisonous waste

6.

What is a negative impact of wind turbines?

a)

unreliable

b)

noisy

c)

visual pollution

d)

produce carbon dioxide gas

7.

Which of these are non renewable energy resources?

a)

coal, oil, gas, wind

b)

coal, oil, gas, tidal

c)

coal, oil, gas, nuclear

d)

coal, oil, gas, solar

8.
Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
a)
Wind
b)
Coal
c)
Solar
d)
Biomass
9.
Petroleum and natural gas form from...
a)
strong winds
b)
cooled magma
c)
radioactive materials
d)
remains of plants and animals 
10.
Hydroelectric power produces electricity using.....
a)
Wind
b)
Sunlight
c)
Moving water
d)
Dung
11.
The energy resource that is most affected by change in weather is_____________?
a)
geothermal 
b)
wind
c)
nuclear
d)
natural gas
12.
Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?
a)
milk
b)
coal
c)
biomass
d)
water
13.
Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenewable because they.......
a)
require expensive equipment
b)
take millions of years to replace
c)
can be found all over 
d)
provide all the energy we use
14.
What is biomass? 
a)
energy from the sun
b)
energy from water
c)
energy from wind
d)
energy from plant and animal waste
15.

Which is an environmental consequence of using biomass

as a source of energy?

a)

There are no environmental consequences for using biomass as a source of energy.

b)

Biomass creates harmful emission of carbon and sulfur, and causes massive cutting of trees.

c)

Biomass has a great impact on the temperature of fresh water and the amount of dissolved oxygen.

16.

Why is solar energy seldom used as an environmentally safe energy source in households to provide electricity?

a)

Solar energy can only be used with gasoline.

b)

Solar energy is difficult to capture and store for later use.

c)

Solar power facilities destroy animal habitats.

d)

Solar power creates radioactive waste.

17.

Which is most likely the greatest impact on the environment when a dam is built for hydroelectric power production?

a)

Animal populations increase rapidly in ecosystems upstream of the dam because of more available water.

b)

Plant populations suffer from increased competition beyond the dam because more land is available for cultivation.

c)

The water cycle is disturbed by the building of a dam because water is concentrated in new areas.

d)

The dam destroys habitats by creating reservoirs of water that flood lands upstream of the dam.

18.

Energy resources are mainly used to generate electricity, what are the two other major uses?

a)

Food

b)

Transport

c)

Weapons

d)

Heating

19.

Which energy resource is the most widely used for heating homes in the UK?

a)

Geothermal

b)

Wind

c)

Natural Gas

d)

Coal

20.
In order to do work, energy is
a)
A.  transferred
b)
B.  used up
c)
C.  lost
d)
D.  lost or transferred
21.
When a melon is dropped onto a pavement which of the following best describes what happens to energy?
a)
A.   The gravitational potential store reduces and the heat store of the surroundings increases.
b)
B.   The melons gains kinetic energy, which is lost when it hits the floor.
c)
C.   The melon’s energy store steadily reduces as it falls.
d)
D.   The gravitational potential store increases and the heat store of the surroundings increases.
22.
If 90J of energy goes into a torch and 50J is transferred by lighting, how much is transferred by heating?
a)
A.   0 J
b)
B.   40J
c)
C.   50J
d)
D.   90J
23.

Identify the energy transfer

a)

electrical to chemical to light

b)

kinetic to potential

c)

chemical to electrical to light

d)

light to sound

24.

Identify the energy transfer

a)

chemical to solar

b)

electrical to thermal

c)

chemical to light

d)

thermal to kinetiv

25.

What is the kinetic energy of a man of mass 80 kg running at 4 m/s ?

a)

320 J

b)

160 J

c)

640 J

d)

25,600 J

26.

How fast is a car travelling if it has 18,000 J of kinetic energy and a mass of 1000 kg.

a)

6 m/s

b)

18,000,000 m/s

c)

18 m/s

d)

36 m/s

27.

A mass of 20 kg is raised through a distance of 30 m. How much gravitational potential energy does it gain? (Note that g=9.8 m/s2 on the Earth.)

a)

5,880 J

b)

600 J

c)

61.2 J

d)

14.7 J

28.

3000 J of energy are used to raise an object through a height of 15 m. What was the mass of the object. (Assume that g = 9.8 m/s2.)

a)

20.4 kg

b)

442,000 kg

c)

200 kg

d)

4591.8 kg

29.

How much work is done when a 2400 W kettle takes 120 seconds to boil?

a)

20 J

b)

288,000 J

c)

0.05 J

d)

200 J

30.

What is the power of a device that does 500 J of work in 20 s ?

a)

25 W

b)

10,000 W

c)

1000 W

d)

0.04 J

31.

What is the efficiency of a device that transfers 450 J of energy usefully when the input energy is 800 J ?

a)

0.56

b)

1.78

c)

350

d)

0.44

32.

A device has an efficiency of 0.65. If the total power input is 3000 W, what is the useful power output?

a)

1,950 W

b)

4615.5 W

c)

0.00022 W

d)

1,050 W

33.

What is the Equation for Kinetic Energy?

a)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass x Speed²

b)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass² x Speed

c)

Kinetic Energy = 0.5 x Mass² / Speed

34.

What are Equations for Gravitational Potential Energy?

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy = Mass x Gravitational Field Strength x Height

b)

Gravitational Potential Energy = Weight x Height

c)

Gravitational Potential Energy = Mass x Gravitational Field Strength / Height

d)

Gravitational Potential Energy = Weight / Height

35.

Which are the Equations for Power?

a)

Power = Energy Transferred / Time

b)

Power = Work Done / Time

c)

Power = Energy Transferred x Time

d)

Power = Work Done x Time

36.

Which will heat up faster?

a)

copper

b)

granite

c)

iron

d)

basalt

37.

Which will heat up slower?

a)

water

b)

lead

c)

granite

d)

iron

38.

The temperature of a 6.0 g sample of glass changed from 20.0°C to 45.0°C when it absorbed 550 J of heat. What is the specific heat of this glass?

a)

0.27 J/g °C

b)

3.7 J/g °C

c)

130 J/g °C

d)

12 J/g °C

39.

Which of the following best explains why the sand at the beach is hotter than the water?

a)

Sand has a higher specific heat than water.

b)

Sand has a lower specific heat than water.

c)

There is more water than sand at the beach.

d)

There is more sand than water at the beach.

40.
The amount of energy required to raise the temperature 1ºC for every kilogram is called____?
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Specific Heat
c)
Temperature
d)
Kinetic Energy
41.
Graphite has a specific heat of 0.709 J/g⁰C. If a 20 gram piece of graphite is cooled from 38⁰C to 18⁰C, how much energy was lost by the graphite?
a)
283.6 J
b)
183.6 J
c)
203 J
d)
109 J
42.
The law of conservation of energy states that when one form of energy is converted into another,
a)
energy is destroyed in the process
b)
no energy is destroyed in the process
c)
energy is created in the process
d)
some amount of energy cannot be accounted for
43.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states:

a)

Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed

c)

Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed

d)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

44.
Energy can be created.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
46.

The spring constant of an object tells you?

a)

What type of spring you are dealing with

b)

How long the spring will stretch or compress

c)

It gives you a value on how easy or hard it is to change the objects length.

d)

A spring constant gives you a number which tells you what material the spring is made of.

47.

In a closed system...

a)

energy can be transferred but there is no net energy loss.

b)

energy and mass are transferred in and out of the system.

c)

energy cannot be transferred between different energy stores.

48.

Energy stored in objects being stretched or squashed...

a)

Elastic Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Chemical Energy

d)

Thermal Energy

49.

Energy Stored in an atoms nucleus is..

a)

Atomic Energy

b)

Electrostatic Energy

c)

Nuclear Energy

d)

Elemental Energy

50.
When an object is moved to a higher position, what name is given to the energy it then stores?
a)
Gravitational Potential
b)
Elastic
c)
Height
d)
Kinetic
51.

1. As an object falls, what happens to its kinetic energy?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same.

d)

Need more information

52.

1. As an object falls, what happens to its gravitational energy?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

d)

Need more information.

53.

When rolling a ball down a ramp when does it have the most potential energy?

a)

At the bottom of the ramp

b)

While traveling down the ramp

c)

While being lifted to the top of the ramp

d)

At the top of the ramp

54.

When a kettle boils, energy is transferred from the electrostatic store to the _________________ energy store.

a)

chemical

b)

kinetic

c)

elastic

d)

thermal

55.

In the equation for gravitational potential energy, 'Ep' stands for

a)

electrical energy

b)

elastic potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

gravitational potential energy

56.
A golf pro swings his driver which weighs 0.75Kg at a velocity of 60 m/s. Calculate the kinetic energy of the club.
a)
2700 J
b)
16.9 J
c)
1350 J
d)
45 J
57.
What are the energy transfers when a ball bounces?
a)
kinetic → heat → kinetic
b)
kinetic → sound → gravitational
c)
kinetic → elastic → kinetic
d)
elastic → kinetic → elastic
58.

Conduction mainly occurs in _________

a)

solids

b)

liquids

c)

gases

59.

Conduction is where particles vibrate and transfer thermal energy along the object. Do metals have a high or low thermal conductivity?

a)

high

b)

low

60.

Insulation reduces the rate of energy transfer by heating. What methods below do we use in our homes to reduce wasted energy?

a)

double glazed windows

b)

log burners

c)

thick carpets

d)

cavity wall insulation

61.

Lubricating certain machines or bikes reduces which type of force?

a)

air resistance

b)

tension

c)

magnetic

d)

friction

62.

Which one is True?

a)

The greater the Resistance the Smaller the Current

b)

The greater the Resistance the Greater the Current

63.

Which one is a Battery?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
64.

Which one is a Fuse?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
65.

Which one is a Filament bulb?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
66.

Which one is a LED?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
67.

Which one is a Switch?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
68.

Which one is a Resistor?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
69.

Which one is a Variable Resistor?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
70.

Which one is a Diode?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
71.

Which one is a Thermistor?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
72.

Which one is the Graph for an Ohmic Conductor?

a)
b)
c)
73.

Which one is the Graph for an Filament Lamp?

a)
b)
c)
74.

Which one is the Graph for an Diode?

a)
b)
c)
75.

Which one is a LDR?

a)

It senses Light. The brighter the light the lower the resistance.

b)

It senses Temperature. The hotter the temperature the lower the resistance.

76.

Which one is a Thermistor?

a)

It senses Light. The brighter the light the lower the resistance.

b)

It senses Temperature. The hotter the temperature the lower the resistance.

77.

Which one is a series circuit?

a)

All components were connected in a line end to end. If one of the components break the whole circuit breaks.

b)

Each component is connected separately. If one is disconnected the others aren't affected.

78.

Which one is a parallel circuit?

a)

All components were connected in a line end to end. If one of the components break the whole circuit breaks.

b)

Each component is connected separately. If one is disconnected the others aren't affected.

79.

Which one is a series circuit?

a)

Potential Difference is Shared

b)

Potential Difference is the same for each component

80.

Which one is a parallel circuit?

a)

Potential Difference is Shared

b)

Potential Difference is the same for each component

81.

Which one is a parallel circuit?

a)

Current is the same everywhere

b)

Current is shared between branches

82.

Which one is a series circuit?

a)

Resistance adds up

b)

Resistors reduce the total resistance

83.

Which one is a series circuit?

a)

Current is the same everywhere

b)

Current is shared between branches

84.

Select all the features of the UK Mains Supply

a)

AC

b)

DC

c)

230 V

d)

50Hz

e)

50 V

85.

Which one is a Live Wire?

a)

Brown. Provides the alternating potential difference

b)

Blue. Completes the circuit and carries away current

c)

Green and Yellow. Only carries current when there is a fault

86.

Which one is a Neutral Wire?

a)

Brown. Provides the alternating potential difference

b)

Blue. Completes the circuit and carries away current

c)

Green and Yellow. Only carries current when there is a fault

87.

Which one is an Earth Wire?

a)

Brown. Provides the alternating potential difference

b)

Blue. Completes the circuit and carries away current

c)

Green and Yellow. Only carries current when there is a fault

88.

Which does the national grid use?

a)

High Potential Difference

b)

High Current

c)

Low Potential Difference

d)

Low Current

89.

Calculate the current in a circuit if a charge of 4 C flows in 20 seconds

a)

0.1 A

b)

0.2 A

c)

0.3 A

d)

0.4 A

90.

In a lightning bolt, a charge of 15 C flows and there is a current of 30,000 A. Calculate the duration of the lightning strike

a)

0.5 s

b)

0.75 s

c)

0.0005 s

d)

15000 s

91.

Calculate the resistance of the resistors in series shown in the diagram.

a)

2 ohms

b)

15 ohms

c)

8 ohms

d)

2.5 ohms

92.

What will the maximum resistance of the circuit shown be?

a)

less than 22 kΩ

b)

More than 22 kΩ

c)

69 kΩ

93.

What is the current in the main branch (Is) of the circuit shown?

a)

6 A

b)

12 A

c)

18 A

94.

A kettle has a power rating of 1.2 kW. The kettle runs on mains electricity at 230 V. Work out the current flowing through the kettle when in use.

a)

0.005 A

b)

0.052 A

c)

5.2 A

95.

What are the units for current?

a)

Amps

b)

Volts

c)

Coulombs

d)

Watts

96.

What is the unit of power?

a)

Amps

b)

Volts

c)

Coulombs

d)

Watts

97.

What is the unit of charge?

a)

Amps

b)

Volts

c)

Coulombs

d)

Watts

98.

What is the unit of potential difference?

a)

Amps

b)

Volts

c)

Coulombs

d)

Watts

99.
Used to measure current (I).
a)
Voltmeter
b)
Ammeter
c)
LED
d)
resistor
100.
Used to measure potential difference.
a)
Voltmeter
b)
Ammeter
c)
LED
d)
resistor
101.
Allows the current to be varied in a circuit
a)
Variable resistor
b)
Fixed resistor
c)
LED
d)
diode
102.
Designed to melt and break the circuit is the current is too great.
a)
LDR
b)
Fixed resistor
c)
fuse
d)
diode
103.

This is an example of a ______ circuit

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Open

d)

Closed

104.

What size resistor would produce a 3 Amp current flow with a 12 Volt battery

a)

1 Ohm

b)

3 Ohms

c)

4 Ohms

d)

12 Ohms

105.
How many Volts would we need to produce a current flow of 8 Amps through a 6 Ohm resistor
a)
12 volts
b)
24 volts
c)
1.3333
d)
48 volts
106.
What is the equation for energy transfer given power and time?
a)
energy transferred = power x time
b)
energy transferred = power/time
c)
energy transferred = time/power
d)
energy transferred = power x time^2
107.

What is the equation that links power, potential difference and current?

a)

Power = potential difference/current

b)

Power = potential difference x current

c)

Power = current/potential difference

d)

Power = 0.5 x potential difference x current^2

108.

The amount of current flowing in a circuit depends on...

a)

Potential difference and resistance

b)

Charge and power

c)

resistance only

d)

potential difference only

e)

potential difference and charge

109.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

110.
Most of the mass in an atom is made up of _____________________?
a)
protons and electrons
b)
protons and neutrons
c)
neutrons and electrons
d)
electrons and quarks
111.

In which way are protons and electrons the same in an atom?

a)

same mass

b)

same number of particles

c)

same charges

112.
The mass number of an isotope is equal to the number of ______ in an atom.
a)
Protons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Protons + Neutrons
d)
 Electrons
113.

Which subatomic particle determines the identity of an element?

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

electrons

114.

The electron is not included in the calculations for the atomic mass because

a)

It has negative charge

b)

It is located in the outer energy levels of the atom

c)

Its mass is basically zero

d)

It attracts neutral particles

115.

What is an isotope?

a)

An atom of an element with a different number of neutrons

b)

An atom of an element with a different number of protons

c)

An atom of an element with a different number of electrons

116.

What is radioactive decay?

a)

An unstable nucleus breaks down to become more stable, giving off radiation

b)

An unstable atom breaks down to become more stable, giving off radiation

c)

An unstable element breaks down to become more stable, giving off radiation

d)

An unstable compound breaks down to become more stable, giving off radiation

117.

What is activity?

a)

The rate that nuclei decay

b)

The rate that ions decay

c)

The rate that protons decay

d)

The rate that electrons decay

118.

What is the unit of activity?

a)

Becquerels (Bq)

b)

Coulombs (C)

c)

Hertz (Hz)

d)

Pascals (Pa)

119.

What is count rate?

a)

Number of decays per second by a Geiger-Muller tube

b)

Number of ions per second by a Geiger-Muller tube

c)

Number of atoms per second by a Geiger-Muller tube

d)

Number of neutrons per second by a Geiger-Muller tube

120.

What is half life?

a)

The time taken for half of the nuclei in a sample to decay

b)

The time taken for half of the atoms in a sample to decay

c)

The time taken for half of the ions in a sample to decay

d)

The time taken for half of the neutrons in a sample to decay

121.

What is contamination?

a)

Coming into contact with radioactive materials

b)

Being exposed to radioactive materials

122.

What is irradiation?

a)

Coming into contact with radioactive materials

b)

Being exposed to radioactive materials

123.

What is ionisation?

a)

The process of removing electrons from atoms

b)

The process of removing protons from atoms

c)

The process of removing neutrons from atoms

d)

The process of removing nucei from atoms

124.

Select the effects of ionisation on human cells

a)

Cell death

b)

Cancer

c)

Mutation

125.

How do electrons orbit atoms?

a)

In energy levels

b)

In shells

c)

In layers

d)

In locations

126.

What happens to an electron that absorbs electromagnetic radiation such as light?

a)

The electron moves away from the nucleus, to a higher energy level

b)

The electron moves closer to the nucleus, to a lower energy level

c)

The electron's position does not change

d)

The electron will be removed from the atom

127.

Which model of the atom is JJ Thompson responsible for?

a)

Billiard ball model

b)

Plum pudding

c)

Nuclear model

d)

He is not responsible for a model, he contributed to understanding electron energy levels

128.

What happens to an electron that emits electromagnetic radiation such as light?

a)

The electron moves away from the nucleus, to a higher energy level

b)

The electron moves closer to the nucleus, to a lower energy level

c)

The electron's position does not change

d)

The electron will be removed from the atom

129.

Which model of the atom is Rutherford responsible for?

a)

Billiard ball model

b)

Plum pudding

c)

Nuclear model

d)

He is not responsible for a model, he contributed to understanding electron energy levels

130.

Which model of the atom is Niels Bohr responsible for?

a)

Billiard ball model

b)

Plum pudding

c)

Nuclear model

d)

He is not responsible for a model, he contributed to understanding electron energy levels

131.

Which statement describes the plum pudding model?

a)

Atoms are tiny spheres that can't be split into anything smaller

b)

Atoms are balls of positive charge with negative electrons embedded throughout

c)

A central positive charge surrounded by negative charge

132.

Which investigation did Rutherford carry out?

a)

Alpha particle scattering

b)

Beta particle scattering

c)

Gold atom scattering

d)

Electron scattering

133.

What discovery did James Chadwick make?

a)

The nucleus is positively charged

b)

Atoms have a nucleus

c)

The nucleus contains protons and neutrons

d)

Electrons orbit in energy levels

134.

What is the relative mass of a neutron?

a)

1

b)

0

c)

-1

135.

Which of the following are types of radiation given off during decay? (Choose more than one)

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

d)

Delta

136.

What is an alpha particle?

a)

Two protons and two neutrons

b)

An electron given off when a neutron breaks down

c)

A wave of electromagnetic radiation

137.

What is a beta particle?

a)

Two protons and two neutrons

b)

An electron given off when a neutron breaks down

c)

A wave of electromagnetic radiation

138.

What is gamma radiation?

a)

Two protons and two neutrons

b)

An electron given off when a neutron breaks down

c)

A wave of electromagnetic radiation

139.

What is the range of alpha radiation in air?

a)

3-5cm

b)

10-15cm

c)

Many metres

140.

What is the range of gamma radiation in air?

a)

3-5cm

b)

10-15cm

c)

Many metres

141.

Which materials absorb alpha radiation?

a)

Paper and dead skin cells

b)

Thin aluminium foil

c)

Several centimetres of lead

142.

Which materials absorb beta radiation?

a)

Paper and dead skin cells

b)

Thin aluminium foil

c)

Several centimetres of lead

143.

Which materials absorb gamma radiation?

a)

Paper and dead skin cells

b)

Thin aluminium foil

c)

Several centimetres of lead

144.

What is the ionising power of alpha radiation

a)

Very high

b)

Medium

c)

Low

145.

What is the ionising power of gamma radiation

a)

Very high

b)

Medium

c)

Low

146.

How does alpha decay alter the atomic number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 2

b)

Decreases by 2

c)

Increases by 1

d)

The atomic number does not change

147.

How does beta decay alter the atomic number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 2

b)

Decreases by 2

c)

Increases by 1

d)

The atomic number does not change

148.

How does gamma decay alter the atomic number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 2

b)

Decreases by 2

c)

Increases by 1

d)

The atomic number does not change

149.

How does alpha decay alter the mass number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 4

b)

Decreases by 4

c)

Decreases by 2

d)

The mass number does not change

150.

How does gamma decay alter the mass number of the parent nucleus?

a)

Increases by 4

b)

Decreases by 4

c)

Decreases by 2

d)

The mass number does not change

151.

How is radiation used to treat cancer?

a)

Gamma radiation rotates around the affected area. The radiation ionises and kills the cancer cells

b)

Alpha radiation rotates around the affected area. The radiation ionises and kills the cancer cells

c)

Gamma radiation is injected into the patient. The radiation is absorbed by organs, is detected on scans and kills the cancer cells

d)

Alpha radiation is injected into the patient. The radiation is absorbed by organs, detected on scans and kills the cancer cells

152.

How is radiation used as a tracer?

a)

Gamma radiation rotates around the affected area. The radiation ionises and kills the cancer cells

b)

Alpha radiation rotates around the affected area. The radiation ionises and kills the cancer cells

c)

Gamma radiation is injected into the patient. The radiation is absorbed by organs and is detected on scans

d)

Alpha radiation is injected into the patient. The radiation is absorbed by organs and is detected on scans

153.

Why is gamma radiation used in radiotherapy and tracers?

a)

Weakly ionising, penetrates the body

b)

Ionising power is medium, penetrates the body

c)

Strongly ionising, stopped by skin cells

154.

Which type of radiation does the equation represent?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

155.

Which type of radiation does the equation represent?

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

156.

Which type of radiation is represented by the symbol:


∝

a)

Alpha

b)

Beta

c)

Gamma

157.

The count rate of an isotope 1008 Bq. This falls to a count rate of 126 over a period of 21 days. What is the half life of the isotope?

a)

4 days

b)

5 days

c)

6 days

d)

7 days

158.
What is the half-life of iodine-131?
a)
32 days
b)
8 days
c)
16 days
d)
24 days
159.

The % of the parent isotope remaining after 1 Half Life.

a)

50%

b)

25%

c)

12.5%

d)

6.25%

160.
If one-fourth of the carbon-14 is remaining then how many half-lives have passed?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
161.

After 22,800 years, approximately what percentage of the original carbon-14 remains?

a)

15%

b)

12.5%

c)

6.25%

d)

3.125%

162.

If 20 mg of iodine-131 is given to a patient, how much is left after 32 days? The half-life of iodine-131 is 8 days.

a)

32

b)

1.25

c)

10

d)

2.5

163.

Barium-122 has a half-life of 2 minutes. A fresh sample weighing 80 g was obtained. If it takes 10 minutes to set up an experiment using barium-122, how much barium-122 will be left when the experiment begins?

a)

0.25g

b)

2.5g

c)

25g

d)

80g

164.

The diagram shows 32 atoms.

16 of the Red are parent isotopes

16 of the Green are daughter isotopes

How many half-lives have occurred?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

165.

Radioactive carbon-14 is often useful in determining the absolute age of geologic samples because radioactive isotopes

a)

decay at a regular rate

b)

become less stable during decay

c)

remain unchanged over time

d)

stabilize after four half-lives

166.
What particle completes this reaction?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma particle
d)
neutron
167.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
beta
c)
gamma 
d)
none
168.

Complete the nuclear reaction

85209At = ___ + 24He

a)

83205Bi

b)

86209Rn

c)

81207Tl

d)

85208At

169.

Which of the following is not a state of matter

a)

Ice

b)

Gas

c)

Liquid

d)

Solid

170.

Increasing the temperature of a gas increases the store of which energy type of the particles?

a)

Potential Energy

b)

Chemical Energy

c)

Kinetic Energy

d)

Pressure

171.

Latent Heat of Fusion: The amount of energy required to change the state of 1kg a substance from solid to liquid at fixed _____________

a)

Quantity

b)

Heat Energy

c)

Temperature

d)

Pressure

172.

You need a whiteboard and calculator here. You have 1 minute.


Find how much Ice will melt if you provide 14 000 000 J to a block of ice at 0º C. Latent heat of fusion of ice is 334 kJ / kg

a)

about 42 000 kg

b)

about 4.7 x 10 ^ 9 grams

c)

about 42 kg

d)

0.0238 kg

173.

Find the energy required to boil 0.250 kg of water away at 100ºC. The Latent Heat of Vapourisation of water is 2260 KJ/kg.

Q=mLv Q=mL_v\  

Lv of water = 2260 kJ per kgL_v\ of\ water\ =\ 2260\ kJ\ per\ kg  

a)

565 000 J

b)

565 J

c)

9040 J

d)

9.040 J

174.

Which is not a change of state

a)

Melting

b)

Boiling

c)

Sublimation

d)

Frosting

175.

What is the graph called?

a)

Melting and Boiling graph

b)

Temperature Graph

c)

Heating Curve of a substance

d)

Graph of Temperature and heating up

176.

At which point does the substance finish boiling

a)

B

b)

C

c)

E

d)

F

e)

D

177.
As particles are exposed to colder temperatures they _____
a)
speed up
b)
slow down
c)
stay the same
d)
become ions
178.
What is the change of state from a solid straight to a gas called?
a)
melting
b)
evaporating
c)
freezing
d)
sublimation
179.
What is a Solid?
a)
Matter that has a definite shape and a definite size.
b)
Matter that has a definite size and no definite shape
c)
Matter that has no definite shape or size
d)
Matter that has no definite shape and size
180.
A Gas is a state of matter that has _____________________________________________________
a)
No definite size or shape
b)
No shape but a defenite size
c)
A changing shape
181.
Ice Melting is an example of.......
a)
A liquid turning into a gas
b)
A solid turning into a liquid
c)
Gas turning into a liquid.
d)
A ssolid turning into a liquid
182.

In gases, pressure is

a)

directly proportional to volume

b)

inversely proportional to volume

c)

directly proportional to friction

d)

inversely proportional to heat

183.

Gas pressure is caused by

a)

Gas molecules heating up

b)

Gas molecules reacting with other gas molecules

c)

Gas molecules hitting the walls of a container

d)

Gas molecules hitting other gas molecules

184.

The temperature of gas is held constant, while its volume is decreased. The pressure exerted by the gas on the wall of the container increases, because its molecules

a)

Strike the walls with higher velocities

b)

Strike the walls with large farce

c)

Strike the walls more frequently

d)

Are in contact with the walls for a shorter time

185.
In what direction(s) does air exert pressure?
a)
everywhere
b)
no where
c)
there is no pressure
d)
downward
186.

The pressure of the gas in the balloon in the ice water will be:

a)

Greater than that of the balloon in the boiling water.

b)

Less than that of the balloon in the boiling water.

c)

The same as that of the balloon in the boiling water.

d)

Not enough information to answer the statement.

187.

The pressure inside the syringe will decrease if we move the plunger in:

a)

Direction A

b)

Direction B

c)

We don't have to move the plunger as the pressure will change on its own.

d)

None of the above answers.

188.

The reason gases can be compressed is because:

a)

The particles are very close together.

b)

The particles are merely vibrating.

c)

The particles are unable to move.

d)

The particles are very far apart.

189.
What two types of measurements make up DENSITY? 
a)
Mass and Volume
b)
Temperature and Mass
c)
Grams and Centimeters
d)
Volume and Weight
190.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
191.
Which liquid is the least dense?
a)
oil
b)
water
c)
syrup 
d)
plastic bottle
192.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
193.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
194.
Why do some substances float on water?
a)
they are warmer than water
b)
they are cooler than water
c)
they are more dense than water
d)
they are less dense than water
195.
What units are used to measure Density?
a)
cm3/g
b)
g
c)
g/cm3
d)
cm3
196.
The tool used to measure the mass of a substance or object is a ______________.
a)
balance
b)
graduated cylinder
c)
ruler
d)
thermometer
197.

In order to find the density of a regular object you must (check all that apply)

a)

Find the volume

b)

Calculate the weight

c)

Measure the mass

d)

Place it in a measuring cylinder

e)

Divide the mass by volume

198.

To find the density of an irregular object you must (check all that apply)

a)

Find the weight

b)

Measure the length

c)

Place in a measuring cylinder that contains a volume of liquid

d)

Calculate the difference in volume before and after placing the object inside

e)

Find the mass and divide it by the volume

199.

Which is true of liquids?

a)

Particles arranged in an ordered manner

b)

Particles are not touching one another.

c)

Particles are quite closely packed

d)

Particles can vibrate but not move around

200.

A cube of metal has side 2 cm. It weighs 10g. Find its density.

a)

5 g / cm3

b)

20 g / cm3

c)

0.2 g / cm3

d)

1.25 g / cm3

201.
Which states allow easy flow of particles
a)
Gas and Solid
b)
Gas and Liquid
c)
Solid and Liquid
d)
Gas only
202.
Can Solids be compressed?
a)
No
b)
Yes
c)
Sometimes (it depends what it's made of)
d)
Generally no
203.
What happens to particles as they heat up?
a)
They slow down
b)
Nothing
c)
They don't move
d)
They speed up
204.
Adding HEAT to matter causes its particles to:
a)
move faster and farther apart
b)
Move slower and farther apart
c)
Move faster and closer together
d)
Move slower and closer together
205.

The internal energy of a substance is made up of these two parts:

a)

elastic energy and potential energy

b)

internal energy and vibration energy

c)

potential energy and kinetic energy

d)

kinetic energy and elastic energy

206.

When we increase the kinetic energy of particles we also increase their .............?

a)

mass

b)

temperature

c)

size

d)

area

207.

When a substance is getting hotter, which internal energy store is increasing?

a)

gravitational

b)

potential

c)

kinetic

d)

elastic

208.

The temperature at which a substance changes state from a solid to a liquid is called the ...............?

a)

melting point

b)

boiling point

c)

evaporation point

d)

turning point

209.

What is happening at point D?

a)

The iron has disappeared

b)

The iron has stopped melting

c)

The iron is getting colder

d)

The iron is starting to boil

210.

What is the melting point of iron?

a)

0 oC

b)

1500 oC

c)

2800 oC

d)

3300 oC

211.
The change from a gas to a liquid is called 
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
deposition
212.
In which state of matter are particles moving the slowest?
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
gummy bears
213.
What is it called when the state of matter changes from a liquid to a solid?
a)
Vaporization
b)
Freezing
c)
Condensation
d)
Melting
214.

What happens to particles during changes of state between solid and liquid.

a)

Particles move so fast they break from their fixed position.

b)

Particles melt and become a liquid.

c)

Particles find a circular orbit around an atom's nucleus.

d)

Particles stop vibrating and change into their liquid form.

215.

Which properties do solids have?

a)

definite shape and volume

b)

no definite shape and a definite volume

c)

no definite shape and no definite volume

216.

What properties do gases have?

a)

definite shape and volume

b)

no definite shape and a definite volume

c)

no definite shape and no definite volume

217.
Which description best matches this particle model?
a)
Closely packed and can't move a lot. 
b)
Particles are close together but can move a little. 
c)
Particles have lots of energy and can move around. 
218.
Which states allow easy flow of particles
a)
Gas and Solid
b)
Gas and Liquid
c)
Solid and Liquid
d)
Gas only