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Science Bi-Weekly Review 02/08/24

Total questions: 183

Worksheet time: 8hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the Moon is receiving sunlight on the side facing away from Earth, the phase is what?

a)

Waxing Gibbous

b)

New Moon

c)

Waning Gibbous

d)

Full Moon

2.

We see only one side of the Moon because...

a)

The Moon rotates and revolves around Earth in the same length of time.

b)

We see both sides of the Moon.

c)

The Sun orbits Earth at the same time it rotates.

d)

The Earth orbits the Moon at the same time it rotates.

3.

What phase is number 4?

a)

Waning crescent

b)

Waning gibbous

c)

Waxing crescent

d)

Waxing gibbous

4.

Which phase is number 13?

a)

Waning gibbous

b)

Last quarter

c)

New Moon

d)

Waxing Crescent

5.

How long does it take for the Moon to rotate on its axis?

a)

One day

b)

One week

c)

One month

d)

One year

6.

What phase is this?

a)

Waning gibbous

b)

Full

c)

Last quarter

d)

Waxing crescent

7.

What phase is this?

a)

Full Moon

b)

New Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Last Quarter

8.

What phase is this?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

d)

Last Quarter

9.

What does "waning" mean?

a)

Staying the same

b)

Having one side illuminated

c)

Getting bigger and brighter

d)

Getting smaller and darker

10.

What does "waxing" mean?

a)

Can't be seen at all

b)

Getting smaller and darker

c)

Getting bigger and brighter

d)

Total illumination

11.

Tides are....

a)

Temperature changes in the ocean caused by the Sun

b)

Caused by daily eclipses

c)

The regular rise and fall of ocean levels

d)

Created by the change of seasons

12.

Tides occur...

a)

Daily

b)

Hourly

c)

Monthly

d)

Weekly

13.

Which tide would be the highest and lowest?

a)

Tide 1 would be highest

b)

Tide 1 would be lowest

c)

Tide 2 would be lowest

d)

Tide 2 would be highest

14.

The gravitational pull of the _____ causes the tides on Earth.

a)

Jupiter

b)

Sun

c)

Moon

d)

Mars

15.

How many tides are there in a 24 hour period?

a)

It takes longer that 24 hours to have tides

b)

2 tides

c)

3 tides

d)

4 tides

16.

A ​ (a)   ​ (b)   eclipse occurs when the  Sun’s surface is completely blocked out by the  

Moon.​ ​

Choose from the below words
total
solar
partial
lunar
17.

A ​ (a)   ​ (b)   eclipse occurs  when only part of the Sun’s surface is blocked by  the Moon.

Choose from the below words
partial
solar
total
lunar
18.

The Moon phase during a solar eclipse is ​ (a)   ​

Choose from the below words
New Moon
Full Moon
19.

 A ​ (a)   ​ (b)   eclipse occurs when the Moon  passes into the darkest part of the Earth’s shadow.

Choose from the below words
total
lunar
partial
solar
20.

What phase is the Moon in during a lunar  

eclipse?

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter

21.

A partial lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes into the​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
penumbra
umbra
vortex
22.

If the Moon is in the umbra of the Earth, what type of  eclipse is occurring?

a)

Total Solar Eclipse

b)

Total Lunar Eclipse

c)

Partial Solar Eclipse

d)

Partial Lunar Eclipse

23.

In the diagram, a ​​ (a)   is  occurring.​

Choose from the below words
solar eclipse
lunar eclipse
24.

In the diagram above, a ​ (a)   is occurring.

Choose from the below words
lunar eclipse
solar eclipse
25.

Why does a Lunar Eclipse always happen with a full moon phase?

a)

Because the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon.

b)

Because the Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.

c)

Because the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon.

26.

Label 'A' is the ​ (a)  

Label 'B' is the ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
penumbra
umbra
Space Ship
Solar Eclipse
27.

What phase of the moon is it ALWAYS during a solar eclipse?

a)

First Quarter

b)

New Moon

c)

Full Moon

d)

Waning Cresecent

28.

Labe the diagram

a)Sun
b)Earth
c)Moon
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
29.
What is gravity?
a)
A force
b)
Energy
c)
A push
d)
All of them
30.

Which has more mass, the Earth or the Moon?

a)

Earth

b)

Moon

c)

Their masses are the same

31.

Which has a STRONGER force of gravity, the Earth or the Moon?

a)

Earth

b)

Moon

32.
Any object with mass has gravity.
a)
True
b)
Sometimes
c)
False
d)
Never
33.

What two things determine the gravity of an object?

a)

mass & weight

b)

mass & distance

c)

density & mass

d)

volume & distance

34.

When will the forces of gravity between two objects be the GREATEST?

a)

when the masses of both objects are small and the objects are far apart

b)

when the masses of both objects are large and the objects are close together

c)

when the masses of both objects are small and the objects are close together

d)

when the masses of both objects are large and the objects are far apart

35.

Which statement about gravity is true?

a)

gravity causes objects to pull towards one another

b)

gravity causes objects to push away from each other

c)

gravity only takes place between planets

d)

the moon doesn't have any gravity

36.

Which model has greater gravitational attraction.

a)

Model A

b)

Model B

c)

Model A and B have the same amount of gravitational attraction.

37.

What keeps the planets in orbit around the sun?

a)

gravity

b)

friction

c)

density

d)

distance

38.

When will the gravity between two objects be the LEAST?

a)

when the masses of both objects is small and the objects are close together

b)

when the masses of both objects is small and the objects are far apart

c)

when the masses of both objects is large and the objects are close together

d)

when the masses of both objects is large and the objects are far apart

39.
Gravity attracts all objects towards one another. 
a)
True
b)
False 
40.
As distance between objects increases the pull of gravity...
a)
increases 
b)
decreases 
c)
Stays the same 
41.
An example of a gravitational interaction is that the Earth... 
a)
orbits the sun
b)
orbits the moon
c)
orbits other planets 
d)
None of the above 
42.
__________holds all of the planets in orbit around the sun.
a)
Force
b)
Motion
c)
Weight
d)
Gravity
43.

The planet Mars has less gravity than Earth. This is because Mars has ___________ mass than the planet Earth.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

the same

44.
Day and night on Earth is caused by
a)
The tilt of Earth's axis
b)
Earth's revolution around the sun
c)
Eclipses
d)
Earth's rotation on it's axis
45.
Earth's rotation takes about 
a)
365 days
b)
6 months
c)
24 hours
d)
1 month
46.
One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about
a)
180 days
b)
300 days
c)
365 days
d)
385 days
47.
Earth has seasons because 
a)
Earth rotates on it's axis
b)
The distance between Earth and the sun changes
c)
The temperature of the sun changes
d)
Earth's axis is tilted as it moves around the sun
48.
This picture shows Earth's
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
49.
What does rotation of the Earth mean?
a)
Spin
b)
Orbit
c)
Circle
d)
Pulse
50.

The Earth orbits around _?_.

a)

the sun

b)

the moon

c)

other planets

d)

the Milky Way

51.
This is the imaginary line that intersects the Earth through both the North and South Poles
a)
Equator
b)
Axis
c)
Fault line
d)
Latitude
52.
Our Earth does not travel sitting perfectly straight, It has a tilt. Our Earth has a tilt of
a)
20 degrees
b)
180 degrees
c)
23.5 degrees
d)
36.5 degrees
53.
This picture shows Earth's 
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
54.
True or False: The Sun revolves around the Earth
a)
True
b)
False
55.
When shooting a basketball in gym class, the basketball travels through the air spinning representing Earth's
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
56.
Earth is tilted as it revolves around the sun which gives us seasons. Which season would it be in North America at letter D?
a)
Summer
b)
Spring
c)
Winter
d)
Fall
57.
When the Northern Hemisphere of Earth is Leaning away from the Sun, What season is the Southern Hemisphere experiencing?
a)
Summer
b)
Winter
c)
Spring
d)
Fall
58.

What is the name of the imaginary line the Earth spins around?

a)

Axis

b)

Latitude

c)

Longitude

d)

Equator

59.

What causes seasons on Earth?

a)

Earth's rotation and gravitational pull

b)

Earth's rotation and tilt

c)

Earth's revolution around the Sun and tilt

d)

Tides

60.

True or False: The Northern and Southern Hemispheres are always in opposite seasons.

(a)  

61.

What season is it when the hemisphere in which you live is tilted away from the Sun?

a)

Summer

b)

Winter

c)

Fall

d)

Spring

62.

What season is it in the Southern Hemisphere when it is fall in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

63.

Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1? (Hint: look at the Earth's tilt)

a)

Winter

b)

Summer

c)

Spring

d)

Fall

64.

Which positions show where solstices occur?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

1 and 3

d)

2 and 4

65.

Which position shows spring in the Northern Hemisphere?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

66.

Which definition correctly defines an equinox?

a)

Occurs twice a year, during fall and spring, where there is an equal amount of daylight and night time hours.

b)

Occurs twice a year, during summer and winter, where there is an equal amount of daylight and night time hours.

c)

Occurs twice a year, with the most hours of sunlight in the summer and the least hours of sunlight in the winter.

d)

Occurs twice a year, with the most hours of sunlight in the fall and the least hours of sunlight in the spring.

67.

Why are countries near the equator warm all year round?

a)

They receive indirect sunlight and the light is spread over a larger area.

b)

They have 4 distinct seasons: spring, summer, fall and winter

c)

They receive very little sunlight.

d)

They receive direct sunlight and get about 12 hours of sunlight per day no matter what time of year.

68.

Which of the following orders the rock layers accurately from oldest to youngest?

a)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5

b)

5, 4, 3, 2, 1

c)

2, 3, 4, 5, 1

d)

1, 2, 3, 5, 4

69.
Which of these rock layers is relatively the newest?
a)
Kaibab formation
b)
Zoraster Granite
c)
Redwall limestone
d)
Unkar group
70.

Which of the following occurred relatively most recently?

a)

Fault A

b)

Intrusion B

c)

Folding

d)

Intrusion D

71.
Which fossil is relatively the oldest?
a)
Trilobite
b)
Ammonite
c)
Crinoid
d)
Gastropod
72.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
73.
Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be the oldest?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
74.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
75.

Which of the following offers a possible list of the layers in order from oldest to youngest?

a)

A, B, C, D, E

b)

E, C, B, D, A

c)

E, D, C, B, A

d)

C, B, A, D, E

76.

Which rock layer was deposited first, and is the oldest rock, in this diagram?

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

77.

What is the youngest layer in the diagram?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

78.

Look at the diagram, what layer did animal E first show up in?

a)

Layer #4

b)

Layer #5

c)

Layer #6

d)

Layer #8

79.
According to the law of superposition, the oldest fossils are found 
a)
At the top of the rock layers
b)
Near the bottom of the rock layers
c)
In the middle of the rock layers
d)
Somewhat near the surface
80.
Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be the oldest?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
81.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
82.
Which rock layer most likely contains fossils of the most recently evolved organisms?
a)
4
b)
3
c)
1
d)
2
83.
Which animal is the youngest in site 1?
a)
bird
b)
ammonite 
c)
shell
84.
Put the layers in order from oldest to youngest.
a)
a, b, c, d, e
b)
b, c, d, a, e
c)
b, c, d, e, a 
d)
e, d, c, b, a
85.
Which rock layer in the diagram seems to be the oldest?
a)
F
b)
E
c)
B
d)
A
86.

The place where 2 tectonic plates meet?

a)

Pattern

b)

Plate Boundary

c)

Mantle

d)

Earthquake

87.

The pieces that make up Earth's surface?

a)

Jigsaw puzzle

b)

Pattern

c)

Plate boundary

d)

Tectonic Plates

88.

Tectonic Plate movement is caused by ______________.

a)

the rotation of the Earth

b)

ocean tides

c)

convection currents in the mantle

d)

the moon's gravity

89.
In which type of boundary do the plates move away from each other?
a)
convergent
b)
normal
c)
divergent
d)
transform
90.
At which type of plate boundary does seafloor spreading occur?
a)
Tranform
b)
Convergent
c)
Divergent
d)
Subductive Zone
91.
What type of boundary is formed when plates separate?
a)
convergent
b)
horizontal
c)
divergent
d)
transform
92.
A boundary where two plates move away from each other.
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
93.

where two plates are moving apart, magma comes up to create new crust

a)

ridge

b)

divergent boundary

c)

convergent boundary

d)

plate boundary

94.

Earth's ______________________ is liquid.

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

95.
What are the two types of crust
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and upper
c)
lower and upper
d)
pizza and subway
96.

The asthenosphere is the layer of the Earth just below the ________________________________.

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Lithosphere

97.

The ridge in the middle of the Atlantic Ocean formed along a _____________________________.

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

98.

Which of the following makes up most of Earth's mass?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

99.

The ancient continent that contained all the landmasses is called...

a)

Pangaea

b)

Gondwana

c)

Laurasia

d)

Panthalassa

100.

A sudden shaking of Earth's surface?

a)

Tsunami

b)

Volcano

c)

Earthquake

d)

A mesosaurus walking by

101.

What is this image of ?

a)

Revolving boundary

b)

San Andreas (Transform fault)

c)

Convergent

102.

Tectonic Plate movement is caused by ______________.

a)

the rotation of the Earth

b)

ocean tides

c)

convection currents in the mantle

d)

the moon's gravity

103.

What type of Boundary is this? What event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Transform / Earthquakes

b)

Subduction / Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado / Rain

d)

Mountain Building / Volcanism

104.

The San Andreas fault is an example of a...

a)

divergent boundary

b)

transform boundary

c)

convergent boundary

d)

plate boundary

105.

Which section of Earth is composed primarily of liquid metal?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

106.

Which of the following is NOT a piece of evidence presented by Wegener to support Continental Drift

a)

Plant and animal fossils on different continents

b)

Matching landforms on different continents

c)

Magnetic striping on the ocean floor

d)

Puzzle fit of modern continents

107.

What is this a picture of?

a)

plate tectonics

b)

continental drift

c)

pangea

d)

glacier scaring

108.

Originally the Continental drift theory was not well received by other scientists. Why?

a)

There was a competing theory at the time that was more believable.

b)

There was no data showing the continents ever moved.

c)

Wegener could not explain the mechanism that made continents move

d)

The scientist presenting the data was unreliable.

109.

Which of the following scientists discovered sea floor spreading?

a)

Wegener

b)

Hess

c)

Einstein

d)

Churchill

110.

What is an underwater mountain range where new ocean floor is made?

a)

subduction

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

deep-sea trench

111.

Plate Tectonics and Continental Drift are the same thing

a)

True

b)

False

112.

What two components make up the Plate Tectonic Theory?

a)

Continental Drift and Magnetic Striping

b)

Continental Drift and Seafloor Spreading

c)

Seafloor Spreading and Plate Tectonics

113.

What evidence helped Harry Hess prove that sea-floor spreading was occuring

a)

Ocean crust gets older as you move away from mid ocean ridges

b)

Underwater mountains

c)

Fossils of plants and animals

d)

Puzzle fit of the continents

114.

What evidence helps scientists show how sea floor spreading occurs?

a)

Age of oceanic crust

b)

Magnetic Stripes

c)

New Crust created at Mid ocean Ridges

d)

All of these

115.

Which answer correctly matches the timeline of discoveries.

a)

Hess, Sea Floor Spreading, Early 1900's

b)

Wegener, Continental Drift, Early 1950's

c)

Continental Drift 1915, Sea Floor Spreading 1950's, Plate Tectonic Theory 1960's

116.

What device was used by scientists to discover what was happening under the ocean?

a)

sonar

b)

radar

117.
In the Atlantic ocean, where is the youngest seafloor located?
a)
Towards the edges, near the eastern and western continents
b)
Towards the middle of the ocean
c)
Towards the north and south poles
d)
Young seafloor is located randomly throughout the ocean
118.
How do scientists figure out the age of the seafloor?
a)
They research it from ancient sea maps that trading vessels would use in the 1700s
b)
They use the moon phases and eclipses to calculate the age
c)
They use seismographs and the depth as well as location of earthquakes to calculate the age
d)
They take drill ships to many locations in the oceans and collect, then date, rock samples. 
119.

True or False: The plates are currently moving

a)
True
b)
False
120.

An air mass classified as mT usually forms over what type of Earth surface?

a)

Warm water

b)

Warm land

c)

Cool land

d)

Cool water

121.

Which type of weather is usually associated with a cP air mass?

a)

moist and cool

b)

dry and warm

c)

moist and warm

d)

dry and cool

122.

Compared to a maritime tropical air mass, a maritime polar air mass has a

a)

higher temperature and less water vapor

b)

lower temperature and more water vapor

c)

higher temperature and more water vapor

d)

lower temperature and less water vapor

123.

 

Which type of air mass usually contains the most moisture?

a)

cT

b)

cP

c)

mT

d)

mP

124.

An air mass classified as mP usually forms over which type of Earth surface?

a)

warm ocean

b)

cool ocean

c)

warm land

d)

cool land

125.

The graph shows changes in the atmosphere occurring above typical air mass source regions A, B, C, and D. changes in air temperature and altitude are shown as the graphed lines. Changes in water vapor content, in grams of vapor per kilogram of air, are shown as numbers on each graphed line.

Which list best identifies each air mass source region?

a)

A - mP,

B - mT,

C - cT,

D - cP

b)

A - cP

B - mP

C - mT

D - cT

c)

A - cT

B - cP

C - mP

D - mT

d)

A - mT

B - cT

C - cP

D - mP

126.

 

An Earth Science student observed the following weather conditions in Albany, New York, for 2 days. The first day was warm and humid with southerly winds. the second day, the temperature was 15 degrees cooler, the relative humidity had decreased, and wind direction was northwest. Which type of air mass most likely had moved into the area on the second day?

a)

continental tropical

b)

maritime polar

c)

continental polar

d)

maritime tropical

127.

 

In New York State, dry, cool air masses (cP) often interact with moist, warm air masses (mT). Which statement correctly matches each air mass with its usual geographic source region?

a)

cP is from northern Canada and mT is from the Gulf of Mexico

b)

cP is from northern Canada and mT is from the deserts of the southwestern United States

c)

cP is from the North Atlantic Ocean and mT is from the Gulf of Mexico

d)

cP is from the North Atlantic Ocean and mT is from the deserts of the southwestern United States

128.

Which air mass is normally associated with the formation of hurricanes?

a)

maritime tropical

b)

maritime polar

c)

continental polar

d)

continental tropical

129.

Large pockets of air that may cover ten thousand or more square miles are called______________________.

a)

air masses

b)

weather fronts

c)

stationary fronts

d)

pressure zones

130.

Air masses are named for _______________________.

a)

The type of air they contain

b)

where they form

c)

people

d)

countries

131.

Low pressure air masses are called _______________________.

a)

anticyclones

b)

cyclones

c)

occluded fronts

d)

stationary fronts

132.

A cold front usually brings what kind of weather?

a)

sunny and fair

b)

rain and/or thunderstorms

c)

snow

d)

cool and dry air

133.

When a cold front or a warm front stays in place for several days without invading another front, it is called a____________________.

a)

warm front

b)

cold front

c)

occluded front

d)

stationary front

134.

When two air masses meet, what happens?

a)

it always rains

b)

the weather changes and precipitation usually occurs

c)

it becomes sunny and mild weather

d)

the weather will become colder

135.

Warm air is ______________________.

a)

less dense than cold air

b)

lighter than cold air

c)

thinner than cold air

d)

all of the answers

136.

When a warm and a cold air mass meet, what happens?

a)

The warm air would slide up and over the cold air.

b)

The heavier cold air would sink and slide in under the warm air.

c)

Some form of precipitation would occur.

d)

all of the answers

137.

Cooler air can hold less water than warm air.

a)

false

b)

true

138.

Air masses are different in many ways. Which of these is NOT different?

a)

ratio of oxygen/nitrogen

b)

atmospheric (air) pressure

c)

temperature

d)

moisture contents

139.

What kind of weather would a maritime tropical air mass bring? paragraph 5

a)

cold dry air,

b)

warm dry air, heat

c)

cold moist air, snow

d)

warm moist air, may bring rain

140.

What would an air mass that forms over land near the arctic be called_____________________?paragraph 4

a)

continental polar

b)

continental maritime

c)

continental arctic

d)

maritime continental

141.

The edge between two air masses is called a_______________.paragraph 8

a)

wedge

b)

line

c)

front

d)

boundary

142.

Low pressure air masses rotate in what direction? paragraph 6

a)

clockwise

b)

counterclockwise

c)

to the west

d)

to the east

143.

What happens after a cold air mass passes through and area? paragraph 9

a)

It snows and stays for many days.

b)

Only cold weather forms in the area.

c)

Any rain stops. Dry, clear cool or cold weather follows.

d)

It rains or snows for many days.

144.

A cold front is approaching Minneapolis. What will happen to the air temperature?

a)

stay the same

b)

increase

c)

decrease

145.
Choose the best forecast for Seattle on Saturday.
a)
rain
b)
sunny skies
c)
warmer temperatures
d)
snow
146.
Choose the best forecast for Chicago on Saturday.
a)
rain
b)
warmer temperatures
c)
snow
d)
sunny skies
147.
Choose the best forecast for Dallas on Saturday.
a)
thunderstorms
b)
snow
c)
warmer temperatures
d)
clear skies
148.
Choose the best forecast for Los Angeles on Saturday.
a)
cooler temperatures
b)
warmer temperatures 
c)
low pressure
d)
snow
149.
a)
High Pressure
b)
Warm Front
c)
Cold Front
d)
Mountains
150.
a)
High Air Pressure
b)
High Temperatures
c)
Heavy Rain
d)
Hail
151.
a)
Low Clouds
b)
Low Temperatures
c)
Light Wind
d)
Low Air Pressure
152.
a)
Warm Front
b)
High Air Pressure
c)
Cold Front
d)
High Temperatures
153.

Why do you see precipitation near the L? (select 2 answers)

a)

because that is low pressure and that is where air rises, forming clouds

b)

because that is where air is falling and it brings rain with it

c)

because southern Ohio is always rainy this time of year

d)

because the cold front is meeting the warm front which forces warm air to rise rapidly forming clouds

154.

The general pattern of winds around a high pressure area is clockwise, outward. The general pattern of winds around a low pressure area is counterclockwise, inward. Based on the information provided, which city shown will most likely have winds from the south?

a)

Rockford

b)

Chicago

c)

Kankakee

d)

La Salle

155.

The Jet Stream is a global pattern of atmospheric movement that influences patterns in local weather. Based on the information provided in the weather map, which city shown will most likely experience a drop in pressure over the next few days?

a)

Baltimore

b)

Portland

c)

Rapid City

156.

Near which two cities are the low pressure systems located?

a)

Seattle & San Francisco

b)

Chicago & Seattle

c)

Dallas & Houston

d)

Chicago & Nashville

157.

Near which city is the high pressure system located?

a)

Seattle

b)

Minneapolis

c)

Dallas

d)

Chicago

158.

Which two cities are most likely to experience clear, dry weather?

a)

Seattle & San Francisco

b)

Chicago & Minneapolis

c)

Chicago & Nashville

d)

Dallas & Houston

159.

Tim said that Chicago is most likely to experience rainy weather. Jennifer thinks that Dallas is most likely to experience rainy weather.

Which student is correct?

a)

Tim because Chicago is the closest to a low pressure system and they produce precipitation.

b)

Jennifer because high pressure systems produce precipitation

c)

Both students are correct because all systems produce precipitation

d)

Neither of the students are correct because the cities are not close enough to the system.

160.

What type of weather is Minneapolis most likely experiencing?

a)

light/drizzly rain

b)

severe thunderstorms

c)

sunny skies

d)

cloudy skies, light precipitation

161.

What type of weather is Denver most likely experiencing? Notice the type of front that has just passed through.

a)

High humidity, cooler temperatures

b)

Low humidity, cooler temperatures

c)

Rainy, cold weather

d)

Rainy, humid weather

162.

Why does city "B" have clear skies?

a)

It is in North America

b)

There is not a front moving through city "B"

c)

Clouds do not form in the West

d)

It is located near a high pressure system

163.

Which location is most likely experiencing warmer temperatures and higher humidity?

a)

Location A

b)

Location B

c)

Location C

d)

Location D

164.
 Where do tropical storms start? 
a)
northpole
b)
on the coast
c)
in the ocean, near the equator
d)
in the ocean, near land
165.
"A tropical cyclone is a very strong tropical storm that starts in the ocean waters near the equator. The storm moves its way toward where the air is cooler, which is usually away from the equator. The wind gets stronger, and the rain gets heavier." What can be concluded about a tropical storm as it moves away from the equator? 
a)
It disappears.
b)
Its strength does not change. 
c)
It gets stronger.
d)
It gets weaker.
166.
What might be a reason why scientists track tornadoes? 
a)
to encourage more people to use radar technology
b)
to warn people against living in “Tornado Alley”
c)
to lower the number of tornadoes that happen every year
d)
to gather information that is used to warn people that a tornado is approaching 
167.
One similarity between a tornado and a hurricane is that both__________.
a)
Both happen at the equator
b)
In hurricanes and thunderstorms the wind becomes stronger up to 200 miles per hour.
c)
Both types of storm get named
d)
Both types of storms can last up to 14 days
168.

How the Tornado and Hurricane are alike?

a)

they both have very fast winds

b)

the both have spinning air

c)

they both can rip off roofs and houses

d)

All are correct

169.

What is the difference between tornadoes and hurricanes?

a)

hurricanes usually occur over land, while tornadoes almost always form over the ocean.

b)

tornadoes usually occur over land, while hurricanes almost always form over the ocean.

c)

the only difference is the damage they can cause to the infrastructure and to the people

d)

they have no big difference

170.

The Tornado Alley is the area where the tornadoes usually occur. What states are most likely to have tornadoes?

a)

Oklahoma

b)

Texas

c)

Kansas

d)

All are correct

171.

The basic ingredient to create a tornado is a

a)

cyclone

b)

typhoon

c)

thunderstorm

d)

all can create tornadoes

172.

The ____________ is the center of a hurricane, and is the calmest part of a storm.

a)

Eye

b)

Convection Currents

c)

warm winds

d)

cold winds

173.

To be consider a hurricane a storm winds speed need to reach _____________ according to the Saffir Simpson Scale.

a)

50 mph

b)

74 mph

c)

68 mph

d)

100 mph

174.

Hurricanes are formed ..

a)

by the eye

b)

above warm ocean waters

c)

by global warming

d)

in windy areas

175.

What is the difference between cyclones, hurricanes and typhoons?

a)

the amount of water

b)

the speed of the winds

c)

the temperature of the water

d)

the location where the storm occurs

176.
Why do hurricanes inflict more damage than tornadoes?
a)
they are larger
b)
they last longer
c)
also associated with flooding and strong rains
d)
all of the above
177.
Tornadoes start as a what kind of cloud?
a)
funnel
b)
Cumulonimbus
c)
hair
d)
tall
178.
Thunderstorm clouds are called - 
a)
Cirrus
b)
Stratus
c)
Cumulus
d)
Cumulonimbus
179.
A hurricane rotates _____.
a)
Clockwise
b)
Counterclockwise 
180.
The pressure inside a hurricane is _______.
a)
High
b)
Low
181.

The major difference between a tropical storm and a hurricane is __________.

a)

rainfall amounts

b)

wind speed

c)

air temperature

182.
What causes damage in a hurricane?
a)
Winds
b)
Flooding
c)
Storm Surge
d)
All of the above
183.

If The National Weather Service forecasts that a tornado MAY develop later...

a)

They issue a Tornado Watch

b)

They release a Tornado Warning

c)

They will ask people to evacuate their homes

d)

They will send meteorologists into the storm to study it