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DataBase midterm

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database

system?

a)

Database application and the database

b)

Data and the database

c)

The user and the database application

d)

Database application and SQL

2.

The following are components of a database except ________ .

a)

user data

b)

metadata

c)

reports

d)

indexes

3.

SQL stands for ________ .

a)

Structured Query Language

b)

Sequential Query Language

c)

Structured Question Language

d)

Sequential Question Language

4.

You have run an SQL statement that asked the DBMS to display data in a table named

USER_TABLES. The results include columns of data labeled "TableName,"

"NumberOfColumns" and "PrimaryKey." You are looking at ________ .

a)

user data.

b)

metadata

c)

metadata

d)

indexes

5.

A DBMS that combines a DBMS and an application generator is ________ .

a)

Microsoft's SQL Server

b)

Microsoft's Access

c)

IBM's DB2

d)

Oracle Corporation's Oracle

6.

The following are functions of a DBMS except ________ .

a)

creating and processing forms

b)

creating databases

c)

processing data

d)

administrating databases

7.

Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of cells in a

column must be one of a specific set of possible values?

a)

A domain constraint

b)

A range constraint

c)

An intrarelation constraint

d)

An interrelation constraint

8.

Helping people keep track of things is the purpose of a(n) ________ .

a)

database

b)

table

c)

instance

d)

relationship

9.

A unique, DBMS-supplied identifier used as the primary key of a relation is called a(n):

a)

primary key.

b)

foreign key.

c)

composite key.

d)

surrogate key.

10.

Which of the following data constraints would be used to specify that the value of a cell in one column must be less than the value of a cell in another column in the same row of the same table?

a)

A domain constraint

b)

A range constraint

c)

An intrarelation constraint

11.

The identifier of an entity will become the ________ of the new table.

a)

foreign key

b)

main attribute

c)

primary key

d)

identity key

12.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must be immediately filled with a monetary value of $10,000?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

13.

In a 1:1 relationship, the foreign key is placed in:

a)

either table without specifying parent and child tables.

b)

the parent table.

c)

the child table.

d)

either the parent table or the child table

14.

Which of the following columns is(are) are required in a table?

a)

A foreign key

b)

An alternate key

c)

A primary key

d)

A surrogate key.

15.

A foreign key is:

a)

a column containing the primary key of another table.

b)

used to define data types.

c)

used to define null status.

d)

all of the above are above correct.

16.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

17.

A primary key should be defined as:

a)

NULL

b)

Either of the above can be used.

c)

NOT NULL

d)

None of the above are correct.

18.

Which of the following column properties specifies whether or not cells in a column must contain

a data value?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

19.

In a 1:N relationship, the foreign key is placed in:

a)

either table without specifying parent and child tables.

b)

the parent table.

c)

the child table.

d)

either the parent table or the child table.

20.

For every relationship, how many possible types of actions are there when enforcing minimum cardinalities?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Six

21.

Which is not true about surrogate keys?

a)

They are short.

b)

They are fixed.

c)

They have meaning to the user.

d)

They are numeric.

22.

The DBMS that is most difficult to use is ________ .

a)

Microsoft's SQL Server

b)

Microsoft's Access

c)

IBM's DB2

d)

Oracle Corporation's Oracle

23.

Selecting a data type involves which of the following?

a)

Maximize storage space

b)

Represent most values

c)

Improve data integrity

d)

All of the above.

24.

Which of the following is an advantage of partitioning?

a)

Complexity

b)

Inconsistent access speed

c)

Extra space

d)

Security

25.

If a denormalization situation exists with a many-to-many or associative binary relationship, which of the following is true?

a)

All fields are stored in one relation.

b)

All fields are stored in two relations.

c)

All fields are stored in three relations.

d)

All fields are stored in four relations.

26.

If a denormalization situation exists with a one-to-one binary relationship, which of the following is true?

a)

All fields are stored in one relation.

b)

All fields are stored in two relations.

c)

All fields are stored in three relations.

d)

All fields are stored in four relations.

27.

Which of the following column properties would be used to specify that cells in a column must contain a monetary value that is less than another monetary value in the same row?

a)

Null status

b)

Data type

c)

Default value

d)

Data constraints

28.

If a relationship has a cascade updates constraint, then if ________ in the parent table is changed, then the same change will automatically be made to any corresponding foreign key value.

a)

the primary key

b)

any alternate key

c)

a surrogate key

d)

a foreign key

29.

For every relationship, how many possible sets of minimum cardinalities are there?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Six

30.

Each entity is represented as a(n):

a)

tuple.

b)

table.

c)

attribute

d)

file

31.

Which constraint requires that the binary relationship indicate all combinations that must appear in the ternary relationship?

a)

MUST COVER

b)

MUST NOT

c)

Both of the above.

d)

None of the above is correct.

32.

Which of the following are integrity controls that a DBMS may support?

a)

Assume a default value in a field unless a user enters a value for that field.

b)

Limit the set of permissible values that a field may assume.

c)

Limit the use of null values in some fields.

d)

All of the above.

33.

Which of the following is not a factor to consider when switching from small to large block size?

a)

The length of all of the fields in a table row.

b)

The number of columns

c)

Block contention

d)

Random row access speed

34.

What is the best data type definition for Oracle when a field is alphanumeric and has a fixed length?

a)

VARCHAR2

b)

CHAR

c)

LONG

d)

NUMBER

35.

A rule of thumb for choosing indexes for a relational database includes which of the following?

a)

Indexes are more useful on smaller tables.

b)

Indexes are more useful for columns that do not appear frequently in the WHERE clause in queries.

c)

Do not specify a unique index for the primary key of each table.

d)

Be careful indexing attributes that have null values.

36.

Which of the following database activities allow for the actual retrieval and use of a database?

a)

Enterprise modeling

b)

Logical database design

c)

Physical database design and definition

d)

Database implementation

37.

Which is not a type of data management technology?

a)

Relational

b)

Rational

c)

Object-oriented

d)

Dimensional

38.

The first step in database development is which of the following?

a)

Enterprise data modeling

b)

Logical database design

c)

Physical database design and definition

d)

Database Implementation

39.

Which of the following database activities determines the entities, attributes, and relationships of data?

a)

Conceptual data modeling

b)

Logical database design

c)

Physical database design and definition

d)

Database implementation

40.

The use of packaged data models can offer which of the following benefits?

a)

Reduce implementation time and costs

b)

Higher quality models

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A nor B.

41.

An entity type is which of the following?

a)

A major category of data about people, place, and things

b)

The various departments of an organization

c)

The application software

d)

The business processes the support the mission of an organization

42.

In enterprise data modeling, which is incorrect?

a)

You review current systems.

b)

You implement the new database.

c)

You describe the data needed at a very high level of abstraction.

d)

You plan one or more database development projects.

43.

Which of the following database activities require a specific knowledge of a DBMS?

a)

Enterprise modeling

b)

Conceptual data modeling

c)

Logical database design

d)

Physical database design and definition

44.

Whose role is it to determine the requirements and design for a database?

a)

Database analysts

b)

Database administrators

c)

Both A and B

d)

Neither A or B.

45.

Which of the following indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship?

a)

Minimum cardinality

b)

ERD

c)

Maximum cardinality

d)

Greater Entity Count (GEC)

46.

Which type of entity cannot exist in the database unless another type of entity also exists in the database, but does not require that the identifier of that other entity be included as part of its own identifier?

a)

Weak entity

b)

Strong entity

c)

ID-dependent entity

d)

ID- independent entity

47.

In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the one side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity.

a)

parent

b)

child

c)

instance

d)

subtype

48.

Which type of entity represents an actual occurrence of an associated generalized entity?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

49.

A recursive relationship is a relationship between an entity and ________ .

a)

itself

b)

a subtype entity

c)

an archetype entity

d)

an instance entity

50.

Which of the following indicates the minimum number of entities that must be involved in a relationship?

a)

Minimum cardinality

b)

Maximum cardinality

c)

ERD

d)

Greater Entity Count (GEC)

51.

Which of the following refers to something that can be identified in the users' work environment, something that the users want to track?

a)

Entity

b)

Attribute

c)

Identifier

d)

Relationship

52.

In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type related to many entity instances of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

53.

Which of the following refers to an entity in which the identifier of one entity includes the identifier of another entity?

a)

Weak entity

b)

Strong entity

c)

ID-dependent entity

d)

ID-independent entity

54.

Which type of entity is related to two or more associated entities that each contain specialized attributes that apply to some but not all of the instances of the entity?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

55.

An attribute that names or identifies entity instances is a(n):

a)

entity

b)

attribute

c)

identifier

d)

relationship

56.

Properties that describe the characteristics of entities are called:

a)

entities

b)

attributes

c)

identifiers

d)

relationships

57.

. In which of the following can many entity instances of one type be related to many entity instances of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

58.

Entities of a given type are grouped into a(n):

a)

database

b)

entity class

c)

attribute

d)

ERD

59.

Which of the following is NOT a basic element of all versions of the E-R model?

a)

Entities

b)

Attributes

c)

Relationships

d)

Primary keys

60.

In which of the following is a single-entity instance of one type of related to a single-entity instance of another type?

a)

One-to-One Relationship

b)

One-to-Many Relationship

c)

Many-to-Many Relationship

d)

Composite Relationship

61.

Entities can be associated with one another in which of the following?

a)

Entities

b)

Attributes

c)

Identifiers

d)

Relationships

62.

Which type of entity has its relationship to another entity determined by an attribute in that other entity called a discriminator?

a)

Supertype entity

b)

Subtype entity

c)

Archetype entity

d)

Instance entity

63.

In a one-to-many relationship, the entity that is on the many side of the relationship is called a(n) ________ entity.

a)

parent

b)

child

c)

instance

d)

subtype

64.

An oval represents which of the following in an EER?

a)

Attribute

b)

Entity

c)

Optional One

d)

Relationship

65.

Inheritance is which of the following?

a)

When a supertype entity inherits values of the subtype attribute

b)

When a subtype entity inherits values of the supertype attribute

c)

When a supertype entity inherits values of another supertype attribute

d)

When a subtype entity inherits values of another subtype attribute

66.

When an entity instance must be a member of only one subtype, it is which of the following?

a)

Disjoint with total specialization

b)

Disjoint with partial specialization

c)

Overlap with total specialization

d)

Overlap with partial specialization

67.

A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following?

a)

Each subtype has only one attribute.

b)

Each supertype has only one attribute.

c)

Each subtype has only one supertype.

d)

Each supertype has only one subtype

68.

A rectangle represents which of the following in an EER?

a)

Attribute

b)

Entity

c)

Optional One

d)

Relationship

69.

Which one of the following symbols is not used in an ERD?

a)

Rectangle

b)

Oval

c)

Diamond

d)

Circle

70.

Specialization is which of the following processes?

a)

Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and forming supertype/subtype relationships.

b)

Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and forming supertype/subtype relationships.

c)

Defining one or more subtypes of the supertype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships.

d)

Defining one or more supertypes of the subtype and not forming supertype/subtype relationships.

71.

A supertype/subtype hierarchy has which of the following features?

a)

Subtypes at the lower lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate supertype

b)

Attributes are assigned at the highest logical level.

c)

Subtypes at the higher lever in the hierarchy inherit attributes only from their immediate subtype.

d)

Attributes are assigned at the lowest logical level.

72.

A subtype discriminator is which of the following?

a)

An attribute of the supertype whose values determine the subtype

b)

An attribute of the subtype whose values determine the supertype

c)

An attribute of the supertype whose values determine the supertype

d)

An attribute of the subtype whose values determine the subtype

73.

When an entity instance may be a member of multiple subtypes or it does not have to be a member of a subtype, it is which of the following?

a)

Disjoint with total specialization

b)

Disjoint with partial specialization

c)

Overlap with total specialization

d)

Overlap with partial specialization

74.

A subtype entity name should be which of the following?

a)

A singular noun

b)

Specific to the organization

c)

Concise

d)

All of the above

75.

Use of a supertype/subtype relationship is necessary when which of the following exists?

a)

An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is unique to that subtype

b)

An instance of a subtype participates in a relationship that is the same as the other subtypes

c)

Attributes apply to all of the instances of an entity type

d)

No attributes apply to any of the instances of an entity type.

76.

Row is synonymous with the term:

a)

record

b)

relation

c)

column

d)

field

77.

Which of the following is a group of one or more attributes that uniquely identifies a row?

a)

Key

b)

Determinant

c)

Tuple

d)

Relation

78.

When the values in one or more attributes being used as a foreign key must exist in another set of one or more attributes in another table, we have created a(n):

a)

transitive dependency.

b)

insertion anomaly.

c)

referential integrity constraint.

d)

normal form.

79.

A relation is considered a:

a)

Column

b)

one-dimensional table.

c)

two-dimensional table.

d)

three-dimensional table.

80.

In the relational model, relationships between relations or tables are created by using:

a)

composite keys.

b)

determinants

c)

candidate keys.

d)

foreign keys.

81.

A functional dependency is a relationship between or among

a)

tables

b)

rows

c)

relations

d)

attributes

82.

Table is synonymous with the term:

a)

record

b)

relation

c)

column

d)

field

83.

Which of the following is not a restriction for a table to be a relation?

a)

The cells of the table must contain a single value.

b)

All of the entries in any column must be of the same kind.

c)

The columns must be ordered.

d)

No two rows in a table may be identical.

84.

A key

a)

must always be composed of two or more columns.

b)

can only be one column.

c)

identifies a row.

d)

identifies a column.

85.

An attribute is a(n):

a)

two dimensional table.

b)

column of a table.

c)

row of a table.

d)

key of a table.

86.

A relation in this form is free of all modification anomalies

a)

First normal form

b)

Second normal form

c)

Third normal form

d)

Domain/key normal form

87.

For some relations, changing the data can have undesirable consequences called:

a)

referential integrity constraints.

b)

modification anomalies.

c)

normal forms.

d)

transitive dependencies.

88.

. If attributes A and B determine attribute C, then it is also true that:

a)

A → C

b)

B → C

c)

(A,B) is a composite determinant

d)

C is a determinant.

89.

A tuple is a(n):

a)

column of a table.

b)

two dimensional table

c)

row of a table.

d)

key of a table.

90.

If attribute A determines both attributes B and C, then it is also true that:

a)

A → B.

b)

B → A.

c)

C → A.

d)

(B,C) → A

91.

One solution to the multivalued dependency constraint problem is to:

a)

split the relation into two relations, each with a single theme.

b)

change the theme.

c)

create a new theme.

d)

add a composite key.

92.

A data warehouse uses:

a)

partial operational data.

b)

historical operational data.

c)

future operational data.

d)

health care data.

93.

Metadata enables database designers and users to do all of the following except:

a)

sample data.

b)

understand what data exist.

c)

what the fine distinctions are between similar data items.

d)

what the data mean.

94.

Duplicate data often results in loss of data integrity because:

a)

the data formats may be inconsistent.

b)

data values may not agree.

c)

Both A & B.

d)

Neither A & B.

95.

Legacy data is which of the following?

a)

Data contained in a newly-installed system

b)

Data rejected during the installation of a new system

c)

Data contained in a file system

d)

Data contained by a system used prior to the installation of a new system

96.

A database management system (DBMS) is a:

a)

hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.

b)

hardware system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.

c)

software system used to create, maintain, and provide controlled access to a database.

d)

software system used to create, maintain, and provide uncontrolled access to a database.

97.

A database application can perform which of the following activities?

a)

Add records

b)

Read records

c)

Update records

d)

All of the above

98.

An enterprise data model is:

a)

a graphical model that shows the high-level entities for an organization.

b)

a graphical model that shows all entities for an organization.

c)

a non-graphical model that shows the high-level entities for an organization.

d)

a non-graphical model that shows the all entities for an organization.

99.

A shared database should:

a)

be accurate and available.

b)

provide for backup and recovery.

c)

be secure.

d)

All of the above.

100.

Data administrators are responsible for:

a)

physical database design.

b)

managing technical issues in the database environment.

c)

overall management of data resources in an organization.

d)

writing application programs.

101.

Which of the following types of databases are the most common?

a)

Personal

b)

Workgroup

c)

Department

d)

Enterprise

102.

Which of the following is true for a relational database?

a)

Data is represented by tables.

b)

It is difficult to access data.

c)

Complex programs have to be written for simple queries

d)

All of the above.

103.

Some advantages of the database approach include all, but:

a)

minimal data redundancy.

b)

improved data consistency.

c)

improved data sharing.

d)

program-data dependency.

104.

An enterprise database is which of the following?

a)

A database designed to support only users external to an organization

b)

A database designed to support an entire organization

c)

A database designed to support a relatively small group

d)

A database designed to support a single PC

105.

Structured data may include which of the following?

a)

Photo image

b)

Video clip

c)

Dates

d)

None of the above.

106.

An application where only one user accesses the database at a given time is an example of a(n) ________ .

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

107.

An Enterprise Resource Planning application is an example of a(n) ________ .

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

108.

n on-line commercial site such as Amazon.com is an example of a(n) ________ .

a)

single-user database application

b)

multiuser database application

c)

e-commerce database application

d)

data mining database application

109.

Because it contains a description of its own structure, a database is considered to be ________ .

a)

described

b)

metadata compatible

c)

self-describing

d)

an application program

110.

Which of the following products implemented the CODASYL DBTG model?

a)

IDMS

b)

DB2

c)

dBase-II

d)

R:base