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A&P2 Midterm Review

Total questions: 61

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The percentage of red blood cells in a sample of human blood is normally about

a)

A) 45%.

b)

B) 15%.

c)

C) 30%.

d)

D) 60%.

2.

The hormone released from the kidneys that promotes the production of red blood cells is:

a)

A) Bicarbonate ions.

b)

B) Erythropoietin.

c)

C) Prothrombin.

d)

D) Fibrin.

3.

What is the correct sequence for the differentiation of a red blood cell?

a)

A) hematopoietic stem cell, hemocytoblast, erythrocyte, erythroblast

b)

B) hematopoietic stem cell, erythroblast, reticulocyte, erythrocyte

c)

C) erythroblast, hematopoietic stem cell, erythrocyte, reticulocyte

d)

D) erythrocyte, hematoblast, erythroblast

4.

Which of the following is an agranulocyte?

a)

A neutrophil

b)

A basophil

5.

Platelets are best described as:

a)

immature leukocytes.

b)

cytoplasmic fragments of cells.

6.

A person with type O blood will have ...

a)

No cell surface antigens

b)

A & B surface antigens

c)

A surface antigens

d)

B surface antigens

7.

The red blood cells of type AB blood have on their surfaces

a)

A) neither antigen A nor B.

b)

C) antigen A only.

c)

B) antigens A and B.

d)

D) antigen B only.

8.

Which of the following usually accounts for the smallest percentage of leukocytes in a blood sample?

a)

A) Neutrophils

b)

B) Eosinophils

c)

C) Basophils

d)

D) Monocytes

9.

Which of the following elements is included in hemoglobin molecules?

a)

A) Cobalt

b)

B) Iron

c)

C) Iodine

d)

D) Copper

10.

After hemoglobin is broken down into heme and globin, what ultimately happens to the heme?

a)

A) It is removed by the pancreas as bilirubin.

b)

B) It is excreted by the kidneys as heme.

c)

C) It is removed by the liver as bile pigments.

d)

D) It is converted to other types of plasma proteins.

11.

The final step in the formation of a blood clot is

a)

A) the formation of prothrombin activator.

b)

B) that thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin.

c)

C) that prothrombin activator converts prothrombin to thrombin.

d)

D) tissue damage.

12.

The pulmonary circuit.....

a)

brings oxygen-rich blood from the tissues

b)

sends oxygen-poor blood to the heart.

c)

brings oxygen-poor blood back to the heart

d)

sends oxygen-rich blood back to the heart

13.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs?

a)

A) Right ventricle, pulmonary valve, right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle

b)

B) Right atrium, pulmonary valve, right ventricle, tricuspid valve

c)

C) Right ventricle, tricuspid valve, right atrium, pulmonary valve

d)

D) Right atrium, tricuspid valve, right ventricle, pulmonary valve

14.

The inner lining of the heart is the

a)

A) myocardium.

b)

B) epicardium.

c)

C) endocardium.

d)

D) pericardium.

15.

The right atrium receives blood directly from

a)

A) the superior vena cava and inferior vena cava only.

b)

B) the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and pulmonary veins.

c)

C) the pulmonary veins.

d)

D) the superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus.

16.

In an ECG pattern, the P wave is caused by

a)

A) depolarization of atrial muscle fibers.

b)

B) repolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.

c)

C) repolarization of atrial muscle fibers.

d)

D) depolarization of ventricular muscle fibers.

17.

Because the net inward pressure at the venular ends of capillaries is less than the net outward pressure at the arteriolar ends of capillaries,

a)

A) the pressure in the venules increases.

b)

B) more fluid leaves the capillaries than returns.

c)

C) the lymphatic vessels push fluid into the capillaries.

d)

D) more fluid flows into the capillaries than moves out.

18.

The valve that prevents blood from re-entering the right ventricle is the

a)

A) aortic valve

b)

B) bicuspid valve

c)

C) tricuspid valve

d)

D) pulmonary valve

19.

When the ventricular walls contract,

a)

A) the bicuspid valve opens and the tricuspid valve closes.

b)

B) the tricuspid valve opens and the bicuspid valve closes.

c)

C) the bicuspid and tricuspid valves close.

d)

D) the bicuspid and tricuspid valves open.

20.

Which type of blood vessel contains the greatest volume of blood?

a)

A) Artery

b)

B) Vein

c)

C) Arteriole

d)

D) Capillary

21.

Blood flow into the capillaries is regulated by:

a)

A) semilunar valves

b)

B) precapillary sphincters

c)

C) mitral valves

d)

D) hepatopancreatic sphincters

22.

When venous pressure is too low,

a)

A) Sympathetic reflexes stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.

b)

B) Parasympathetic reflexes stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.

c)

C) Carbon dioxide levels stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.

d)

D) Somatic reflexes stimulate smooth muscles in the walls of veins to contract.

23.

Strong, elastic blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called:

a)

A) Capillaries

b)

B) Arteries

c)

C) Venules

d)

D) Veins

24.

Cardiac output is calculated as:

a)

A) Adding stroke volume and heart rate

b)

B) Subtracting stroke volume from heart rate

c)

C) Multiplying stroke volume by heart rate

d)

D) Dividing stroke volume from heart rate

25.

Factors that increase heart rate and blood pressure include:

a)

A) Increase in body temperature.

b)

B) Emotional responses.

c)

C) Exercise.

d)

D) All of the above.

26.

Which of the following helps return blood to the heart?

a)

Negative pressure in the thoracic cavity

b)

Valves in the veins

c)

Skeletal muscle contraction

d)

All of the above

27.

The structure of a lymphatic vessel is most similar to that of a(n)

a)

capillary.

b)

vein.

c)

artery.

d)

aorta.

28.

The functions of the lymphatic system do not include:

a)

A) transporting hormones to intestinal smooth muscle

b)

B) returning interstitial fluid to the bloodstream

c)

C) protecting the body against infection

d)

D) transporting the products of lipid digestion from the intestine to the liver

29.

Which of the following is NOT associated with the lymphatic system?

a)

tonsils

b)

pancreas

c)

spleen

d)

lymph nodes

30.

The spleen...

a)

A) contains nodules similar to lymphatic nodules.

b)

B) contains many phagocytes.

c)

C) is the largest lymphatic organ.

d)

D) all of the above.

31.

T lymphocytes are responsible for:

a)

programming macrophages

b)

cell-mediated immunity

c)

antibody production

d)

histamine release

32.

Disease-causing agents are called...

a)

germs

b)

pathogens

c)

antibodies

d)

infectious

33.

Innate defenses are...

a)

slow and specific.

b)

fast and nonspecific.

c)

slow and nonspecific.

d)

fast and specific.

34.

Newborns can acquire

a)

innate immunity through breast milk.

b)

active immunity through breast milk.

c)

passive immunity through breast milk.

d)

full immunity.

35.

A primary immune response is...

a)

responsible for producing antibodies within a day or two of a subsequent exposure to the same antigen.

b)

responsible for producing antibodies within five to ten days after exposure to antigens.

c)

very rapid production of antibodies after first exposure to antigens.

36.

Exocrine glands differ from endocrine glands in that exocrine glands:

a)

A) secrete only local hormones.

b)

B) secrete through ducts to the exterior of the body.

c)

C) secrete only into the bloodstream.

37.

The specificity of hormone action derives from

a)

A) target cell receptors that are unique to all nonsteroid hormones.

b)

B) target cell receptors that bind only certain neurotransmitters.

c)

C) target cell receptors that are unique to all steroid hormones.

d)

D) target cell receptors that are unique to each hormone.

38.

Hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary are synthesized in the...

a)

Anterior pituitary.

b)

Posterior pituitary.

c)

Thalamus.

d)

Hypothalamus

39.

Tropic hormones

a)

A) Stimulate certain endocrine glands to secrete hormones.

b)

B) Block the actions of hormones that endocrine glands secrete.

c)

C) Function in only one sex.

d)

D) Are released from the thyroid gland.

40.

Insulin causes:

a)

A) a decrease in the concentration of blood glucose.

b)

B) a decrease in the permeability of cell membranes to glucose.

c)

C) an increase in the production of glucose from glycogen.

d)

D) an increase in blood glucose concentration.

41.

Which of the following hormones primarily affects the reproductive organs?

a)

A) Follicle-stimulating hormone

b)

B) Growth hormone

c)

C) Prolactin-releasing factor

d)

D) Adrenocorticotropic hormone

42.

The secretion of parathyroid hormone is controlled primarily by the

a)

A) hypothalamus.

b)

B) concentration of blood calcium.

c)

C) pituitary gland.

d)

D) thyroid gland.

43.

Aldosterone promotes ion homeostasis by causing the kidneys to...

a)

conserve sodium and excrete potassium

b)

excrete sodium and conserve potassium

44.

Which of the following has both endocrine and exocrine functions?

a)

A) Thyroid gland

b)

B) Liver

c)

C) Pancreas

d)

D) Thyroid gland

45.

Which of these hormones is secreted by the adrenal cortex?

a)

A) cortisol

b)

B) epinephrine

c)

C) glucagon

d)

D) estrogen

46.

The hormone that the pineal gland secretes is

a)

A) myostatin.

b)

B) melanoma.

c)

C) myoglobin

d)

D) melatonin

47.

The alimentary canal extends, in its entirety, from

a)

A) the stomach to the small intestine.

b)

C) the mouth to the large intestine.

c)

B) the mouth to the anus.

d)

D) the mouth to the sigmoid colon.

48.

The digestive system...

a)

A) Ingests food, propels food, mechanically and chemically breaks down food, absorbs nutrients, and defecates the remainder.

b)

C) Mechanically and chemically assembles food from absorbed nutrients.

c)

B) Controls the hormonal response of the endocrine system.

d)

D) Allows the body to reproduce.

49.

The mucosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal that absorbs nutrients.

a)

A) mucosa

b)

C) serosa

c)

B) smooth muscle

d)

D) greater omentum

50.

Salivary amylase digests:

a)

A) carbohydrates.

b)

B) proteins.

c)

C) fats.

d)

D) nucleic acids.

51.

The epiglottis is attached to which structure?

a)

A) trachea

b)

B) larynx

c)

C) back of tongue

d)

D) uvula

52.

The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete

a)

A) hydrochloric acid.

b)

B) bicarbonate.

c)

C) pepsinogen.

d)

D) mucus

53.

Bile is produced by which organ?

a)

A) Liver

b)

C) Gallbladder

c)

B) Pancreas

d)

D) Thymus

54.

What is the tube that connects the pharynx to the stomach?

a)

A) trachea

b)

B) fundus

c)

C) esophagus

d)

D) duodenum

55.

One of the major functions of the large intestine is to.......

a)

A) reabsorb water from chyme.

b)

C) regulate the release of bile.

c)

B) absorb nutrients

d)

D) release hormones

56.

The first portion of the large intestine is the .......

a)

A) sigmoid colon

b)

B) cecum

c)

C) rectum

d)

D) duodenum

57.

Gastrin, which is secreted by stomach cells, functions to:

a)

A) inhibit the production of hydrochloric acid.

b)

B) increase the secretions of the gastric glands.

c)

C) change pepsin into pepsinogen.

d)

D) decrease hormone response.

58.

Proteins begin to be broken down in the

a)

A) mouth

b)

B) esophagus

c)

C) small intestine

59.

Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

a)

Aorta

b)

Superior vena cava

c)

Pulmonary artery

d)

Pulmonary vein

60.

Which of the following is a function of the spleen?

a)

Absorption of nutrients

b)

Secretion of bile

c)

Filtration of blood

d)

Production of insulin

61.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for lowering blood glucose levels?

a)

Glucagon

b)

Insulin

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Cortisol