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MET1352

Total questions: 97

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How is advection fog formed?​​​


a)

Warm and moist air moves over cooler surfaces and is cooled below saturation temperature​


b)

By the cooling of land after sunset by thermal radiation in calm conditions with clear sky​


c)

​When winds blow air up a slope and adiabatically cooling it as it rises, and causing the moisture in it to condense​


d)

When cold air is warmed from below, and it condensate as it rises​​


2.

Where does meteorological information come from?


a)

Passenger reports


b)

Aircraft reports


c)

Weather radar


d)

Airport equipment


3.

Which unit of measurement is used to indicate air pressure for international meteorological purposes?


a)

hPa

b)

Kg/m3


c)

psi


d)

KPa


4.

VAAC (Volcanic Ash Advisory Centre) issues warnings in the form of NOTAM and SIGMET messages.


a)

True

b)

False

5.

​Which of the following weather phenomena could most likely be the reason for aircraft accidents?

a)

Reduced visibility


b)

Thunderstorm


c)

Earthquake

d)

Turbulence


6.

What temperature scale is used for international meteorological purposes?​


a)

Celsius


b)

Kelvin


c)

Réaumur​


d)

Fahrenheit

7.

What instrument is used to measure wind?​​​


a)

Anemometer


b)

Barometer


c)

Transmissometer


d)

Ceilometer

8.

Which instrument is used to measure visibility and RVR?​


a)

Anemometer

b)

Forward Scatter meter


c)

Barometer


d)

Ceilometer

9.

What is measured by the ceilometer?


a)

Visibility and RVR


b)

Cloud height


c)

Temperature


d)

Wind Speed


10.

Cloud coverage is reported in hectas.​


a)

True

b)

False

11.

What is the relationship between temperature and density?​


a)

As temperature increases, density decreases


b)

As temperature decreases, density decreases


c)

There is no relationship between density and temperature


d)

As temperature increases, density increases


12.

​What is the main objective of Meteorological service?


a)

Create forecasts


b)

Environment protection


c)

Economy


d)

Safety


13.

(a)  

is the airspace between the transition altitude and the transition level.

14.

The tropopause is the layer between Exosphere and Thermosphere.​


a)

True


b)

False

15.

​What is the correct meaning of the term hypoxia?


a)

Hypoxia is a state of disorientation in space and may result in unintended flying manoeuvres


b)

Hypoxia is a state of oxygen deficiency in blood and cells sufficient to cause impairment​


c)

Hypoxia is what happens when oxygen exceeds hydrogen in the aeroplane


d)

Hypoxia is a state of unconsciousness


16.

What is the definition of QNH​?


a)

The indicated altitude when 1013.25 hPa is set in the altimeter


b)

Local pressure reduced to MSL according to ISA atmosphere


c)

Actual altitude divided by 100


d)

The barometric pressure at the level of an aerodrome


17.

Which statement is correct regarding the International Standard Atmosphere?​


a)

MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and base temperature is -56,5°C


b)

MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and base temperature is 13°C


c)

​MSL pressure is 1,225 hPa and base temperature is 15°C


d)

MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and base temperature is 15°C


18.

How does temperature vary in the troposphere?​


a)

​Temperature first decreases and then increases with altitude


b)

Temperature increases with altitude


c)

Temperature decreases with altitude


d)

Temperature is almost constant


19.

​What is a line on a weather chart connecting points of equal pressure called?


a)

Isobars


b)

Isogons

c)

Isotasks


d)

Isotherms

20.

What is the relationship between pressure and height?​


a)

Pressure is constant regardless of height​


b)

The higher the height, the lower the pressure​


c)

There is no relationship between pressure and height​


d)

The higher the height, the higher the pressure​


21.

(a)  

means the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude.


22.

(a)   means the altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is controlled by reference to altitudes.

23.

What is ISA ​an abbreviation for?


a)

Internal Standard Abbreviation


b)

​International Standard Atmosphere


c)

Internal Standard Atmosphere


d)

​International Space Agency


24.

What is the composition of the lower atmosphere?​


a)

78% hydrogen, 21% oxygen, 1 % other gases


b)

78% oxygen, 21% Hydrogen, 1% other gases


c)

​78% Nitrogen, 21% oxygen and 1% other gases


d)

 ​78% oxygen, 21 Nitrogen, 1% other gases


25.

What is the standard pressure setting​?


a)

1010 hPa


b)

1013 hPa


c)

Local QNH


d)

1000 hPa


26.

The barometric pressure which indicates height above an aerodrome is called what? 


a)

QNS

b)

QNH

c)

QFH

d)

QFE

27.

The beautiful light called Aurora borealis is seen from earth but created where?


a)

Stratosphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Tropopause

d)

Troposphere

28.

When isobars are close together on a pressure gradient map, what does this tell us?​


a)

The pressure gradient is high


b)

The pressure gradient is low


c)

A col is forming


d)

​The low pressure system in on the left


29.

When QFE is selected, what is the level indicated on the altimeter called?


a)

Height

b)

Altitude

c)

Pressure altitude


d)

​Flight Level


30.

Which of the following are atmospheric layers?


a)

Exosphere

b)

Thermosphere

c)

Troposphere

d)

Mesosphere

e)

Stratosphere

31.

How does the height of the tropopause vary with latitude (in the northern hemisphere)?​


a)

The height normally increases from south to north


b)

The height increases with higher longitude


c)

It remains more or less constant with latitude


d)

The height normally decreases from south to north


32.

​The higher you fly in the atmosphere, the lower the pressure gets.


a)

True


b)

False


33.

Which atmospheric layer contains the most water vapour and weather?​


a)

Ionosphere


b)

Thermosphere


c)

Troposphere

d)

Stratosphere

34.

In the Stratosphere the temperature is stable​ ​up to

(a)   kilometers then it increases.

35.

Pressure in the atmosphere changes by a Rule of thumb stating 1 hPa is equal to?


a)

45 feet


b)

30 feet


c)

25 feet


d)

33 feet


36.

In general air pressure​ and density decreases as altitude increases.​


a)

True

b)

False

37.

Density has an impact on aircraft performance​.


a)

False


b)

True

38.

Why is air pressure important to aviation?​


a)

If wrong setting - incorrect speed


b)

If wrong setting - higher speed


c)

If wrong setting - possibility to stall


d)

If wrong setting - incorrect altitude


39.

​What is meant by the term latent heat?


a)

Heat released or absorbed during conduction


b)

Heat released or absorbed during radition


c)

Heat released or absorbed during supercooling


d)

Heat released or absorbed during the change of state of e.g. water


40.

What is the relationship between density and temperature?​​


a)

The higher the temperature, the higher the density​


b)

The lower the temperature the higher the density​


c)

There is no direct relationship between density and temperature​


d)

The lower the temperature, the lower the pressure​


41.

What is meant by supercooling?​


a)

​When a water droplet remains liquid at below freezing temperatures


b)

When water is cooled very quickly


c)

When water freezes very quickly


d)

 ​When the water droplet is above freezing temperature, but the air is freezing


42.

​What is meant by conduction?


a)

Heat transfer due to horizontal movement of air


b)

Heat transfer between 2 objects that are in direct contact with each other


c)

Heat transfer due to emission of electromagnetic waves


d)

Heat transfer due to upwards currents of air


43.

What is the transition from water vapour to liquid​ water called?​​


a)

Condensation


b)

Sublimation

c)

Evaporation

d)

Melting

44.

​What is meant by dew point temperature?


a)

The temperature supercooling occur


b)

The temperature at which air will be saturated


c)

The temperature where relative humidity is 0%


d)

The temperature where sublimation occur


45.

What is meant by sublimation?​


a)

When vater vapour changes to liquid water


b)

When ice changes to liquid water


c)

When liquid water changes to water vapour


d)

When ice changes directly to water vapour


46.

What is a temperature inversion?​


a)

Temperature sinks according to the dry adiabatic lapse rate


b)

​Temperature rises with altitude


c)

Temperature sinks by 3°C per 1000 FT


d)

Temperature sinks with 1,98°C per 1000 FT


47.

How is relative humidity affected by air temperature?​


a)

Cold air can hold more water vapour than warm air


b)

Warm air can hold more water vapour than cold air


c)

Cold air is more humid than warm air


d)

Air can hold 1,225 g/m3 water regardless of temperature


48.

What is the definition of adiabatic cooling or heating?​​


a)

A temperature change of air due to convection and advection​​


b)

A temperature change of air due to radiation​


c)

​A temperature change of air due to the release of latent heat​


d)

​A temperature change of air due to compression or expansion, and with no external heat transfer​


49.

What is the principle of adiabatic cooling?


a)

​Rising air cools because it becomes more moist


b)

Rising air cools because it is cooled by the surrounding air


c)

​Rising air cools because it contracts


d)

Rising air cools because it expands


50.

What is the principle of convection?​


a)

Warm air is denser than cold air, and sinks down


b)

Warm air is denser than cold air, and rises up


c)

Warm air is moving horizontally and replaces cold air


d)

Warm air is lighter than cold air, and rises up


51.

When warm air rises and expands, the density of a given mass of air will be ​what?


a)

​Lower, because the gas contracts and decreases in volume


b)

Higher, because the gas expands and increases in volume


c)

Lower, because the gas expands and increases in volume


d)

Higher, because the gas contracts and decreases in volume


52.

Which of the following clouds are categorised as low clouds?​


a)

Stratus

b)

Altostratus


c)

Cirrocumulus

d)

Cirrus


53.

Which of these clouds are regarded as middle clouds?​


a)

Altocumulus

b)

Cirrus

c)

Cirrustratus

d)

Cumulonimbus

54.

Which of the following is categorised as Middle Clouds?​


a)

Cumulus


b)

Nimbostratus

c)

Altostratus


d)

Cirrocumulus


55.

What can lenticular clouds be an indication of?​


a)

Thunderstorms

b)

Mountain waves


c)

Jetstreams


d)

​Inversion layers


56.

What is a layer of stratus clouds an indication of?​


a)

Stable air


b)

Supercooled water droplets


c)

Unstable air


d)

A Jetstream


57.

What is a towering cumulus cloud indicating?​


a)

Stable air


b)

An approaching warm front


c)

Unstable air


d)

A Jetstream


58.

How is a 2/8 (2 octas) cloud cover reported?


a)

Scattered

b)

Broken

c)

Few

d)

Overcast

59.

How is a 4/8 (4 octas) cloud cover reported​?


a)

Overcast

b)

Few


c)

Broken

d)

Scattered

60.

​What is the normal composition of high clouds?


a)

Liquid water


b)

​Ice crystals


c)

Supercooled water


d)

​Water vapour


61.

What cloud type is most likely to produce freezing rain?​​


a)

Cirrustratus

b)

Cumulus


c)

Lenticularis

d)

Nimbostratus

62.

Which clouds groups are normally regarded as high level clouds?​


a)

Nimbostratus


b)

Altocumulus

c)

Cirrus

d)

Stratocumulus

63.

Cloud ceiling​ ​means that (a)  

or more of the sky is covered in clouds.

64.

How are wind patterns in the northern hemisphere around a low pressure?


a)

​Directly from the high pressure

b)

Clockwise

c)

Counter-clockwise along the isobars

d)

​Direct from the north

65.

How does the pressure gradient force in a pressure system affect wind speed?


a)

​The stronger the pressure gradient, the weaker the wind


b)

​It has no connection to windspeed, but direction will be altered clockwise


c)

The stronger the pressure gradient, the stronger the wind


d)

The stronger the pressure gradient, the wind speed is not changed due to friction


66.

What is an occluded front?​


a)

 ​When 2 warm fronts meet


b)

When a cold front catches up to a warm front


c)

When 2 cold fronts meet


d)

When a warm front overtakes a cold front


67.

What is a Föhn wind?​


a)

A dry, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the downwind side of a mountain range


b)

A dry wind flowing down a valley


c)

​A moist, warm, down-slope wind that occurs in the upwind side of a mountain range


d)

A dry, cold, down-slope wind that occurs in the downwind side of a mountain range


68.

What is a Jetstream?​


a)

Currents of air flowing out of a cumulonimbus cloud


b)

Currents of fast flowing air close to the surface


c)

Descending or ascending air in relation to a squall line


d)

Currents of fast flowing air in the upper portions of the troposphere


69.

In exactly what format is wind reported by ATC in a METAR?​​​


a)

​The direction it is blowing towards and the wind speed.


b)

The direction it is blowing from followed by the wind speed​.


c)

The direction it is blowing from followed by the wind speed​ if more than 5 knots.


d)

The wind speed followed by the direction it is blowing from.


70.

​What are some characteristics of a maritime Polar air mass?


a)

Warm and humid



b)

​Cold and humid


c)

Warm and dry


d)

Cold and dry


71.

What is a sea breeze?​


a)

A wind during the night


b)

A wind forming when 2 airmasses meet


c)

A wind from the land to sea


d)

​A wind from the sea to land


72.

What type of weather phenomena can be expected when a warm air mass is moving over a colder area?


a)

​Convective clouds


b)

Showers and thunderstorms


c)

Continuous precipitation and low cloud base


d)

​Showers and high cloud base


73.

What is a sign of an approaching warm front?​


a)

A line of Cumulonimbus clouds


b)

Steep frontal surface


c)

Intense thunderstorms and squall lines


d)

​Gradually lowering cloud base


74.

Where is the Jetstream core commonly formed?​


a)

In the warm air mass of a frontal system


b)

In a thunderstorm


c)

In arctic air


d)

​In the intertropical convergence zone


75.

What is a sign of an approaching cold front?​


a)

Stratus clouds


b)

​Forced convection and showers


c)

​Fog and mist


d)

​Gradually lowering cloudbase


76.

How does the friction layer close to the surface of the earth influence the wind?


a)

​It reduces pressure gradient force


b)

It has no effect on the wind


c)

​It increases the wind speed


d)

It changes direction and reduces speed


77.

​What are the typical characteristics of a continental tropical air mass?


a)

Warm and humid


b)

Cold and dry


c)

Warm and dry


d)

Cold and humid


78.

​What can be a hazard associated with a Jetstream?


a)

Clear air turbulence


b)

Supercooling


c)

Icing


d)

Electrical disturbances


79.

What is a squall line?​


a)

A line of severe thunderstorms that can form along and/or ahead of a warm front


b)

An occluded front


c)

When an advancing cold air mass slides on top of a warmer, denser air mass


d)

A line of thunderstorms that can form along and/or ahead of a cold front


80.

A movement of cool, moist air over a warm surface is likely to cause? ​​

a)

Layered clouds​


b)

Fog and drizzle​


c)

Freezing rain​


d)

Convective clouds


81.

A movement of warm, moist air over a cold surface is likely to cause? ​​​


a)

Convective clouds​


b)

Unstable air with convection​


c)

Radiation fog​


d)

Layered clouds​


82.

What is the boundary between two air masses with different characteristics called?​


a)

an Inversion


b)

a Convergence zone


c)

a Cyclone


d)

a Front


83.

How does the Coriolis effect influence the wind?


a)

It forces 2 opposing windpatterns to be pushed upwards


b)

Wind direction will be deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere


c)

It forces wind to travel directly from a high to a low pressure


d)

​It causes a frictional force and decreases the wind speed 


84.

With what type of cloud is DZ precipitation associated with?​​


a)

CB

b)

CU

c)

ST

d)

CC


85.

In which situation is freezing rain most likely to occur?


a)

Warm air over cold air, where the cold air is below freezing and the warmer is above freezing


b)

A cold front with convective lifting


c)

Cold air over warm air, where the cold air is below freezing and the warmer is above freezing


d)

A shallow layer of air above freezing close to the ground while the air above is extremly cold


86.

Precipitation in the form of showers occurs from ​​what?


a)

​cirro-type clouds​


b)

 ​clouds containing only ice crystals​


c)

stratified clouds​


d)

convective clouds​


87.

​Which other weather phenomena can be associated with drizzle?


a)

FG


b)

VA

c)

SH


d)

TS

88.

Under which conditions is radiation fog most likely to form?​


a)

At daytime, with no clouds and little wind


b)

At night, with no clouds and strong winds


c)

​At night, with no clouds and little winds


d)

At daytime, with no clouds and strong winds


89.

What unit of measurement do we use in Meteorology for horizontal visibility?​​


a)

NM

b)

Km and meters


c)

Km


d)

Miles

90.

When shall vertical visibility be reported?​


a)

​If the cloud ceiling is below 1000 FT


b)

Always

c)

When the cloud height cannot be determined due to fog or precipitation


d)

If visibility is below 1500m


91.

What is haze?​


a)

Water vapour


b)

​Small ice crystals


c)

Small dust particles


d)

Small water droplets


92.

What is true regarding advection fog?


a)

Only occurs at night and early morning


b)

May last for long periods


c)

Is most likely with polar maritime air​


d)

Only occurs at night​


93.

What is the principle of advection fog?​


a)

Cold, moist air is moved over a warmer surface


b)

The air is cooled by the ground that looses heat due to radiation


c)

Moist air is forced upward by rising ground


d)

Warm, moist air moved over a colder surface


94.

When shall RVR be reported?​


a)

When there is more than 1500 m difference between visibility and RVR


b)

When visibility or RVR is below 5000 m


c)

When visibility or RVR is below 1500 m


d)

When vertical visibility is reported


95.

What does freezing fog consist of?​

a)

Snow flakes


b)

Super cooled water droplets


c)

Frozen water droplets


d)

Ice pellets


96.

What is the pri​nciple behind radiation fog?

a)

Warm, moist air is moved over a cold surface


b)

Moist air is forced upward by rising ground


c)

​Cold, moist air is moved over a warm surface


d)

​Fog caused by cooling of the earth's surface after sunset


97.

Which of the following statements describe fog?​


a)

Solid particles reducing the visibility to between 1000 and 5000 meters


b)

Solid particles reducing the visibility to below 1000 meters


c)

Visible water droplets reducing the visibility to below 1000 meters


d)

​Visible water droplets reducing the visibility to between 1000 and 5000 meters