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Science 7 SE1 Revision 2

Total questions: 230

Worksheet time: 4hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Binomial means ...
a)
very small
b)
multiple
c)
two names
d)
organized
2.
This man devised a system to name organisms in the 1700s.
a)
Thomas Edison
b)
Copernicus
c)
Carolus Linnaeus
d)
Fransico Redi
3.
Grouping things based on similarities is called...
a)
organization
b)
taxonomy
c)
classification
d)
genus
4.
A dichotomous key for trees is provided. Hikers found a tree that has large brown cones and single sharp needles. What species of tree have the hikers found?
a)
Juniper
b)
Pine
c)
Spruce
d)
Fir
5.
When using a dichotomous key to identify organisms, what do we look at?
a)
physical features
b)
weather patterns
c)
environment
d)
diet
6.
The classification system in which each organism is given a unique, two-part scientific name indicating its genus and species.
a)
species 
b)
genus  
c)
binominal nomenclature
d)
classification 
7.

One of the characteristics of ALL living things is

a)

needs air

b)

need shelter

c)

have eyes

d)

Responds to surroundings

8.

An organism's scientific name is made of it's

a)

species + genus

b)

genus + family

c)

genus + species

d)

genus + genus

9.

Choose the correct order of cellular hierarchy from simplest to most complex.

a)

Cell ⋙ Organ ⋙ Organism ⋙ Tissue ⋙ Organ System

b)

Tissue ≫ Cell ≫ Organ System ≫ Organ ≫ Organism

c)

Organism ⋙ Organ System ⋙ Organ ⋙ Tissue Cell

d)

Cell ⋙ Tissue ⋙ Organ ⋙ Organ System ⋙ Organism

10.
Pick the true statement about cellular organization:
a)
cells working together make tissues
b)
cells working together make organs
c)
tissues working together make organ systems
d)
organs working together make cells
11.
Which is the most complex of the choices below?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
12.
What is the most basic unit of life?
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
organ
d)
organ system
13.
How do consumers get the energy they need to survive?
a)
photosynthesis
b)
eating other organisms
c)
decomposing dead materials
d)
chemosynthesis
14.
In order to perform photosynthesis, producers need...
a)
WiFi
b)
oxygen
c)
sunlight
d)
to eat other organisms
15.

If an organism is made entirely of one cell it is called...

a)

Multicellular

b)

Prokaryotic

c)

Unicellular

d)

Eukaryotic

16.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things have cells
d)
All living things use energy
17.
What is the purpose of a dichotomous key?
a)
to find a common ancestor
b)
to show the evolution of organisms
c)
to show relationships between organisms
d)
to identify organisms
18.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)

All living things are made of cells

b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)

All living things acquire and use energy

d)

All living things grow and develop

19.
A camel has eyelashes that work to keep the dust and sand out of its eyes.
a)
All living things adapt to their environment
b)

All living things are based on a universal genetic code

c)

All living things are made of cells

d)

All living things acquire and use energy

20.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)

All living things acquire and use energy

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)

All living things grow and develop

21.

A turtle lays a hundred of eggs.

a)

All living things acquire energy

b)

All living things grow and develop

c)

All living things reproduce

d)

Populations adapt over time

22.

A deer runs from a dog after hearing barking.

a)

All living things are made of cells

b)

All living things respond to environmental stimuli

c)

All living things acquire and use energy

d)

All living things maintain homeostasis

23.

Many bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics we use.

a)

All living things respond to environmental stimuli

b)

All living things are made of cells

c)

Populations adapt over time

d)

All living things maintain homeostasis

24.

A bacteria cell divides itself in two.

a)

All living things reproduce

b)

All living things respond to environmental stimuli

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow and develop

25.

An American alligator kills and eats a fish.

a)

Populations adapt over time

b)

All living things acquire and use energy

c)

All living things grow and develop

d)

All living things are made of cells

26.

2 organelles that animal cells don't have.

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Centriole

d)

Cell wall

27.

This organelle is used for photosynthesis

a)

Mitochondrion

b)

Cell wall

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Golgi

28.

What is C pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

29.

What is G pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

30.

What is E pointing to?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Vacuole

c)

Nucleus

d)

Mitochondria

31.

Which type of cell contains a cell wall, chloroplasts, and has a rectangular shape?

a)

Viral cell

b)

Plant cell

c)

Animal cell

d)

Bacteria cell

32.

Many plant cells have a large ________________ that is filled with fluid.

a)

Vacuole

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplasts

33.

The site of photosynthesis in a plant cell is the...

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Cell wall

34.

Rob’s cells can’t convert food effectively into energy that they can use. As a result, he gets extremely tired and has weak legs. Which organelle is affected by Rob’s disease?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cell wall

d)

Chloroplast

35.

Sandra has a disease. Her body is unable to control the flow of substances into and out of her cells. Which organelle is affected by Sandra’s disease?

a)

Chloroplasts

b)

Cell wall

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cell membrane

36.

 Which BEST describes the function of the nucleus of a cell?

a)

The “powerhouse”; produces energy

b)

The “gatekeeper” ; lets materials in and out

c)

The “control center”; controls activities and stores genetic material

d)

The “support structure” ; rigid, strong, stiff outer layer

37.
Which of the following, found ONLY in plant cells, provides structure?
a)
cell wall
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuole
38.

Match the following

a)

Offers Support and structure to the cell

1.

Cell Wall

b)

Controls what may enter or leave the cell

2.

Cell Membrane

c)

Storage site of water and nutrients

3.

Vacuole

d)

A gel-like fluid that fills empty space in the cell

4.

Cytoplasm

39.
Robert Hooke, Anton van Leeuwenhoek, Theodor Schwann, Rudolf Virchow, and Matthias Schliden were all responsible for what theory?
a)
The Theory of Gravity
b)
The Theory of Relativity
c)
The Cell Theory
d)
The Theory of Continental Drift
40.
What tool do you use to view the cells?
a)
metric ruler
b)
centrifuge
c)
microscope
d)
telescope
41.
All living things are made up of...
a)
cells
b)
cell tissues
c)
organ
d)
organ systems
42.

What are organelles?

a)

Parts that come together to make an organ system.

b)

A group of similar cells that perform similar functions.

c)

A group of organs that perform similar functions

d)

Tiny structures within a cell that allow the cell to live, grow, and reproduce.

43.

The hereditary material in a cells is...

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

ATP

c)

DNA

d)

ER

44.
A microscope is an instrument that.
a)
makes faraway objects look closer.
b)
makes small objects appear larger.
c)
decreases the size of small objects.
d)
increases the size of small objects.
45.

Match the following

a)

Single-celled organism. Is both helpful and harmful

1.

Bacteria

b)

Decomposer. Is both helpful and harmful

2.

Fungi

c)

Single-celled organism. Harmful

3.

Parasite

d)

Not truly a microorganism, need a living cell to reproduce.

4.

Virus

46.

Micro means....

a)

tiny

b)

large

c)

science

d)

living

47.

Influenza is a disease caused due to

a)

Bacteria

b)

virus

c)

Protozoa

d)

None of the above

48.
Which is not an example of a harmful microorganism?
a)
Mold growing on a kitchen sponge
b)
Bacteria found in yogurt
c)
Bacteria that causes turberculosis
d)
Salmonella on uncooked chicken
49.
Which of the following statements are true?
a)
All microorganisms are bad
b)
All microorganisms are good
c)
Some microorganisms are harmful, while some can be helpful
d)
Microorganisms are too small to do anything to anyone
50.

Yeast is used for making bread. Yeast is a

a)

plant.

b)

spice.

c)

fungi.

d)

bacteria.

51.
Yeast makes bread, rolls and cakes rise.
a)
True
b)
False
52.

What is the other word for a harmful microorganisms ?

a)

infectious

b)

antibiotic

c)

pathogen

d)

flora

53.

What provides an organism with the specific things it needs?

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

54.

What is a group of organisms of the same species living together in the same environment called?

a)

Habitat

b)

Population

c)

Community

d)

Ecosystem

55.

What is the movement of water through Earth's ecosystems called?

a)

Water Cycle

b)

Carbon Cycle

c)

Nitrogen Cycle

d)

Energy Cycle

56.

What are resources that can be used over and over again called?

a)

Renewable Resources

b)

Nonrenewable Resources

c)

Limited Resources

d)

Inexhaustible Resources

57.

What is the process of saving resources to prevent damage to the environment called?

a)

Conservation

b)

Renewable

c)

Sustainability

d)

Preservation

58.

What are resources that cannot be replaced within a human lifespan called?

a)

Renewable Resources

b)

Nonrenewable Resources

c)

Limited Resources

d)

Inexhaustible Resources

59.
Consumers that eat other animals are called _____________.
a)
Herbivores
b)
Producers
c)
Carnivores
d)
Scavengers
60.
______________ show(s) how energy and nutrients are transferred from one organism to another in an ecosystem.
a)
Food Webs
b)
Food Chains
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Cycles
61.
If a producer is removed from a food chain, then the populations of other organisms will ______________ . 
a)
Stay the same
b)
Increase
c)
Decrease
62.
Most living things are made largely of  ___________ .
a)
Bones
b)
Water
c)
Air
d)
Hair
63.
____________ feed on decayed matter left behind by consumers and detrivores.
a)
Carnivores
b)
Detrivores
c)
Omnivores
d)
Scavengers
64.

Which sphere is the "air" part in which all life lives in?

a)

lithosphere

b)

hydrosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

biosphere

65.

Which sphere is the water part in which all life lives in?

a)

lithosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

biosphere

66.

Which sphere is the "land" part in which all life lives in?

a)

lithosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

biosphere

67.

The sphere in which all life forms live in is the......

a)

lithosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

biosphere

68.

The sphere in which all life forms live in is the......

a)

lithosphere

b)

atmosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

biosphere

69.

97% of the total water on Earth is in....

a)

Lakes and Rivers

b)

Ground water

c)

Oceans

d)

glaciers

70.

Most of the freshwater on Earth is trapped .....

a)

Oceans

b)

Lakes and Rivers

c)

Groundwater

d)

Glaciers

71.

What % of freshwater on Earth is drinkable and easy to get?

a)

97%

b)

1%

c)

20%

d)

5%

72.

Choose all the PROCESSES (3) that MOVE water through the environment

a)

Lakes

b)

Precipitation

c)

Rivers

d)

Condensation

e)

Evaporation

73.

What is the source of energy that moves water through the water cycle?

a)

Rain

b)

the Sun

c)

Runoff

d)

Radiation

e)

Kinetics

74.

The change of state from water to steam is called...

a)

evaporate

b)

melt

c)

freeze

d)

condense

75.

The recommendation for humans to consume drinking water is.... liters

a)

8

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

76.

The one shown in number 2 is called the process ....

a)

transpiration

b)

percolation

c)

evaporation

d)

surface water

77.

The sun's role in the hydrologic cycle is ....

a)

helps the evaporation process

b)

helps the precipitation process

c)

helps water flow

d)

helps the process of absorption of groundwater

78.

What is a vertebrate?

a)

an animals that lays hard shelled eggs

b)

animals with a backbone

c)

an animal that breathes through its gills

d)

an animal without a backbone

79.

which group do I belong to?

a)

aves

b)

reptile

c)

amphibian

d)

mammals

80.

my body covered by feathers, breathing with lungs and oviparous.

a)
b)
c)
d)
81.

the characteristic are : warm blooded, oviparous, breathing by lungs, covered by fur

a)
b)
c)
d)
82.

My body is warm, I have fur, feed my young on milk, and have live births.  What am I?

a)

Reptile

b)

mammals

c)

aves

d)

amphibian

83.
When a gas forms directly from a solid, skipping the liquid phase. it is called
a)
deposition
b)
sublimation
c)
evaporation
d)
condensation
84.
The change from a gas to a liquid is called 
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
sublimation
d)
deposition
85.
The state that matter exists in depends on its 
a)
volume 
b)
weight
c)
temperature 
d)
mass
86.
Adding more heat energy to particles of matter will
a)
make them move slower
b)
make them move faster
c)
make them stop moving
d)
destroy them
87.
What is it called when the state of matter changes from a liquid to a solid?
a)
Vaporization
b)
Freezing
c)
Condensation
d)
Melting
88.

A substance's melting point is the same as its

a)

freezing point.

b)

condensation point.

c)

boiling point.

89.

If you have a sample of water that is 144 °C, what state is it in?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

90.

If you have a sample of water that is 44 °C, what state is it in?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

91.

On a hot, humid summer day drops of water form on a can of cold soda. What process caused this to happen?

a)

condensation

b)

freezing

c)

vaporization

d)

deposition

92.

What happens to particles during changes of state between solid and liquid.

a)

Particles move so fast they break from their fixed position.

b)

Particles melt and become a liquid.

c)

Particles find a circular orbit around an atom's nucleus.

d)

Particles stop vibrating and change into their liquid form.

93.

Which properties do solids have?

a)

definite shape and volume

b)

no definite shape and a definite volume

c)

no definite shape and no definite volume

94.

What properties do liquids have?

a)

definite shape and volume

b)

no definite shape and a definite volume

c)

no definite shape and no definite volume

95.

What properties do gases have?

a)

definite shape and volume

b)

no definite shape and a definite volume

c)

no definite shape and no definite volume

96.

When thermal energy is increased in a liquid, what change in state is happening?

a)

Melting

b)

Evaporation

c)

Condensation

d)

Freezing

97.
Which description best matches this particle model?
a)
Closely packed and can't move a lot. 
b)
Particles are close together but can move a little. 
c)
Particles have lots of energy and can move around. 
98.

Which of these materials will have the most

similar properties?

a)

air, oxygen, ice

b)

water, iron, air

c)

iron, stone, wood

d)

oil, water, wood

99.

What determines the order of elements on today's periodic table?

(a)  
Choose from the below words
increasing atomic mass
decreasing atomic mass
increasing atomic number
decreasing atomic number
100.

From this element key of Nitrogen, determine the atomic mass of nitrogen

(a)  
Choose from the below words
7
7.01
14.01
21.01
101.

What is the chemical symbol for Sodium?

(a)  
Choose from the below words
S
So
Na
Ca
102.

Which model represents a compound?

a)

Model 1

b)

Model 2

c)

Model 3

d)

Model 4

103.

Which model represents an element?

a)

Model 1

b)

Model 2

c)

Model 3

d)

Model 4

104.

Which diagram(s) are modeling pure substances?

a)

1 only

b)

1, 3, and 4

c)

2 only

d)

1 and 4

105.

What type of substance is being modeled here?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

106.

What is a mixture?

a)

elements chemically combined

b)

a combination of different things

c)

A substance found on the Periodic Table

d)

A chemical substance

107.

When electricity passes through water, hydrogen and oxygen are produced. Which table correctly labels the compounds and elements involved in the process?

a)

Water--> Compound

Hydrogen--> Compound

Oxygen---> Element

b)

Water--> Compound

Hydrogen---> Element

Oxygen---> Compound

c)

Water---> Compound

Hydrogen---> Element

Oxygen---> Element

d)

Water---> Compound

Hydrogen---> Compound

Oxygen---> Compound

108.
These can only be separated by chemical means. 
a)
element 
b)
compound 
c)
mixture 
d)
stuff 
109.
These contain only one kind of atom. 
a)
element 
b)
compound 
c)
mixture 
d)
water 
110.
The air is a _________. 
a)
element 
b)
mixture 
c)
compound 
d)
energy 
111.

Pure water is a ___________.

a)

element

b)

mixture

c)

compound

112.
Milk is a ________
a)
compound 
b)
mixture 
c)
element 
113.
Salt is a _________. 
a)
compound 
b)
element 
c)
mixture 
114.
Carbon Dioxide is a ______ 
a)
compound 
b)
element 
c)
mixtures 
d)
Battle of Bunker Hill 
115.
Contains two or more atoms combined
a)
Elements
b)
Compounds
c)
Mixtures
116.
What is H2SO4 
 made up of?
a)
2 hydrogen, 1 sulfur, 4 oxygen
b)
1 hydrogen, 2 sulfur, 4 oxygen
c)
2 hydrogen & 4 sodium
d)
1 hydrogen & 6 sodium
117.
What is salad?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
118.

Which example is a compound?

a)

N2

b)

O2

c)

Cu

d)

H2O2

119.

The only metal known to occur in liquid form is

a)

Mercury

b)

Aluminium

c)

Golg

d)

Bronze

120.

The property of metals by which it can be drawn into wires is

a)

Malleability

b)

Sonority

c)

Lustrous

d)

Ductility

121.

Metals react with acids to produce a gas

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

122.

Metals are good conductor of

a)

Only heat

b)

Only electricity

c)

Heat and electricity both

d)

None of the above

123.

Which nonmetal is very essential for our life is

a)

Iodine

b)

Oxygen

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Chlorine

124.

Sulphur reacts with oxygen to form ........................

a)

Sulphur nitrate

b)

Sulphur dioxide

c)

Sulphate

d)

Sulphide

125.

........... is the hardest known substance in nature

a)

Graphite

b)

Iron

c)

Gold

d)

Diamond

126.

Rust is formed when iron combines with

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Moist Air

c)

Ozone

d)

Hydrogen

127.

Non metal which is good conductor of electricity

a)

Diamond

b)

Oxygen

c)

Graphite

d)

Nitrogen

128.

9) They are not sonorous and are poor

conductors of heat and electricity. These

materials are called

a)

non-metals

b)

metals

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

129.

The property by which metals can be beaten into sheets is known as _________________

a)

ductility

b)

sonority

c)

lusture

d)

malleability

130.

A substance is said to be sonorous if it _________.

a)

conducts heat

b)

conducts electricity

c)

conducts water through metal pipe

d)

produces a ringing sound when beaten

131.

What is the property that makes metals shine called?

a)

Malleability

b)

Ductility

c)

Sonorous

d)

Lustre

132.

Which of these non metals is used for water purification?

a)

iodine

b)

chlorine

c)

carbon

d)

bromine

133.

Which is NOT an indication of a chemical change?

a)

Temperature Change

b)

Shape Change

c)

Formation of a precipitate

d)

Production of light

134.

What is the left part of a chemical equation called?

2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O

a)

Reactants

b)

Yields

c)

Products

d)

Chemical Equation

135.

What is the right part of a chemical equation called...

2H2 + O2 --> 2H2O

a)

Reactants

b)

Yields

c)

Products

d)

Chemical Equation

136.

Which statement is not a description of a chemical reaction?

a)

A solid is dropped into a beaker of liquid and a gas is released.

b)

A solid is dropped into a beaker of liquid and an explosion occurs.

c)

Two liquids are mixed in a beaker and a solid forms at the bottom of the beaker.

d)

A liquid is heated in the sun and half of it evaporates.

137.
In a chemical reaction
a)
The atoms of the reactants always stay together to form the products
b)
The atoms of the reactants unbond, rearrange, and then rebond to form the products
c)
New atoms are formed which combine to make the products
d)
Some atoms disappear while others multiply to form the products
138.

Which observation(s) might be used as evidence that a chemical reaction occurred?

a)

Color change

b)

Odor change

c)

change in temperature

d)

All of the above

139.

Tiny pieces of matter that everything is made of

a)

model

b)

atoms

c)

substances

140.

An object, diagram, or computer program that helps us understand something by making it simpler or easier to see

a)

molecule

b)

property

c)

model

141.

A process in which atoms rearrange to form new substances.

a)

extended structure

b)

boiling point

c)

chemical reaction

142.

A group of atoms joined together in a particular way

a)

product

b)

molecule

c)

fertilizer

143.
In the equation,          2Mg + O2 ---> 2MgO, which are the reactants?
a)
Mg and O
b)
MgO
c)
Mg and MgO
d)
O and MgO
144.
The law of conservation of mass states that....
a)
Matter can be made
b)
Matter can be destroyed
c)
Matter can neither be made or destroyed
d)
Matter can evaporate
145.
Grinding a seltzer tablet into powder increases the rate of reaction due to increased
a)
concentration
b)
surface area
c)
temperature
d)
reactants
146.
How many atoms of carbon (C) are in C6H12O6?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
147.
How many elements are in C6H12O6?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
148.

In reactions, products must be equal to..

a)

Products

b)

Reactants

c)

Starters

d)

Enders

149.

Which of the following is true of an acid?

a)

It has a pH value of 7.

b)

It turns red litmus paper blue.

c)

It turns blue litmus paper red.

d)

It has a pH value of more than 7.

150.

Litmus paper can be used to determine the pH value of a solution.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

All acids have a pH higher than 7.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

Distilled water has a pH of 7.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

When acids and alkalis react, salts of neutral pH are formed.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Name the acid found naturally in citrus fruits.

a)

Ethanoic Acid

b)

Sulphuric Acid

c)

Citric Acid

d)

Hydrochloric Acid

155.

Alkalis are used for making soaps.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

Ammonia is a corrosive alkali.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

What is the meaning of the above hazard warning symbol?

a)

Corrosive

b)

Explosive

c)

Toxic

d)

Radioactive

158.

Acid in our stomach:

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Carbonic acid

159.

Acid in car battery:

a)

Hydrochloric acid

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Acetic acid

d)

Carbonic acid

160.

What does this warning symbol mean?

a)

Toxic

b)

Corrosive

c)

Flammable

d)

Irritant

161.

What does this warning symbol mean?

a)

Toxic

b)

Corrosive

c)

Flammable

d)

Irritant

162.

What does this warning symbol mean?

a)

Toxic

b)

Corrosive

c)

Flammable

d)

Irritant

163.

What does this warning symbol mean?

a)

Toxic

b)

Corrosive

c)

Flammable

d)

Irritant

164.
What colour is universal indicator in a neutral solution?
a)
Green
b)
Orange
c)
Purple
d)
Red
165.
What colour is universal indicator in strong acid?
a)
Green
b)
Orange
c)
Purple
d)
Red
166.
What colour is universal indicator in a strong alkali?
a)
Green
b)
Orange
c)
Purple
d)
Red
167.

Acid rain has the same pH value as vinegar

a)

True

b)

False

168.

This layer is the ONLY liquid layer.

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

169.

Drag the labels that correctly explains each picture.

a)

Travels only through liquids

b)

Travels through solids and liquids

c)

Travels only through solids

1
2
1)
2)
170.

What is the outermost layer of the Earth called?

a)

Mantle

b)

Crust

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer core

171.

What are the two main metals that make up the outer and inner core?

a)

Gold

b)

Aluminum

c)

Crust

d)

Iron & Nickel

172.

The layer of the Earth where convection currents occur is called the

a)

Mantle

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Upper core

d)

Inner core

173.

Which layer of the Earth is the THINNEST?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

174.

Which layer of the Earth is the THICKEST?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

175.
Which of the following energy transformations occur when a lamp that is plugged into a wall socket is functioning correctly?
a)
Chemical to light
b)
Electrical to chemical
c)
Electrical to light
d)
Chemical to electrical
176.
A hairdryer converts -- 
a)
electrical energy into chemical
b)
electrical energy into thermal
c)
chemical energy into mechanical
d)
thermal energy into mechanical
177.

What kind of energy is represented in the picture?

a)

Thermal

b)

Chemical

c)

Sound

d)

Kinetic

178.

What type of energy is electrons flowing through a wire?

a)

Electrical energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Kinetic energy

d)

Mechanical energy

179.

What type of energy is stored in batteries or food?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Thermal energy

c)

Chemical energy

d)

Mechanical energy

180.

Energy that transfers heat is?

a)

Thermal energy

b)

Potential energy

c)

Mechanical energy

d)

Kinetic energy

181.
What two forms of energy are given off by a burning candle?
a)
heat and light
b)
mechanical and electrical
c)
nuclear and light
d)
potential and heat
182.

Which type of energy has to do with objects in motion?

a)

Potential

b)

Kinetic

183.

What is the name of the force that pulls you to the earth?

a)

Gravity

b)

Air Resistance

c)

Friction

184.

Rubbing a balloon on your head causes charge to build up on the balloon The balloon can then "stick" to the wall - what force is acting here?

a)

Gravity

b)

Electrostatic

c)

Friction

d)

Applied

185.

Drag the correct force to the box where that force is happening.

a)Friction
b)Air Resistance
c)Applied Force
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
186.

Two surfaces rubbing together is called ​ (a)   . An example of this is ​ (b)   which works on objects falling through the air.

Choose from the below words
friction
air resistance
187.

Match the following

a)

push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction

1.

force

b)

unit used to measure force

2.

Newton

c)

something returning to its original shape after being squeezed or stretched

3.

elastic

d)

force transmitted through a rope , string, cable, or wire when it is pulled tight by forces acting from opposite ends

4.

tension

e)

push or pull exerted by a magnet

5.

magnetism

188.

Wil E. Coyote is using what force to move?

a)

friction

b)

magnetism

c)

spring

d)

tension

189.

These skydivers are experiencing what two forces?

a)

electricity and magnetism

b)

gravity and tension

c)

air resistance and gravity

d)

gravity and normal force

190.

Which force will propel Wil E. Coyote forward?

a)

elastic

b)

friction

c)

air resistance

d)

gravity

191.

Which force will make Wil E. Coyote slow down?

a)

elastic

b)

friction

c)

air resistance

d)

gravity

192.
What is a force?
a)
the PUSH or PULL on an object 
b)
The MOTION an object creates
c)
The objects HITTING one another
d)
Going REALLY FAST
193.
What is the net force?
a)
17 N Right
b)
3 N Right
c)
3 N Left
d)
17 N Left
194.
What is the unit for FORCE? 
a)
N (Newtons)
b)
lbs (pounds)
c)
g (grams)
d)
m/s (meters per second)
195.
Which one is balanced?
a)
top
b)
bottom
c)
both
196.
This is an example of what kind of force?
a)
Balanced Force
b)
Pushing Force
c)
Gravity Force
d)
Unbalanced Force
197.
Which direction will the object move?
a)
Up
b)
Down
c)
Right
d)
Left
198.
If the net force is 0 the object will ... 
a)
CHANGES motion
b)
STAY the SAME, NOT Move
199.

How do you find the net force of this image.

a)

Add up all the arrows

b)

Add a green arrow and the orange arrow.

c)

Subtract all the arrows.

d)

Add the green arrows and subtract the orange arrow.

200.
If there are two forces going in the SAME direction, you would ...?
a)
(-) Subtract the forces
b)
(+) Add the forces
c)
Neither
d)
(x) Multiply
201.
You and your father inspect an empty house with the hopes of buying it. You walk through the rooms talking to one another, and you notice that your voices and footsteps are echoing in the big, empty house. What causes the echo?
a)
sound waves reflecting off smooth, flat surfaces throughout the house
b)
sound waves moving around the large rooms
c)
sound waves moving slowly through air
d)
sound waves refracting around corners in the empty rooms
202.
If the distance represented by the letter A were increased, how would it change the way the sound was heard?
a)
The sound would be higher. 
b)
The sound would be lower. 
c)
The sound would be softer. 
d)
The sound would be louder. 
203.
If distance C on the diagram increased, what would happen to the pitch? 
a)
The pitch would be louder. 
b)
The pitch would be softer. 
c)
The pitch would be higher. 
d)
The pitch would be lower. 
204.
A wave in which the particles vibrate in the same direction as that in which the wave is traveling; sound waves
a)
longitudinal wave
b)
ocean wave
c)
transverse wave
d)
mechanical wave
205.
______ is how high or low a sound is; depends on the frequency.
a)
pitch
b)
frequency
c)
sound
d)
medium
206.
A soft, low pitch sound would have which of the following....
a)
low frequency 
high amplitude 
b)
high frequency 
high amplitude 
c)
low frequency 
low wavelength  
d)
low frequency
low amplitude 
207.
A soft, high pitch sound would have which of the following....
a)
low frequency 
high amplitude
b)
low frequency 
low wavelength 
c)
high frequency 
low amplitude
d)
high frequency 
high amplitude 
208.
______ is how loud or soft a sound is; depends on the amplitude.
a)
pitch
b)
frequency
c)
loudness
d)
medium
209.
If you want to change the pitch of a sound, you have to change the ___
a)
frequency
b)
amplitude
c)
speed
d)
volume
210.
Bats use ________ TO LOCATE MOSQUITOES IN THE AIR.
a)
solar
b)
ecology
c)
echolocation
d)
evolution
211.
Which is a tool that is used in medicine to view internal organs and pregnancy.
a)
radar
b)
doppler
c)
ultrasound
d)
sonar
212.
What unit is the intensity of sound measured in?
a)
decibels (dB)
b)
Hertz (Hz)
c)
meters per second (m/s)
d)
meters
213.
A part in a longitudinal wave where the particles are spread apart
a)
compression
b)
rarefaction
c)
crest
d)
trough
214.

Sound is a form of energy. How is it produced?

a)

by waiting

b)

by vibrating objects

215.

Do sound waves travel through a medium?

a)

YES

b)

NO

216.

It is the unit used for frequency.

a)

Hertz (Hz)

b)

decibel (dB)

217.

The Earth rotates about an imaginary axis at an angle of:

a)

10°10\degree

b)

15°15\degree

c)

23.5°23.5\degree

d)

25°25\degree

218.

If you were in space viewing the Earth from above the North Pole, you would observe that it rotates in a _________ direction.

a)

clockwise

b)

counter clockwise

219.

Which of these can be made of gases, dust, and hundreds of billions of stars?

a)

a galaxy

b)

a planet

c)

a solar system

d)

a constellation

220.
Which is the largest object in our solar system?
a)
Sun
b)
Jupiter
c)
Earth
d)
Pluto
221.

What is the name given to the distance that light can travel in one year that is used to measure distances in the universe?

a)

Revolutions

b)

Mile- year

c)

Light-year

d)

Miles

222.

Place these objects in order from smallest to largest.

a)
Planets, solar system, universe, galaxy
b)
Solar system, planets, galaxy, universe
c)
Planets, solar system, galaxy, universe
d)
Galaxy, solar system, planets, universe
223.

A large, rocky object orbiting the sun is called a...

a)

Comet

b)

Asteroid

c)

Meteoroid

d)

Meteor

224.
A full cycle of the the phases of the Moon is called:
a)
phasing
b)
waxing
c)
waning
d)
lunar cycle
225.
The season with the Earth tilted toward the Sun is:
a)
Spring
b)
Fall
c)
Summer
d)
Winter
226.
What moon phase is this picture?
a)
This is the waning crescent phase.
b)
This is the waxing gibbous phase.
c)
This is the waning gibbous phase.
d)
This is the new moon phase.
227.
The extreme tides, spring tides, occur during what two phases of the Moon?
a)
New Moon and Full Moon
b)
1st Quarter and 3rd Quarter
c)
Waning Crescent and Waxing Crescent
d)
Waning Gibbous and Waxing Gibbous
228.
What affects the seasons?
a)
rotation on axix
b)
orbit around Sun
c)
The Earth's tilt and revolution
d)
The Moon's orbit around Earth
229.

Which of the following is one day on Earth?

a)

Earth to orbit the Sun

b)

the Sun to orbit Earth

c)

Earth to completely rotate around its axis

d)

the Sun to completely rotate around its axis

230.

About how long does one cycle of the Moon's phases last?

a)

a year

b)

a month

c)

two weeks

d)

a day

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