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CCNA 1 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full – Introduction to Networks 2

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

a)
  • enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium


b)

places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame

c)
  • implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame


d)
  • integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper


2.

What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?


a)
  • The SSH client on the switch is enabled.


b)
  • The switch requires a username/password combination for remote access.


c)
  • Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted.


d)

The switch requires remote connections via a proprietary client software.

3.

Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)

a)

ini sudah benar

b)

cuma

c)

harap

d)

dihafalkan

4.

A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?

a)

DoS

b)
  • access

c)

Trojan horse

d)
  • reconnaissance


5.

What service is provided by HTTP?

a)

Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.

b)
  • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.


c)
  • An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.


d)
  • A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.


6.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • FTP

b)

DHCP

c)
  • Telnet

d)

SSH

7.

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)


a)

Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets.

b)

The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.

c)
  • All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network.


d)
  • The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.


e)
  • A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table.


8.

A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)

a)
  • ping

b)

arp -a

c)

ipconfig

d)
  • tracert

e)
  • nslookup

9.

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?

a)
  • switch the packet to the directly connected interface


b)

analyze the destination IP address

c)
  • look up the next-hop address for the packet


d)

discard the traffic after consulting the route table

10.

What characteristic describes antispyware?


a)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network


b)
  • applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software


c)

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

d)
  • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization


11.

A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

a)

SSH

b)
  • Telnet

c)
  • AUX

d)

Console

12.

What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)

a)

Update the operating system and other application software.

b)
  • Implement a VPN.


c)

Install and update antivirus software.

d)
  • Implement strong passwords.


e)
  • Implement RAID.


13.

Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?


a)

Trojan horse

b)

brute-force attack

c)

DoS

d)
  • buffer overflow


14.

Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?

a)

User Datagram Protocol field

b)

transport layer error check field

c)
  • frame check sequence field


d)

error correction process field

15.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.248

b)
  • 255.255.255.0


c)
  • 255.255.255.128


d)
  • 255.255.255.192

16.

What service is provided by POP3?

a)

Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.

b)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

c)

Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

d)
  • Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers.


17.

What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)


a)

virtual private networks

b)
  • intrusion prevention systems


c)
  • strong passwords


d)
  • antispyware

e)
  • antivirus software


18.

What characteristic describes antivirus software?

a)
  • applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software

b)

a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network

c)
  • a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization


d)
  • software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications


19.

What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?

a)
  • It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.


b)

It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.

c)
  • It checks the value of the TTL field and if it is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Destination Unreachable message to the source host.


d)
  • It increments the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 100, it discards the packet and sends a Parameter Problem message to the source host.


20.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)
  • TFTP


d)

SMTP

21.

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)

a)
  • Configure the IP domain name on the router.


b)
  • Generate the SSH keys.


c)
  • Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.


d)

Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions.

e)
  • Configure DNS on the router.


22.

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)

a)
  • implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection


b)
  • handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware


c)
  • places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame


d)
  • implements a process to delimit fields within an Ethernet 2 frame


23.

An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?

a)
  • all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​


b)
  • all IPv6 enabled devices across the network​


c)

all IPv6 enabled devices on the local link​

d)

all IPv6 DHCP servers​

24.

What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)

a)
  • subnet ID


b)

subnet mask

c)
  • global routing prefix


d)

interface ID

25.

A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

a)
  • interference


b)
  • security


c)

coverage area

d)
  • packet collision


e)

mobility options

26.

A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?

a)
  • Enter CTRL-Z at the privileged mode prompt.


b)

Exit global configuration mode.

c)
  • Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .


d)
  • Reboot the device.


27.

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

a)

token passing

b)
  • CSMA/CA


c)
  • priority ordering


d)
  • CSMA/CD


28.

What is a function of the data link layer?

a)
  • provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media


b)

provides the formatting of data

c)

provides delivery of data between two applications

d)

provides end-to-end delivery of data between hosts

29.

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?

a)
  • to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward


b)

to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

c)
  • to end communication when data transmission is complete


d)
  • to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination


30.

What characteristic describes spyware?

a)

software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user

b)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network


c)

an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service

d)
  • the use of stolen credentials to access private data


31.

Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?

a)

store-and-forward switching

b)
  • borderless switching


c)
  • ingress port buffering


d)

cut-through switching

32.

Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?

a)

FEC0::/10

b)
  • FE80::/10


c)
  • FDEE::/7


d)

FF00::/8

33.

What service is provided by FTP?

a)
  • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.


b)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

c)

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

d)
  • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.


34.

A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)

a)
  • DNS server


b)

source port number

c)
  • source MAC address


d)
  • default gateway


35.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.


b)

NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4.

c)
  • NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion.


d)
  • NAT causes routing tables to include more information.


36.

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?

a)
  • 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8


b)
  • C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8


c)

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

d)

106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

37.

Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?

a)
  • PC2 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.

b)
  • SW1 will send an ARP reply with the SW1 Fa0/1 MAC address.​


c)

RT1 will send an ARP reply with the PC2 MAC address.​

d)

RT1 will send an ARP reply with the RT1 Fa0/0 MAC address.​

38.

What service is provided by BOOTP?


a)
  • Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.


b)
  • Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.


c)
  • Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.


d)

A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

39.

What characteristic describes adware?

a)

the use of stolen credentials to access private data

b)
  • a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network


c)
  • an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service


d)
  • software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user


40.

When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?

a)

cut-through

b)
  • store-and-forward


c)

fast-forward

d)
  • fragment-free


41.

Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)

Place the options in the following order:peer-to-peer network

a)

[+] no dedicated server is required

b)

[+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis

c)

[#] requires a specific user interface

d)

[#] a background service is required

42.

What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)

a)
  • accessing the media


b)
  • logical addressing


c)

error detection

d)
  • logical addressing


43.

Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

a)
  • The switch can be remotely managed.


b)
  • One device is attached to a physical interface.


c)
  • The default SVI has been configured.


d)

Passwords have been configured on the switch.

e)
  • Two physical interfaces have been configured.


44.

What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?

a)
  • 2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64​


b)
  • 2001:DA48:FC5::A4:/64​


c)
  • 2001:DA48::/64​


d)
  • 2001::/64


45.

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?the network performance baseline

a)

the network performance baseline

b)

syslog records and messages

c)

debug output and packet captures

d)
  • network configuration files


46.

How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

a)
  • It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.


b)

It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

c)
  • It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.


d)

It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.

47.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)

a)

The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6.

b)
  • The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.


c)
  • The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.


d)
  • The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.


48.

A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices:
IP phones – 22 addresses
PCs – 20 addresses needed
Printers – 2 addresses needed
Scanners – 2 addresses needed

The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?

a)

255.255.255.224

b)

255.255.255.192

c)
  • 255.255.255.252

d)
  • 255.255.255.248

49.

What characteristic describes identity theft?

a)
  • the use of stolen credentials to access private data


b)

software on a router that filters traffic based on IP addresses or applications

c)
  • software that identifies fast-spreading threats


d)

a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization

50.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)
  • 255.255.255.240


c)

255.255.255.248

d)
  • 255.255.255.224

51.

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)


a)
  • cable lengths


b)
  • pinouts


c)
  • connector types


d)

connector color

e)
  • cost per meter (foot)


52.

Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?


a)
  • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.


b)

The woven copper braid should not have been removed.

c)

The wrong type of connector is being used.

d)
  • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.


53.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?

a)

IMAP

b)

FTP

c)
  • Telnet

d)

SSH

54.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)

a)
  • 10.18.10.200/28


b)
  • 10.18.10.208/28


c)
  • 10.18.10.240/27


d)

10.18.10.224/28

e)

10.18.10.224/27

55.

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?

a)
  • FTP

b)
  • LDAP

c)
  • SNMP

d)
  • SLP

56.

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?

a)

255.255.255.240

b)
  • 255.255.255.248

c)
  • 255.255.255.224

d)
  • 255.255.255.192


57.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?

a)
  • IP address: 192.168.10.65 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.76

b)
  • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.240, default gateway: 192.168.10.33

c)
  • IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33

d)

IP address: 192.168.10.41 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.46

58.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

a)
  • only hosts B, C, and router R1

b)

only hosts B and C

c)

only hosts A, B, C, and D

d)
  • only hosts A, B, and C


59.

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?

a)

88

b)

200

c)

224

d)

158

60.

Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?

a)

LC conector

b)

SC conector

c)

RJ 11

d)

RJ 45

61.

Refer to the exhibit. The switches have a default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for the default gateway. Which network devices will receive the ARP request sent by host A?

a)

only host D

b)
  • only hosts A, B, C, and D


c)
  • only hosts B, C, and router R1


d)

only hosts B and C

62.

Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?

a)
  • AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA


b)
  • BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB


c)

CC:CC:CC:CC:CC:CC

d)

DD:DD:DD:DD:DD:DD

63.

Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?

a)
  • 255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.255.128

c)

255.255.255.240

d)
  • 255.255.255.224


64.

A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices:

Subnetwork A: IP phones – 10 addresses

Subnetwork B: PCs – 8 addresses

Subnetwork C: Printers – 2 addresses

What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?

a)
  • 255.255.255.240


b)

255.255.255.0

c)

255.255.255.248

d)
  • 255.255.255.252