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geology final practice questions

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

 Mineral Definition: A naturally occurring inorganic element or compound having an orderly internal structure and characteristic chemical composition, crystal form, and physical properties. Based on the definition, which of the following substances is considered a mineral?

a)

a crystal ball made of silica glass

b)

an ice cube made in the refrigerator

c)

a natural diamond in a jewelry store

d)

a man-made diamond on a wedding ring

2.

Which Hawaiian island is closest to the source of Hot Spot Volcanism?

a)

Big Island (Hawaii)

b)

Maui

c)

O'ahu

d)

Kauai

3.

Which one of the following is the lowest grade metamorphic facies?

a)

greenschist

b)

zeolite

c)

eclogite

d)

blueschist

4.

Which geological activities could be used to predict a volcanic eruption?

a)

earthquakes, topography, and gas emissions

b)

radiation, earthquakes, surface minerals

c)

radio frequency, climate change, precipitation

d)

radioactive decay of unstable isotopes

5.

Which mineral exists abundantly in foliated metamorphic rocks such as greenschist?

a)

muscovite

b)

clay minerals

c)

olivine

d)

quartz

6.

Which magma is most explosive in volcanic eruption?

a)

basaltic magma along a mid-ocean ridge

b)

andesitic magma in a continental crust

c)

rhyolitic magma in a continental crust

d)

basaltic magma in an island

7.

Based on the Plate Tectonics Theory, the Earth's surface is covered by a dozen big plates. These plates are moving at an averaged speed of approximately _______ a year.

a)

a few centimeters to ten centimeters

b)

a few meters

c)

a few kilometers

d)

none of the answer choices because plates don't move at all

8.

 Metamorphic Grade refers to the intensity of metamorphism in the formation of metamorphic rocks. Which one of the following geological locations do you expect to find higher-grade metamorphic rocks?

a)

mid-ocean ridges where water is abundant

b)

continental collisions in plate boundaries where pressure and temperature are high (such as the Himalayas

c)

the east cost of the USA where burial pressure and temperature are sufficient

d)

oceanic crusts in the pacific and atlantic oceans

9.

Foliated metamorphic rocks are classified by the nature of their foliation, crystal size, and segregation of minerals that are all related to the metamorphic grade. Which one of the following orders has an increased intensity of metamorphism?

a)

slate, schist, gneiss, migmatite

b)

slate, migmatite, schist, gneiss

c)

migmatite, schist, gneiss, slate

d)

migmatite, gneiss, schist, slate

10.

 We found a piece of stishovite in Meteor Crater, Arizona. Which type of metamorphism is this?

a)

regional metamorphism due to plate convergence

b)

contact metamorphism due to a magma intrusion

c)

metasomatism due to exchange of composition

d)

shoch metamorphism due to a meteorite impact

11.

What's the metamorphic faces?

a)

A set of plate tectonics boundary setting where a metamorphic rock faces

b)

A set (range) of pressure-temperature conditions where certain index minerals exist

c)

Metamorphic minerals with indicative crystal faces

d)

Rocks change forms due to compositions of parent rocks

12.

What type of metamorphism is caused by igneous intrusions?

a)

burial metamorphism

b)

regional metamorphism

c)

contact metamorphism

d)

shock metamorphism

13.

Which of the following metamorphic faces represents the highest pressure typically found in subducting slabs at approximately 40 km in depth?

a)

zeolite

b)

amphibolite

c)

eclogite

d)

grenschist

14.

What type of lavas are most likely to be erupted at the andes?

a)

andesitic

b)

basaltic

c)

rhyolitic

d)

Aa

15.

Carbon has an atomic number of 6 and a number of isotopes (C12, C13, C14). Which statement below is INCORRECT about carbon element?


a)

carbon isotopes have different numbers of neutrons

b)

C12 has 6 neutrons and 6 protons in its nucleus

c)

C14 has 6 neutrons and 14 protons

d)

carbon isotopes have the same number of protons

16.

What elements make up the bulk Earth?


a)

Fe, Si, O, Mg

b)

C, H, Si, O

c)

K, Na, Ca, Si, O

d)

Fe, Ni, S, Si

17.

The structure of atoms is mainly made of the inner nucleus with protons and neutrons, and the outer orbiting electrons. An element is defined by the number of protons, but can have various numbers of neutrons. When an element loses electron(s), it becomes______?


a)

radioactive and unstable

b)

an isotope

c)

a cation

d)

an anion

18.

Which is the type of bond between Na+ and CI- in halite (rock salt with NaCI chemical composition)?


a)

metallic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

ionic bond

d)

van der Waals bond

19.

The Earth's upper mantle is mainly made of_____?

a)

solid basalt

b)

basaltic magma

c)

ultramafic magma

d)

solid peridotite

20.

Which mineral crystallizes at relatively higher temperatures in an igneous magma chamber?


a)

pyroxene

b)

K-feldspar

c)

Muscovite

d)

Quartz

21.

 The periodic table is commonly used to understand the properties of elements and their compounds in earth materials. How are the elements organized in the periodic table?


a)

in order of increasing density

b)

in order of increasing number of electrons

c)

in order of increasing number of neutrons

d)

in order of increasing number of protons

22.

Polymorphism means "many forms". In mineralogy it means that a single chemical composition can exist with two or more different crystal structures. Note that each of the structures is only stable at a certain pressure and temperature conditions. __________ and __________ are examples of polymorphs.


a)

Quartz, sandstone

b)

Quartz, stishovite

c)

Diamond, man-made diamond

d)

Silica glass, quartz

23.

 Geologists have used the principle of uniformitarianism to understand geological activities preserved in the rock records. According to the principle of uniformitarianism __________

a)

 all of the planets formed from a uniform solar nebula

b)

geologic processes we observe today have operated in the past

c)

sediments are deposited under the action of gravity uniformaly

d)

present geological features can not be used to understand past geological records because of their time differences

24.

The Mohorovicic discontinuity coincides with the ________

boundary.


a)

lithosphere - asthenosphere

b)

oceanic crust - continental crust

c)

oceanic crust - upper mantle

d)

oceanic crust - oceanic crust

25.

The major classification of igneous rocks is dependent on textures and _______

a)

the relative proportion of silicate minerals

b)

the relative proportion of pyroclastic material

c)

the relative proportion of phenocryst minerals

d)

the relative proportion of glassy material

26.

Which of the following minerals is common in both felsic and mafic igneous rocks?

a)

pyroxene

b)

quartz

c)

mica

d)

plagioclase

27.

Seismic studies of the Earth have shown that the planet's interior is made of a few layers with distinct seismic signatures and chemical compositions. The major layers of the planet include (from innermost to the outermost layers) ________


a)

inner core, outer core, mantle, crust

b)

outer core, inner core, mantle, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

28.

Which of the following minerals is most abundant in felsic igneous rocks such as granite?


a)

calcium-rich feldspar

b)

olivine

c)

pyroxene

d)

K-feldspar

29.

Continental and oceanic crusts cover the Earth's crustal surface. The oceanic crust is _________ than the continental crust.


a)

lighter, thicker

b)

denser, thinner

c)

the same density but thinner

d)

lighter and much thinner

30.

Magnetic mapping of the ocean floor revealed a pattern of symmetric “stripes” with altering polarity, centered along the mid-ocean ridge. These indicate the magnetic reversals of the Earth’s magnetic field when_________

a)

The earths magnetic north and south poles flip

b)

The earths continental drift

c)

The earths magnetic poles wander

d)

The oceanic basalt layers from alternatively because of alternating eruptions

31.

Based on the map, which boundary does the deep earthquakes occur?

a)

Pacific and Anarctic plate boundary

b)

South American and African plate boundary

c)

North American and Eurasian plate boundary

d)

Pacific and eurasian plate boundary

32.

 Which type of geological features in Plate Tectonics Theory can be found in Iceland?

a)

large igneous provinces

b)

divergent plate boundary and convergent plate boundary

c)

transform plate bounday and convergent plate boundary

d)

hot spot volcanism and divergent plate boundary

33.

We can classify igneous rocks by their textures and compositions. For example, felsic igneous rocks contain very high amount of K-feldspar and silica. Which of the following rocks has the highest silica content and is a felsic rock?


a)

peridotite

b)

gabbro

c)

basalt

d)

granite

34.

Silicate minerals commonly exist in igneous rocks and can be used to classify the compositions of the igneous rocks. Which of the following silicate minerals is commonly found in mafic igneous rocks?

a)

biotite

b)

orthoclase feldspar

c)

pyroxene

d)

quartz

35.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about igneous rocks?

a)

Melts are always more felsic than their parent rocks

b)

Andesite is a fine-grained, intermediate, and extrusive igneous rock

c)

Basalt is a fine-grained, intermediate, and extrusive rock

d)

Gabbro is a coarse-grained, mafic, and intrusive rock

36.

Melting occurs when a solid (rock) becomes a melt. There are a number of conditions that can cause a rock to melt. Which one of the following conditions does NOT cause a rock to melt in the Earth's deep interior?


a)

addition of volatile such as water into the rock

b)

decompression (a decrease in pressure)

c)

an increase in temperature

d)

an increase in pressure

37.

Which one of the following statement about the Continental Drift proposed by Alfred Wegener in 1912 is NOT TRUE?


a)

distribution of certain fossils in both South American and African continents

b)

similarity of rock assemblages and ages across the Atlantic ocean

c)

"jig-saw puzzle" fit of American and African continents

d)

magnetic stripes were recorded along mid-ocean ridges such as the Atlantic mid-ocean ridge

38.

Which of the following mountain ranges is the product of continental-continental convergent plate boundary?

a)

the andes

b)

the iceland island

c)

the himalayas

d)

the japanese islands

39.

 What caused Morocco's earthquake? (use the map above to help with your answer)


a)

volcanic eruption

b)

tow oceanic plates moving away from each other

c)

tectonic plates collided against each other

d)

hot spot volcanism

40.

Which statement below about sedimentary processes is NOT correct?

a)

 Sedimentary rocks provide a record of ancient tectonic events, fossil record and evolution of life, the history of the past climate changes, among others.

b)

Sedimentary rocks are the most common rock type on Earth's surface

c)

Weaker currents of water can carry both muds and gravels into the deep ocean basin

d)

Sandstone is a siliciclastic sedimentary rock formed from compaction and lithification of sediments

41.

What is the basic building block to all major rock-forming silicates?

a)

(Mg,Fe)O and SiO2 solid solution

b)

SiO2 silica

c)

Si04 tetrahedron

d)

Fe-Mg-Si-O metals

42.

The chemical formula of olivine is typically written as (Mg,Fe)2SiO4. Which statement about olivine is incorrect?


a)

Olivine is a mafic mineral becuase it contains more Mg and Fe and less silica

b)

Olivine is an island silicate

c)

Mg and Fe cations form solid solution series in olivine

d)

Olivine is the most abundant mineral in mafic rocks such as basalt

43.

You find an igneous rock containing large, interlocking crystals of quartz, feldspar, and muscovite. The rock you have found is most likely a granite. Which one of the following statement about granite is FALSE?


a)

granite is a felsic intrusive rock

b)

granite is very abundant in the oceanic crust because it contains lots of quartz and feldspar

c)

granite is more felsic than basalt and peridotite

d)

granite can be found in the Enchanted rock state park in texas

44.

Mantle upwelling in response to the plate pulling-apart at spreading (divergent) ridges results in decompression melting of the upper mantle peridotite. Partial melting of an ultramafic rock at high temperatures results in melting of mafic minerals with a basaltic composition. In which tectonic setting are you most likely to find abundant basaltic volcanism as a result of the mantle upwelling?


a)

Transform boundary (e.g., San Andreas fault)

b)

Subduction zone (e.g., South America/Pacific boundary)

c)

Spreading center (e.g., Mid-Atlantic ridge)

d)

Continent-continent collision (.g., Himalayan mountains)

45.

The volcanism at spreading centers occurs as a result of _______ melting

a)

fluid-induced

b)

decompression

c)

convection

d)

conduction

46.

What pair of igneous rocks has the same chemical composition

a)

granite - andesite

b)

basalt -gabbro

c)

peridotite - andesite

d)

rhyolite - pumice

47.

Volcanic rocks derived from the Yellowstone hot spot get progressively older to the southwest. Based on this information, in which direction is the North American plate moving if we assume the hot spot source is anchored steadily deep in the mantle?


a)

northeast

b)

northwest

c)

southeast

d)

southwest

48.

Burial of sediments results in _______

a)

decreasing pressure and decreasing temperature

b)

decreasing pressure and increasing temperature

c)

increasing pressure and decreasing temperature

d)

increasing pressure and increasing temperature

49.

Which of the following sedimentary rock groups are most abundant?

a)

cherts, and gypsum

b)

sandstones and conglomerates

c)

limestones and marble

d)

siltstones, mudstones, and shales

50.

 The Principle of Original Horizontality was proposed by the Danish geological pioneer Nicholas Steno (1638-1686). The Principle is commonly used in studying sedimentary rocks. Which one of the following statements about the Principle is FALSE?

a)

gravity is the main driving force in this principle

b)

based on the principle, young rocks are buried under old rocks

c)

the principle is important to the analysis of folded and tilted strata

d)

this principle states that layers of sediment are originally deposited horizontally under the action of gravity

51.

Based on the following figure for San Andreas fault, which type of fault is it?

a)

Deep-slip transform fault

b)

Left-lateral transform fault

c)

Right-lateral transform fault

d)

Strike-slip thrust fault

52.

Which type of faults does the following picture describe? Which type of plate tectonics boundaries do you expect it to occur?

a)

Thrust fault, convergent plate boundaries

b)

Reverse faults, divergent plate boundaries

c)

Transform fault, sliding plate boundaries

d)

Normal fault, divergent plate boundaries

53.

A sample of marble has deformed brittlely during a laboratory experiment. If we wish our next sample of marble to deform plastically rather than brittlely, we should conduct the next experiment at a

a)

Lower temperature, lister confining pressure, add more water

b)

Lower temperature, higher confining pressure, and more water

c)

Higher temperature, higher confining pressure, and less water

d)

Higher temperature, higher confining pressure, and more water

54.

Which one of the following deformation textures/materials commonly forms along a fault deep in the Earth's crust (at approximately more than 20 km depth) such as that along the San Andrea's fault?

a)

Cataclastic textures

b)

Fault breccias

c)

Moraines

d)

Mylonites

55.

What two measurements describe the orientation of a fault plane at a given location?

a)

Axis and plane

b)

Dip and strike

c)

Lateral and thrust

d)

Plunge and trend

56.

In an anticline shown in the following picture ,

a)

The oldest rocks occur in the center and the limbs dip towards the center

b)

The oldest rocks occur in the center and the limbs dip away from the center

c)

The youngest rocks occur in the center and the limbs dip towards the center

d)

The youngest rocks occur in the center and the limbs dip away from the center

57.

Which one of the following is the best statement of the principle of original horizontality?

a)

Sedimentary layers are originally superimposed on top of each other with older rocks at the top

b)

Sedimentary rocks contain original fossils that are horizontally linked to each other.

c)

Sediments are originally deposited as horizontal layers (or as horizontal as possible).

d)

Sedimentary rocks are originally deposited with horizontally-known geological ages.

58.

The principle of superposition states that

a)

A fault is always older than the rocks it cuts

b)

Sediments are deposited as essentially horizontal layers

c)

The present is the key to the past

d)

Undisturbed sedimentary layers get progressively younger from the bottom to top

59.

Which type of geological gaps does the following sedimentary layers display

a)

Angular unconformity

b)

Disconformity

c)

Nonconformity

d)

Anticlinal gap

60.

A rock formed with 1000 atoms of a radioactive parent isotope element and no daughter isotope, but contains only 125 radioactive parent isotope atoms and 875 daughter isotope atoms today. If the half-life for the radioactive element is one million years, how old is the rock?

a)

4 million years old

b)

875,000 years old

c)

3 million years old

d)

2 million years old

61.

Which one of the following radioactive isotopes has the shortest half-life and is good for the radioactive isotope dating of shorter absolute ages in fossils and carbonates?

a)

Carbon-14

b)

Potassium-40

c)

Uranium-235

d)

Uranium-238

62.

The half-life of a radioactive isotope is

a)

half the time it takes all the radioactive isotopes to decay to daughter isotopes

b)

the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay to daughter isotopes.

c)

halftime for the radioactive isotope to stay in rocks over the geological time

d)

The average half-life of a stable isotope

63.

Using the following figure with geological features depicted, what's the sequence of the geological events from youngest to oldest? The darker area at the bottom right represents a magma intrusion event

a)

Deformation (folding), faulting, and magma intrusion

b)

Magma intrusion, deformation (folding), and faulting

c)

Faulting, magma intrusion, and deformation (folding)

d)

Faulting, deformation (folding), and magma intrusion

64.

What does the elastic rebound theory describe the occurrence of an earthquake?

a)

the buildup and release of stress (energy) causing an earthquake

b)

the elastic fluctuations in groundwater rebound prior to an earthquake

c)

the elastic formation of mountain ranges by successive earthquakes

d)

the uplift of the crust in response to elastic rebound

65.

Which one of the following types of seismic waves arrive at a seismic station (about 100 km from the epicenter)first?

a)

P waves

b)

S waves

c)

Surface waves

d)

Surface waves reflected off the interface between air and dust

66.

If an earthquake were to occur in Anchorage, Alaska, how long would it take for the first seismic waves to arrive at a seismograph station in Austin, Texas, approximately 5000 kilometers away?

a)

Approximately 8 seconds

b)

Approximately 8 minutes

c)

Approximately 8 hours

d)

Approximately 8 days

67.

Which of the following correctly lists the three rock types in order of decreasing P-wave velocity (from the rock with a higher velocity to the rock with a lower velocity)?

a)

peridotite, gabbro, granite

b)

gabbro, granite, peridotite

c)

granite, peridotite, gabbro

d)

granite, gabbro, peridotite

68.

Earthquakes that originate at depths greater than 100 km are most likely associated with_______ plate boundaries.

a)

Oceanic-oceanic convergent (such as the subduction zone)

b)

Continental-continental convergent (such as the India-Eurasia collision)

c)

Oceanic-oceanic divergent (such as the Atlantic mid-ocean ridge)

d)

Transform (such as the San Andreas fault)

69.

Which one of the following statements about tsunamis is false?

a)

An early warning system for tsunamis has been developed for the Pacific region such as Japan.

b)

Tsunamis travel faster than P and S waves.

c)

Tsunamis can reach heights in excess of 20 meters when they reach the shore.

d)

Tsunamis can be triggered by megathrust earthquakes and seafloor slumps.

70.

As the distance to an earthquake increases,

a)

the elapsed time before the P waves arrive decreases.

b)

the time between the arrival of the P and S waves increases.

c)

the amount of ground shaking increases.

d)

the time between the arrival of the P and S waves decreases.

71.

Which layer in the earth does not transmit S waves?

a)

The crust

b)

The inner core

c)

The mantle

d)

The outer core

72.

The oceanic crust consists mostly of

a)

Felsic rocks

b)

Mafic rocks

c)

Sedimentary rocks

d)

Ultramafic rocks

73.

Seismic wave speeds increase with

a)

Decreasing density and temperature

b)

Decreasing density and increasing temperature

c)

Increasing density and decreasing temperature

d)

Increasing density and temperature

74.

How does the earth’s magnetic field originate?

a)

Charged particles entering the climate system

b)

Convection in the mantle

c)

Convection in the outer core

d)

Gravitational interaction between the Earth and sun

75.

Which one of the following about magnetic reversals over the geological time is NOT correct?

a)

Earth's magnetic field has changed its polarity thousands of times in the geological time

b)

Based on the record of magnetic strength, we are in the magnetic reversal period

c)

Magnetic reversals typically lasted for approximately 1000 years

d)

Magnetic reversals occurred with a frequency of approximately 100 years

76.

As seismic waves travel through the Earth, they generally

a)

curve upward because seismic wave velocities typically increase with increasing depth

b)

travel in straight lines because seismic waves have constant speeds in the Earth's interior.

c)

curve downward because materials become heavier.

d)

travel along irregular paths because seismic waves bounce off rocks.

77.

The Milankovitch cycles are influenced by Earth's

a)

mass, momentum, and tidal waves on the equatorial plane.

b)

albedo, solar radiation, and ocean temperature in the climate system

c)

surface temperature of the Sun and Earth's distance to the Sun.

d)

orbital eccentricity, precession, and angle of tilt on the rotation axis.

78.

Scientists have studied ice core samples from Antarctica. Which statement below is correct from these studies?

a)

absolute temperatures in the atmosphere can be directly measured from the ice core samples.

b)

CO2 concentration in the past (as far back as 400,000 years) is about 420 ppm

c)

There have been many glacial cycles in the past. The cycles occurred with a period of ~1000 years.

d)

relative CO2 and CH4 concentrations are correlated with temperature change in the climate system.

79.

Compared with the visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum, ultraviolet radiation has

a)

Longer wavelengths and higher energies.

b)

shorter wavelengths and higher energies.

c)

longer wavelengths and lower energies.

d)

shorter wavelengths and lower energies.

80.

The greenhouse effect is mainly caused by

a)

carbon dioxide from burning fossil fuels and release of methane that trap heat radiating from the Earth's surface.

b)

heating of homes and businesses, which releases excess heat into the atmosphere.

c)

oceans that trap heat radiating from the Earth's seafloors.

d)

too many plants in the main-made greenhouses.

81.

Which of the following is an example for the positive feedback in the climate system?

a)

An increase in the surface temperature leads to ice cap melting so the surface temperature eventually decreases.

b)

An increase in the atmospheric CO2 leads to plants growing faster so the CO2 concentration drops.

c)

An increase in the atmospheric CO2 leads to surface temperature increase and the global warming.

d)

Incoming and outgoing solar radiation energy reaches a radiative balance.

82.

Chemical analysis of ice cores from Antarctica demonstrates that as temperature increases, concentrations of atmospheric

a)

carbon dioxide and methane both decrease.

b)

carbon dioxide decreases, while methane increases.

c)

carbon dioxide increases, while methane decreases.

d)

carbon dioxide and methane both increase.

83.

Which energy source below can be considered as a renewable energy source?

a)

Fossil fuels

b)

Solar energy

c)

Nuclear energy

d)

Methane hydrate

84.

Petroleum and natural gas are considered _______ energy resources

a)

Non renewable

b)

Renewable

c)

Reusable

d)

Alternative

85.

Which one of the following is the main energy source powering the climate system?

a)

Solar radiation

b)

Heat from earths interior

c)

High-energy charged particles

d)

Volcanic eruptions

86.

What geological setting below is NOT considered as a conventional fossil-fuel reservoir?

a)

An anticline trap with a shale layer on top and a sandstone layer at bottom

b)

 A stratigraphic trap with an impermeable shale layer on top and permeable reservoir layers at bottom

c)

Horizontal shale layers with low permeability that require fracking to extract gas

d)

An anticline with a shale layer on top and a salt dome trap located at the core of the anticline

87.

Which of the following statements regarding porosity and permeability in sedimentary rocks is TRUE?

a)

High porosity rocks generally have low permeability.

b)

High porosity rocks generally have high permeability.

c)

Low porosity rocks generally have high permeability.

d)

Porosity and permeability are not correlated physical properties.

88.

Porosity and permeability are not correlated physical properties.

a)

the release of carbon dioxide into the climate system.

b)

the release of sulfur that contributes to acid rain.

c)

toxic coal ash with metal impurities.

d)

all of the above.

89.

The point at which global oil production stops rising and starts to decline is called

a)

the nonconventional oil age.

b)

the reservoir peak.

c)

the Hubbert's peak.

d)

the economic peak.

90.

The Montreal Protocol is responsible for

a)

phasing out CFC (Chlorofluorocarbon) production.

b)

creating a policy to reduce energy consumption.

c)

reducing greenhouse gas emissions from cars.

d)

mandating the use of natural gas.

91.

Which one of the following has dramatically changed the carbon cycle over the past 150 years?

a)

burial of organic carbon

b)

deposition of carbon-rich sediments

c)

burning of fossil fuels

92.

The Keeling Curve

a)

 shows the record of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere for the last 80,000 years.

b)

shows the record of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere since 1950.

c)

shows global warming data for the last 80,000 years.

d)

shows that global warming started in 1950.

93.

Molina and Rowland proposed in 1975 that the ozone hole in the stratosphere is caused by?

a)

Seasonal climate change

b)

Burning of coal

c)

The greenhouse effect

d)

reaction with chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

94.

What is carbon sequestration?

a)

CO2 capture from the atmosphere and CO2 injection into the underground reservoir.

b)

Removal of CO2 from the atmosphere and CO2 conversion to O3 to replenish the ozone layer.

c)

Sequence of CO2 production processes to generate electricity.

d)

Addition of CO2 into the ocean to make acidic water.

95.

How thick are the Greenland and Antarctic ice caps?

a)

approximately 100 meters thick

b)

approximately 300 meters thick

c)

approximately 6 kilometers thick

d)

approximately 3 kilometers thick

96.

Which one describes an accumulation of poorly sorted deposits at the end of a glacier?

a)

Icebergs

b)

Sandstone

c)

Loess

d)

Till

97.

Approximately 25% of Earth's land surface is permanently frozen and covered by permafrost. If the permafrost is to be melted due to the global climate change, what could be the major consequence?

a)

Release of oxygen from frozen permafrost

b)

Release of acidic rain

c)

Release of permanent CO2 gas

d)

Release of methane from methane hydrate dissociation

98.

The snow line is

a)

the lowest altitude at which snow will fall in the summer.

b)

the lowest altitude at which snow will fall in the winter.

c)

the altitude above which snow does not completely melt in the summer.

d)

the altitude above which snow does not completely melt in the winter.

99.

Movement of past glaciers can be determined by looking at the a rock flour.

a)

Rock flour

b)

Striations

c)

methane and CO2 trapped in glaciers.

d)

glacial basal slips.

100.

The Earth’s magnetic field shields the surface of the Earth from _______

a)

Solar winds with charged particles

b)

Collision of asteroids with magnetic materials

c)

Volcanic eruptions that release acidic volatiles

d)

Seismic waves with charged particles traveling into the air

101.

You got an A in Physical Geology this semester and decided to travel to Crater of Diamonds, Arkansas to exercise your knowledge and try your luck to find natural diamonds. In your Geology class, you learned that diamond is a high pressure-temperature structure of carbon atoms and that diamonds in the area were brought up to the surface through ancient volcanic eruptions. Which physical phenomenon below best explains the existence of diamonds in Crater of Diamonds?

a)

diamond is metastable at ambient because of its large kinetic energy to transform back to graphite

b)

the hot spring water containing carbonic water in the area protects diamond to be oxidized

c)

the small sizes of diamonds in the area reduce the possibility of chemical weathering processes

d)

diamond in coevistence with surface minerals under the scorching sun becomes more stable

102.

Which one of the following statements about weathering is false?

a)

Rocks of different compositions weather at different rates.

b)

Heat and heavy rainfall increase the rate of chemical weathering.

c)

The presence of moist soil with bacteria slows down weathering of the underlying bedrock.

d)

The longer a rock is exposed at the surface, the more weathered it becomes.

103.

As a rock breaks into smaller pieces, the ratio of surface area to volume weathering process

a)

decreases; increases

b)

increases; increases

c)

remains the same; increases

d)

don't change; don't change

104.

What causes the deep red or brownish color of rock surface commonly found in Arizona, New Mexico, and other regions with limited amount of rain?

a)

clay minerals (such as kaolinite)

b)

feldspar (such as K-feldspar)

c)

iron oxides (goethite and hematite)

d)

red sandstone (such as quartz)

105.

Which one of the following processes describes the general downhill movement of rock, soil, or unconsolidated materials under the influence of gravity?

a)

Debris sliding

b)

Mass wasting

c)

Surface tension

d)

Weathering and erosion

106.

Where do most mass wasting hazards likely occur?

a)

Hilly mountains with loose soil and heavy rainfalls

b)

Large flat-topped landforms with little precipitation

c)

Deltas with meandering rivers and seasonal storms

d)

Hilly mountains with granite bedrocks and little precipitation

107.

Which one of the following slopes of unconsolidated material will be the least stable?

a)

a slope with limited moisture less than the angle of repose

b)

a slope with dry sand grains equal to the angle of repose

c)

a slope with water saturation greater than the angle of repose

d)

 a slope with large gravels less than the angle of repose

108.

Relief represents the difference between the highest and lowest elevation in a particular area. A hilly region, like the Colorado Rockies, would have

a)

A high relief

b)

A low relief

c)

Minimal hillslope relief

d)

A high angle of repose

109.

Groundwater represents how much of the world's fresh water?

a)

approximately 1 percent

b)

approximately 4 percent

c)

approximately 29 percent

d)

approximately 75 percent

110.

Which one of the following has the highest permeability in the groundwater reservoir?

a)

Gravel

b)

Sandstone

c)

Shale

d)

Silt

111.

If the amount of discharge in a groundwater aquifer exceeds the amount of recharge, the groundwater table

a)

Will rise

b)

Will drop

c)

Will remain the same

d)

may rise or drop depending on the amount of rainfall in the area.

112.

Karst topography forms in regions underlain by

a)

Basalt

b)

Limestone

c)

Sandstone

d)

Shale

113.

Which one of the following statements about groundwater is true?

a)

At the coast, salty groundwater lies on top of fresh groundwater.

b)

Groundwater moves from areas where the water table is low to areas where the water table is high.

c)

The higher the permeability of an aquifer, the faster the groundwater will flow.

d)

Groundwater moves from low pressure area to high pressure area.

114.

Excessive pumping of a well during a drought will lead to a deepening of the cone of depression. This in turn can cause _______ (select one correct answer)

a)

your well to be efficiently recharged

b)

permeability to increase

c)

Land surface subsidence

d)

groundwater table to rise up

115.

Which one of the following statements about streams is false?

a)

Faster currents can carry larger particles than slower currents.

b)

Braided streams with multiple channels are most common in flat plains.

c)

Smaller particles settle more slowly than larger particles.

d)

Faster current can carry a larger load of suspended sediments.

116.

at a bed in a river, ____ occurs on the outside of the bend and ____ occurs on the inside of the bend

a)

Deposition, deposition

b)

Erosion, deposition

c)

Deposition, erosion

d)

Erosion, erosion

117.

Oxbow lakes are associated with which one of the following types of rivers?

a)

Braided rivers

b)

Dendritic rivers

c)

Meandering rivers

d)

Straight rivers

118.

A student at UT Austin had the chance to attend the Red River Showdown Football Game at Dallas. She decided to go visit the nearby Red River. She knew that the Red River was declared as the state boundary line between Texas and Oklahoma. She soon realized she had to cross into Oklahoma in this particular area just to see the south bank of the Red River. What could be the reason for this?

a)

The Red River is a dendritic river system many branches.

b)

The Red River is a meandering system which changed course after the state line was drawn.

c)

The Red River is a branded stream system with many branches.

d)

The state boundary was redrawn using the latest census survey by the US Census Bureau.

119.

Deltas form at the mouths of big rivers such as the Mississippi River because the river's decreases when they enter large bodies of water, like the Gulf of Mexico.

a)

Viscosity

b)

Capacity

c)

Discharge

d)

Channel

120.

Waller Creek is a stream system running through UT campus. The stream's discharge during a heavy rainfall would ________(Select one that is correct)

a)

increase with decreasing depth of the stream channel

b)

increase with increasing the velocity and depth of the stream

c)

decrease with the increasing width of the stream channel

d)

remain the same because of the river banks

121.

What causes the ocean tides?

a)

Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions

b)

Gravity attractions between the Earth and the Sun/Moon

c)

Wind-blown ocean currents

d)

Coriolis effect and solar radiation in the climate system

122.

As waves approach a beach, the rows of waves gradually bend to a direction more parallel to the shore. This change in direction is due to ______

a)

The movement of water particles changes direction as the waves approach the shore

b)

The shape of the waves is naturally curved when the waves are generated by wind blowing.

c)

The amplitude of the waves increases as the waves approach the shore.

d)

The speed of the waves slows down as the waves approach the shore.

123.

The spiral pattern of a hurricane such as Hurricane Katrina spins in a Hemisphere. Most rainfall would occur on the of the hurricane.

a)

Clockwise; East

b)

Counterclockwise; West

c)

Counterclockwise; East

d)

Clockwise; West

124.

What happens to ocean waves as they approach seashore?

a)

Both wave velocity and wave period remain the same

b)

Both wave velocity and wave height decrease

c)

Both wave velocity and wavelength decrease

d)

Both wave velocity and wave height increase

125.

The collapse of the New Orleans levee system during the 2005 Katrina hurricane was caused by the

a)

longshore waves and decreased sediment load

b)

storm surge and heavy rainfall

c)

high tides and sneaker waves

d)

High winds and sediment loads

126.

West Texas is relatively dry and barren. The area receives much less precipitation annually than East Texas. Which statement below best explains this?

a)

The continental divide in West Texas area diverts most surface runoff water to the west.

b)

West Texas is located at ~30° N latitude where air coming down is dry. Weather system coming in from the Pacific is also relatively dry because of the rain shadow effect.

c)

The bedrock in West Texas is mainly made of shale layers. Shale is very impermeable to water infiltration.

d)

West Texas is located at ~30° N latitude where air coming down is dry. Rocky Mountains block most of the moisture from the Gulf of Mexico

127.

The Saffir-Simpson intensity scale for hurricanes is based on

a)

the areal extent of the hurricane

b)

the size of the "eye" of the hurricane

c)

the maximum sustained wind speed.

d)

the expected damage and storm surge from the storm.

128.

Hurricanes typically form only during the months of August to October in the Atlantic Ocean of the Northern Hemisphere due to _____

a)

High tides and drift currents combined with high evaporation.

b)

Warm dry air and warm ocean water temperature.

c)

Warm ocean temperature and high humidity in the air

d)

Strong interaction between the North American continent and the Atlantic Ocean.

129.

The cross beds exposed in an eolian sandstone dip to the west. During the deposition of the sand, the prevailing winds were probably from the ______

a)

East

b)

Northeast

c)

Southwest

d)

West

130.

Which of the following best explains why the location of the Sahara desert in Africa exists?

a)

The Sahara desert lies in the rain shadow of coastal mountains.

b)

The Sahara desert is in North Africa and lies near 30°N latitude.

c)

The Sahara desert is in North Africa and lies thousands of kilometers from the ocean.

d)

The sandy soil of the Sahara desert is blown away quickly that vegetation is unable to grow.

131.

Wind-blown dust deposits are called

a)

Deflation

b)

Eolian

c)

Dust storms

d)

Loess

132.

Based on global atmospheric circulation patterns, which latitude should have the most arid climate with little or no rain (dry)?

a)

60 degrees

b)

30 degrees

c)

Equator

d)

Artic regions

133.

Which statement below about the universe is NOT correct?

a)

The universe is expanding.

b)

The Big Bang Theory explains the way the universe began with a hot and dense point that inflated to form the ever-expanding universe.

c)

The universe contains approximately 100 billion galaxies.

d)

The universe was formed at approximately 4.5 billion years ago.

134.

The four inner planets are

a)

mostly cold with dense atmospheres (compared to the outer planets).

b)

all similar to Earth in size, atmospheric composition, and density.

c)

larger and less dense than the outer planets.

d)

small, rocky, and relatively lacking in volatile elements (compared to the outer planets).

135.

The effects of the collision of a large Mars-sized body with the Earth about 4.5 billion years ago is proposed to have caused

a)

the origin of amino acids on Earth

b)

the evolution of life on Earth.

c)

the extinction of dinosaurs.

d)

the formation of the moon.

136.

You have a chance to travel to Greenland and find a piece of rock there. You suspect that it is one of the oldest materials found on Earth that is approximately 4 billion years old. Which method below could help you determine its age?

a)

Radioactive isotope dating using uranium and thorium isotopes in the rock

b)

Radioactive isotope dating using carbon-14 isotopes in the rock

c)

Stable isotope dating using oxygen isotopes in the rock

d)

Fossil records in the rock

137.

The atmosphere of Venus is mainly composed of

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water vapor

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Sulfuric acid

138.

Oceanic crust provides a record of approximately _____ of Earth’s history

a)

200 million years

b)

4.5 billion years

c)

2 billion years

d)

2 million years

139.

Where are the oldest rocks in North America located?

a)

in the West Texas

b)

in the Canadian Shield

c)

in the Basin and Range Province

d)

in the Rocky Mountains

140.

Cratons are made up of

a)

orogens and platforms.

b)

platforms and shields.

c)

orogens and shields.

d)

basins and domes.

141.

What is an orogeny?

a)

a broad exposure of deformed metamorphic and igneous rocks

b)

a general term for mountain-building processes

c)

a special type of reverse fault

d)

a theory that explains the uplift of continents after large ice sheets melt

142.

Which one of the following is not a common rock type in the Canadian Shield?

a)

Gneisses

b)

Granitic rocks

c)

Highly deformed metamorphosed volcanic rocks

d)

Unreformed sedimentary rocks

143.

Which statement below about Allende carbonaceous meteorite is NOT correct?

a)

It's about 4.56 billion years old.

b)

It belongs to the stony meteorite category

c)

Its composition is similar the stony-iron meteorite.

d)

Amino acid has been found in Allende meteorite.

144.

Stanley Miller's experiments to explore life-building chemical reactions that took place on the primitive Earth were able to generate

a)

DNA

b)

Amino acids

c)

Bacteria

d)

Single-celled microbes

145.

The initial rise of oxygen in the Earth's early atmosphere was linked to

a)

Photoemission

b)

Outgassing of volcanoes

c)

Chemosynthesis

d)

cyanobacteria (stromatolite)

146.

The marked rise in oxygen in the early Earth's atmosphere coincides with the first appearance of ______ in the rock record.

a)

banded iron formation

b)

red sandstone rocks

c)

goethite and hematite (oxidized minerals) on rock surfaces

d)

calcite in limestone

147.

The impact site for the giant Cretaceous-Tertiary asteroid is known as the ______ crater.

a)

K-T

b)

Chicxulub

c)

Meteor (in Arizona)

d)

Early bombardment

148.

After each of the five major extinctions (the Big Five Mass Extinctions) in Earth's history,

a)

the number of families of life generally decreased.

b)

there was an ice age due to the greenhouse effect.

c)

there were evolutionary radiations.

d)

there was a rise of oxygen level in the atmosphere.

149.

You just discovered a star that has an Earth-like planet. The star is twice as hot as our Sun. You conclude that the planet would be able to support life, if it is

a)

twice as close to that star as Earth is to our Sun.

b)

the same distance to that star as Earth is to our Sun.

c)

further from that star than Earth is to our Sun.

d)

CO2 and sulfuric acid rich in its atmosphere such that its surface temperature is about 400 °C.

150.

The distance from a star where a planet can sustain liquid water at the surface is known as the

a)

water evolving zone.

b)

critical zone.

c)

habitable zone.

d)

sustainable zone.