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Worksheets

2023 Env. Science Midterm Review

Total questions: 180

Worksheet time: 2hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of developing alternative energy sources?

a)

To increase energy costs

b)

To deplete natural resources

c)

To reduce pollution

d)

To increase dependence on fossil fuels

2.

Which factors should be considered when defining problems associated with energy and mineral resources?

a)

Economic costs only

b)

Economic, social, and environmental costs

c)

Social costs only

d)

Environmental costs only

3.

What are renewable resources?

a)

Resources that are harmful to the environment

b)

Resources that cannot be replenished

c)

Resources that are naturally replenished

d)

Resources that can be used only once

4.

What are nonrenewable resources?

a)

Resources that cannot be replenished

b)

Resources that are unlimited in quantity

c)

Resources that can be used only once

d)

Resources that are harmful to the environment

5.

Which type of resource is important for humans?

a)

Neither renewable nor nonrenewable resources

b)

Both renewable and nonrenewable resources

c)

Nonrenewable resources

d)

Renewable resources

6.

What is the main benefit of using alternative energy sources?

a)

Reduced greenhouse gas emissions

b)

Depletion of natural resources

c)

Decreased deforestation

d)

Higher energy costs

7.

Which of the following is a renewable energy source?

a)

Solar power

b)

Natural gas

c)

Nuclear power

d)

Coal

8.

Which of the following is a nonrenewable energy source?

a)

Oil

b)

Wind power

c)

Hydroelectric power

d)

Geothermal power

9.

What is a disadvantage to the economy associated with using alternative energy sources?

a)

Lower energy costs

b)

Decreased energy efficiency

c)

Higher initial investment

d)

Increased job opportunities

10.

What is a disadvantage to the environment associated with using alternative energy sources?

a)

Enhanced biodiversity

b)

Increased habitat destruction

c)

Decreased water pollution

d)

Reduced carbon footprint

11.

Which of the following is an example of conserving energy?

a)

Leaving lights on when not in use

b)

Using energy-efficient appliances

c)

Driving a gas-guzzling car

d)

Wasting water

12.

What is the main benefit of recycling mineral resources?

a)

Lower production costs

b)

Reduced waste and pollution

c)

Higher energy consumption

d)

Increased resource depletion

13.

Which of the following makes recycling challenging?

a)

Decreased pollution

b)

Reduce our use of resource

c)

Reduce waste

d)

Contamination of materials

14.

Organize these options into the correct energy category.

Categorize the following

Solar

Wind

Hydroelectric

Oil

Natural Gas

Coal

Nuclear

Biomass

Geothermal

Renewable
Non-renewable
15.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of the temperature difference between urban and rural area?

a)

More vegetation in urban area

b)

Close to the sea

c)

Urbanization

d)

Weather condition

16.

What is the definition of urban heat island?

a)

Urban heat island refers to the phenomenon where rural areas experience higher temperatures compared to surrounding urban areas.

b)

Urban heat island refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience lower temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas.

c)

Urban heat island refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience higher temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas due to natural factors.

d)

Urban heat island refers to the phenomenon where urban areas experience higher temperatures compared to surrounding rural areas due to human activities and the built environment.

17.

What are the causes of urban heat island effect?

a)

Low concentration of buildings and pavement, abundance of vegetation, and lack of waste heat from human activities.

b)

High concentration of buildings and pavement, abundance of vegetation, and lack of waste heat from natural sources.

c)

Low concentration of buildings and pavement, lack of vegetation, and waste heat from natural sources.

d)

High concentration of buildings and pavement, lack of vegetation, and waste heat from human activities.

18.

Urban heat island effect impacts the environment by (a)   .

Choose from the below words
improving air quality in urban area
decreasing temperatures in urban ar
increasing temperatures in urban ar
having no impact on the environment
19.

What are the impacts of urban heat island effect on human health?

a)

Decreased risk of heat-related illnesses and improvement of existing health conditions.

b)

No impact on human health.

c)

Increased risk of heat-related illnesses and worsening of existing health conditions.

d)

Increased risk of cold-related illnesses and improvement of existing health conditions.

20.

How does urban heat island effect contribute to climate change?

a)

By increasing temperature, energy consumption, greenhouse gas emissions, and reducing air quality.

b)

By having no effect on temperature, energy consumption, greenhouse gas emissions, and air quality.

c)

By decreasing temperature, energy consumption, greenhouse gas emissions, and improving air quality.

d)

By reducing temperature, energy consumption, greenhouse gas emissions, and improving air quality.

21.

What are some strategies to mitigate urban heat island effect?

a)

Installing more asphalt and concrete surfaces

b)

Increasing green spaces and vegetation, implementing cool roofs and pavements, using reflective materials, improving urban planning and design, and promoting energy-efficient buildings.

c)

Increasing the use of air conditioning

d)

Building taller and denser structures

22.

How does the urban heat island effect vary in different cities?

a)

The urban heat island effect is determined by the number of buildings in a city.

b)

The urban heat island effect is influenced by the amount of green space in a city.

c)

The urban heat island effect varies based on factors such as population density, land use patterns, and geographical location.

d)

The urban heat island effect is the same in all cities.

23.

What are the long-term consequences of urban heat island effect?

a)

No impact on energy consumption, air pollution levels, human health, or ecosystems.

b)

Increased energy consumption, higher air pollution levels, compromised human health, and negative impacts on ecosystems.

c)

Decreased energy consumption, lower air pollution levels, compromised human health, and positive impacts on ecosystems.

d)

Decreased energy consumption, lower air pollution levels, improved human health, and positive impacts on ecosystems.

24.

What are some urban planning techniques to reduce urban heat island effect?

a)

Constructing more high-rise buildings to increase air circulation

b)

Using dark-colored materials for roofs and pavements to absorb more heat

c)

Increasing green spaces and vegetation, implementing cool roofs and pavements, promoting energy-efficient buildings, and creating shade through urban design.

d)

Removing all trees and vegetation to reduce heat absorption

25.

How can individuals contribute to reducing urban heat island effect?

a)

By cutting down trees

b)

By increasing energy consumption

c)

By using dark-colored surfaces

d)

By planting trees, using light-colored surfaces, promoting green roofs and walls, and reducing energy consumption.

26.

How can individuals contribute to reducing urban heat island effect?

a)

By cutting down trees

b)

By increasing energy consumption

c)

By using dark-colored surfaces

d)

By planting trees, using light-colored surfaces, promoting green roofs and walls, and reducing energy consumption.

27.

Select all that are correct.

Select two correct downsides of urbanization

a)

Opportunity - Careers & Education

b)

Safety - Police, Fire, Medical

c)

Air Quality - Air quality is much more polluted in cities

d)

Efficiency - Everything is spread far apart

e)

Heat Islands - Cities are warmer than surrounding areas

28.

Select all that are correct.

Select two correct benefits of urbanization

a)

Opportunity - Careers & Education

b)

Safety - Police, Fire, Medical

c)

Air Quality - Air quality is more clean in cities

d)

Efficiency - Every is spread far apart

e)

Heat Islands - Cities are warmer than surrounding areas

29.

Urbanization is the trend where....

a)

people move from rural areas to urban areas

b)

animals move from rural areas to urban areas

c)

people build a city from natural resources

d)

beavers build a dam, creating their own habitat

30.
Based on the graph, which area is the coolest temperature?
a)
downtown
b)
rural
c)
suburban residential
d)
park
31.

All of the following are effects of urban sprawl EXCEPT ___.

a)

increased pollution

b)

increased physical inactivity

c)

decreased mass transit options

d)

decreased land use

32.

Rapid expansion of a city into the countryside around the city

a)

Urbanization

b)

Urban Sprawl

c)

Urban

d)

Rural

33.

In Stage 1, the birth rate is...

a)

High

b)

Falling

c)

Low

34.

In Stage 1, the death rate is...

a)

High

b)

Falling

c)

Low

35.

In Stage 1, the Total Population is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
Growing slowly
Growing quickly
Decreasing
36.

In Stage 1, the Population Pyramid looks like...

a)
b)
c)
37.

In Stage 2, the Death rate is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
High
Falling Quickly
Low
38.

In Stage 2, the Total Population is...

a)

Growing Slowly

b)

Growing Quickly

c)

Not Growing

39.

In Stage 3, the Population Pyramid looks like...

a)
b)
c)
40.

In Stage 4, the Birth rate is...

a)

High

b)

Rising

c)

Low

41.

Which correctly describes the term demographic transition?

a)

The transition from low birth rates and death rates to high birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

b)

The transition from high birth rates and death rates to low birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

c)

The transition from high birth rates to low death rates as a country develops.

d)

The transition from low birth rates to high death rates as a country develops.

42.

What happens if a population grows past its carrying capacity?

a)

The population keeps growing

b)

The population starts to die off

c)

The entire species will go extinct

d)

The carrying capacity just increases

43.

So what is likely to happen over the next few decades with this population?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

The population will decrease.

44.

This type of farming (of many particular kinds in different eras and places) is considered to be the original type of agriculture, and has been practiced for thousands of years

a)

Bio-dynamic farming

b)

Traditional farming

c)

Integrated farming

d)

Organic farming

45.

(a)   are substances or mixture of substances intended for preventing, destroying, repelling, or mitigating any pest

46.

_________ is a production system that sustains the health of soils, ecosystems, and people. It relies on ecological processes, biodiversity, and cycles adapted to local conditions, rather than the use of inputs with adverse effects

a)

Conventional agriculture

b)

Integrated agriculture

c)

Organic agriculture

d)

Market agriculture

47.

A large-scale farming operation that practices monoculture is which of the following?

a)

Community farming

b)

Traditional farming

c)

Organic farming

d)

Industrial farming

48.

This type of agriculture relies on human and animal labor.

a)

Industrial agriculture

b)

Traditional agriculture

c)

Organic agriculture

d)

Community agriculture

49.

This type of agriculture produces 80% of the worlds food supply.

a)

Industrial agriculture

b)

Traditional agriculture

c)

Organic agriculture

d)

Community agriculture

e)

High Cost

50.

In organic agriculture even natural fertilizers cannot be used.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Traditional agriculture mainly takes place in

a)

less-developed countries

b)

more-developed countries

52.

Which of the following is not a benefit of GMOs

a)

Increases pest resistance

b)

Decreases biodiversity

c)

Increases drought resistance

d)

Reduces cost of manufacturing

53.
Industrialized agriculture is often referred to as "high input" because it requires a great deal of:
a)
pesticides
b)
fertilizers
c)
fossil fuels
d)
all of these 
54.
Repeated application of irrigated water in dry climates leads to...
a)
a drop in productivity of the land by more than 10%, leading to desertification
b)
a build up of nutrients, leading to increased levels of erosion
c)
a build up of salts in the soil, leading to salinization
d)
decreased phosphorus and nitrogen, leading to eutrophication
55.
The use of synthetic fertilizers can increase crop yield, but also
a)
destroy nitrifying bacteria in the soil
b)
increase nutrient runoff into nearby surface waters
c)
slow the release of organic nutrients from compost
d)
increase fish populations in nearby streams
56.
Which of the following are harmful effects of agriculture?
a)
Algal blooms due to fertilizer runoff
b)
Climate change associated with methane emissions from livestock and rice paddies
c)
Pesticide residue in food, water, and air
d)
All of the above
57.
Which of the following best describes a genetically modified organism (GMO)?
a)
An organism that has been selectively bred for the best traits
b)
An organism that contains foreign DNA
c)
An organism that is produced after exposure to a mutagen.
d)
An organism that has been cloned
58.

2. What problem did The Green Revolution attempt to solve?

a)

They didn’t solve anything.

b)

The problem the green revolution attempted to solve was biotechnology.

c)

The problem the green revolution attempted to solve was hunger.

d)

The problem the green revolution attempted to solve was world peace.

59.

4. According to the GRAPH, did India's GRAIN production increase or decrease?

a)

YES India's GRAIN production increased.

b)

NO India's GRAIN production decreased.

c)

NEITHER India's GRAIN production increased or decreased.

60.

Which statement about 1961 to 2011 is best supported by the graph?

a)

Food scarcity improved in both Asia and Africa

b)

Green Revolution techniques worked better in Asia than in Africa

c)

Population growth was higher in Africa than in Asia

d)

Green Revolution techniques worked well in both regions but slowed down dramatically

e)

Millet and rice are not very important food sources for either region, indicating that a conclusion about food security is invalid

61.

Between 1950 and 1990, wheat production in India in average pounds per acre more than tripled, which allowed India to meet its population's need for food. Which of the following best explains this change?

a)

The elimination of poverty in India's rural regions

b)

The use of genetically modified seeds

c)

The increase of microloan programs that provide farmers with credit

d)

The use of large farm tractors and combine harvesters

e)

The use of improved plant hybrids and agricultural chemicals.

62.

Which is NOT a part of soil makeup/texture?

a)

Sand

b)

Shale

c)

Silt

d)

Clay

63.
What type of process forms soil?
a)
weathering
b)
erosion
c)
deposition
d)
compaction
64.
What is humus?
a)
soil
b)
organic matter
c)
loam
d)
minerals
65.
GMO stands for
a)
genetically made organism
b)
genetically modified organism
c)
gene manipulated organism
d)
Genetic mutant organism
66.

Select examples of GMOs from the list below. (Select all that apply.)

a)

Maize

b)

Canola oil

c)

Cotton

d)

Papaya

67.

Disadvantages of Industrialized Agriculture include

a)

Monoculture

b)

Pollution

c)

Low Yield

d)

Labor Intensive

68.

Disadvantages of Organic Agriculture include

a)

High Cost

b)

Pollution

c)

Low Yield

d)

Labor Intensive

69.

What pet is the first organism that was genetically modified through human interactions

(a)  

70.

What evidence can support the claim that GMOs have a positive impact?

4 lines
71.

What evidence can support the claim that GMOs have a negative impact?

4 lines
72.

As soil matures, it becomes

a)

Deeper

b)

Sandier

c)

Thinner

d)

It doesn't change

73.

which of these are not true about topsoil?.

a)

it is a very soft layer

b)

most living organisms are present in this layer

c)

it has almost no nutrients

d)

none of these

74.

The type of rock formed when old rocks are weathered and the pieces that 

 break off are cemented together into new rock.

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

sedimentary

75.

The type of rock formed when heat and pressure change an old rock into a new

  type of rock.

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

sedimentary

76.

The type of rock that may contain fossils.

a)

igneous

b)

metamorphic

c)

sedimentary

77.

Metamorphic rocks are rocks that have been changed from heat and pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

78.

The cycle of old rocks turning into new rocks is called_____.

a)

the mineral cycle

b)

the fossil cycle

c)

the sedimentary cycle

d)

the rock cycle

79.

All types of rock can potentially change from one type to another at some point on the rock cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

According to the diagram, how does a sedimentary rock become a metamorphic rock?

a)

Weathering and Erosion

b)

Heat and Pressure

c)

Compaction and Cementation

d)

Melting

81.

When heat or pressure causes one rock to change into a new type of rock, we call these rocks _____.

a)

Igneous     

b)

Sedimentary

c)

Metamorphic

d)

Mineral

82.

According to the diagram, how does magma become an igneous rock?     

a)

Melting

b)

Cooling

c)

Heat and Pressure

d)

Compaction and Cementation

83.

Metamorphic rocks form through

a)

added pressure

b)

added temperature

c)

added pressure and temperature

d)

none of the above

84.

Florian discovers a rock that is broken into pieces. Each piece has several bands. Which type of rock does Florian predict these pieces will change into when subjected to heat and pressure?

a)

igneous

b)

magma

c)

sedimentary

d)

metamorphic

85.

This image shows the rock cycle. Which event most likely occurs at point K?

a)

cooling

b)

cementing

c)

melting

d)

weathering

86.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
87.

_________ rocks harden into rock layers due to pressure of water and weight of more sediments.

a)

Metamorphic

b)

Igneous

c)

Sedimentary

d)

Volcanic

88.

At which location would heat and pressure occur?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

89.

Which location represents melting magma?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

90.

On sunny summer days, a breeze often develops that blows from large bodies of water toward nearby land masses because the

a)

temperature of the air above the land masses is greater

b)

specific heat of the land masses is greater

c)

temperatures of the bodies of water are greater

d)

air over the bodies of water becomes heavier with additional water vapor

91.

The arrow above the water is coming down and is blue because

a)

the water is warm so it warms the air and warm air sinks.

b)

the water is cold so it warms the air and cool air sinks.

c)

the water is cold so it cools the air and cool air sinks.

d)

the water is warm so it warms the air and cool air sinks.

92.
Where does the initial source of energy come from that creates winds?
a)
the moon
b)
the sun
c)
the Earth's surface
d)
the rotation of the Earth
93.

Which statement correctly defines wind?

a)

The movement of air from areas of low pressure to areas of high pressure

b)

The movement of air to a colder area in the atmosphere.

c)

The movement of air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

d)

The movement of air pushed around and bouncing off Earth's surface.

94.
Wind blows from ______ pressure areas to _____ pressure areas.
a)
high; low
b)
warm; cool
c)
cool; warm
d)
low; high
95.

What causes differences in air pressure?

a)

even heating of the Earth

b)

Even cooling of the earth

c)

uneven heating of the earth

d)

global warming

96.

What is Global Warming?

a)

Increasing temperature in Earth's atmosphere

b)

Decreasing temperature in a city

c)

Increasing rain rates in Earth

d)

Decreasing temperature rates

97.
It was hot all week last week.  Is this a sign of climate change?
a)
Yes
b)
No
98.
Worldwide, temperatures have been increasing for more than 100 years.  Is this evidence of global warming?
a)
yes
b)
no
99.
The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is
a)
using bottled water
b)
burning fossil fuels
c)
texting on cellphones
d)
eating meat
100.
How can global warming cause sea levels to rise? Choose the best answer.
a)

by causing it to rain less often

b)
by melting glaciers and ice caps
c)
by increasing the number of undersea volcanic eruptions
d)
by creating bigger and more powerful hurricanes
101.

How is the greenhouse effect produced?

a)

When solar energy trespasses the atmosphere.

b)

When some energy is reflected back to earth.

c)

When the green house is burned.

d)

When the sun doesn't emit radiation.

102.
The greenhouse gas having the greatest role in human-caused global warming is
a)
methane
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons)
d)
ozone
103.
How do we name air masses?
a)
Water and temperature
b)
Air pressure
c)
Humidity and temperature
d)
Cold and warm
104.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over the ocean?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
105.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over land?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
106.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms over near the equator?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Cold
d)
Warm
107.
How do we characterize an air mass that forms near the poles?
a)
Dry
b)
Wet
c)
Warm
d)
Cold
108.
What types of air masses form over oceans?
a)
Maritime
b)
Continental
c)
Polar
d)
Tropical
109.
What types of air masses form over land?
a)
Maritime
b)
Continental
c)
Polar
d)
Tropical
110.
A cold, dry air mass would be called - 
a)
continental tropic
b)
continental polar
c)
maritime polar
d)
continental maritime
111.
The boundary between two air masses is called a/an - 
a)
flood
b)
front
c)
climate
d)
storm
112.
This is the symbol for which type of front?
a)
cold front
b)
warm front
c)
stationary front
d)
occluded front
113.

Weather fronts usually cause clouds and precipitation

a)

True

b)

False

114.

What type of front does this symbol indicate?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

115.

What type of front does this symbol indicate?

a)

Warm Front

b)

Cold Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

116.

What type of front causes thunderstorms in the summer?

a)

Warm

b)

Cold

c)

Stationary

d)

Occluded

117.

Name that front.

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

118.

Name that front.

a)

Cold Front

b)

Warm Front

c)

Stationary Front

d)

Occluded Front

119.

What kind of weather happens along a Warm Front?

a)

Thunderstroms

b)

Days of Rain!

c)

Nothing

d)

Wind

120.

Earth --- around the Sun.

a)

rotates

b)

revolves

121.

One complete spin on Earth's axis is a ---.

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

122.

It takes Earth ___ to revolve around the sun.

a)

1 day

b)

365 1/4 days

c)

one year

d)

24 hours

123.

At what angle is Earth titled?

a)

90 degrees

b)

23.5 degrees

c)

29 degrees

124.

What season is it in the southern hemisphere when the northern hemisphere is experiencing summer?

a)

summer

b)

spring

c)

winter

d)

fall

125.

When does summer begin in the northern hemisphere?

a)

December 21

b)

March 20

c)

June 21

d)

September 22

126.
Which letter best represents Summer in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
127.
The Earth's _______ is an imaginary line that goes from the North Pole to the South Pole.
a)
vernal equinox
b)
axis
c)
solar eclipse
d)
solar flare
128.
Earth's rotation on its axis is what causes ______________________________.
a)
seasons
b)
moon phases
c)
day and night
d)
weather
129.
As the Earth travels around the Sun, it creates a pattern that makes _____
a)
the months
b)
the years
c)
the seasons
d)
day and night
130.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
131.
Why does the area around the equator stay the same temperature all year?
a)
The equator rotates slower than the poles 
b)
The equator remains the same distance from the sun.
c)
The equator always receives direct sunlight.
d)
The equator has 18 hour days.
132.

If a diagram shows the Earth's movement around the Sun. What is this diagram demonstrating?

a)

day and night

b)

seasons

133.
The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.
a)
23.5
b)
25.3
c)
30.2
d)
24
134.
What happens when the area in which you live tilts away from the sun?
a)
It is summer.
b)
It is spring.
c)
It is winter.
d)
It is fall.
135.

The Earth sits straight up and down (NO TILT).

a)

true

b)

false

136.
At position A, in the Northern hemisphere it would be _____?
a)
Summer
b)
Winter
c)
Spring
d)
Fall
137.

What season in the Northern Hemisphere is represented by this diagram?

a)

Fall

b)

Summer

c)

Winter

d)

Spring

138.

What date is represented by this diagram?

a)

March 21st

b)

September 23rd

c)

June 21st

d)

December 21st

139.

What season in the Northern Hemisphere is represented by this diagram?

a)

Spring

b)

Fall

c)

Summer

d)

Winter

140.

What date is represented by this diagram?

a)

June 21st

b)

March 21st

c)

December 21st

d)

September 23rd

141.

What two seasons would be represented by this diagram?

a)

Spring and Summer

b)

Spring and Winter

c)

Fall and Spring

d)

Fall and Winter

142.

Which location appears to be receiving more direct (and thus intense) insolation?

a)

a

b)

b

143.

What statement best represents this relationship?

a)

As the angle increases, the temperature decreases.

b)

As the angle increases, the temperature increases.

c)

As the angle decreases, the temperature increases.

d)

There is no relationship.

144.

January is when Northern Hemisphere is at closest distance to the Sun. Why Northern Hemisphere experience winter on this month?

a)

Sun is ejecting less solar radiation.

b)

Humans burn less fossil fuels during winter.

c)

Greenhouse effect is lessened during winter months.

d)

Northern Hemisphere is receiving very little solar radiation due to Earth's tilt.

145.

It cause unequal heating of the earth that leads to four seasons

a)

rotation

b)

revolution

c)

tilted Earth

d)

solar radiation

146.

Which type of plate boundary would cause mountains to form?

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

d)

Reform

147.
This layer of Earth is solid Iron and Nickel
a)
Outer Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
148.
The Great Rift Valley in Africa and the Mid-Ocean Ridge were all created by this boundary
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Reform
d)
Transform
149.
What are the two types of crust
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and upper
c)
lower and upper
d)
pizza and subway
150.
Earthquakes and volcanoes are most likely found in which locations?
a)
At plate boundaries
b)
in oceans
c)
in the middle of continents
d)
in the middle of plates
151.
When one plate sides under neath another, it _________ and the magma _________.
a)
hardens, sinks
b)
melts, sinks
c)
hardens, rises
d)
melts, rises
152.
The Himalayas in Asia are an example of what type of plate boundary?
a)
divergent
b)
continent-to-continent convergent
c)
ocean-to-continent convergent
d)
transform
153.
Transform boundaries are most likely to produce what phenomenon?
a)
volcanoes
b)
deep sea trenches
c)
underwater mountain ranges
d)
earthquakes
154.
When an oceanic plate and a continental plate collide, which one will subduct?
a)
oceanic
b)
continental
c)
neither
155.
What is this image...
a)
Revolving boundary
b)
San Andreas (Transform)
c)
Convergent
156.
Two tectonic plates collide at a _______ plate boundary.
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
transform
157.
The area where two tectonic plates meet.
a)
mantle
b)
focus
c)
plate boundary
d)
convection
158.
This landform can occur at a divergent plate boundary.
a)
ocean trench
b)
mid-ocean ridge
c)
tall mountains
d)
transform fault
159.
What is the name of the plate boundary that slides past each other?
a)
Divergent
b)
Convergent
c)
Transform
d)
Mr. C the Slide Man
160.
Which of these events can ONLY happen on a DIVERGENT BOUNDARY?
a)
Rift Valley
b)
Mountain
c)
A peninsula
d)
An Insanely complex, long answer that you will click out of instinct. 
161.

Which of the following choices best describes the diagram?

a)

This is a divergent boundary between two continental plates.

b)

This is a divergent boundary demonstrating sea floor spreading.

c)

This is a convergent boundary resulting in the subduction of one plate under the other.

d)

This is a transform boundary where an Earthquake will occur.

162.

According to the diagram, why did a volcano form?

a)

A continental plate melted and subducted under an ocean plate.

b)

An oceanic plate melted and subducted under a continental plate.

c)

Two plates of equal density collided and created a mountain.

d)

An oceanic plate diverged from a continental plate.

163.

Organize these options into the right categories.

Categorize the following

Two plates separate from one another

Two plates collide

Two plates sliding past each other

Results in valleys

Results in mountains

Results in volcanoes

Results in Earthquakes

Creates new oceanic crust via sea floor spreading

Where subduction occurs

Divergent Boundary
Convergent Boundary
Transform Boundary
164.

What type of plate boundary is responsible for the creation of new crust?

a)

Transform

b)

Convergent

c)

Divergent

d)

None of the above

165.

What is the process called when an oceanic plate subducts beneath a continental plate?

a)

Convection

b)

Subduction

c)

Divergence

d)

Convergence

166.

What is the result of a divergent boundary between two oceanic plates?

a)

Formation of mountains

b)

Formation of deep sea trenches

c)

Formation of a new sea floor

d)

Formation of earthquakes

167.

What is the result of the collision between two continental plates?

a)

Formation of a deep sea trench

b)

Formation of a mountain range

c)

Subduction of one plate

d)

Both plates are destroyed

168.

What happens at a CONVERGENT BOUNDARY between an oceanic and a continental plate?

a)

The oceanic plate subducts and forms a trench

b)

The continental plate subducts and forms a mountain range

c)

Both plates move sideways

d)

Both plates move apart

169.

What type of plate boundary is represented by the San Andreas Fault?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

d)

None of the above

170.

What happens at a convergent boundary between two continental plates?

a)

Formation of deep sea trenches

b)

Formation of a new sea floor

c)

Formation of mountains

d)

Formation of earthquakes

171.

What is the primary cause of plate tectonics?

a)

Gravitational forces

b)

Convection currents in the mantle

c)

Rotation of the Earth

d)

Magnetic field of the Earth

172.

What happens when an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate?

a)

Both plates are destroyed

b)

Formation of a mountain range

c)

Subduction of the oceanic plate

d)

Formation of a deep sea trench

173.

Match the following

a)
1.

divergent

b)
2.

convergent

c)
3.

transform

174.

The formation of Philippine achipelago is the result of the ___________?

a)

Continental-oceanic convergence

b)

Continental-Continental Convergence

c)

Oceanic-Oceanic Convergence

d)

Oceanic-Continental Convergence

175.

Match the landform that is found at each boundary

a)

Continental-continental convergent

1.

Mountains

b)

Continental-oceanic convergent

2.

Continental volcano arc

c)

Oceanic-oceanic convergent

3.

Volcanic island arc

d)

Continental-continental divergent

4.

Rift valley

e)

Oceanic-oceanic divergent

5.

Mid-ocean ridge

176.
According to Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift, 
a)
Earth's surface is made up of seven major landmasses
b)
the continents DO NOT move
c)
Earth is slowly cooling and shrinking
d)
the continents were once joined together in a single landmass
177.
What type of evidence was NOT used by Alfred Wegener to support his continental drift hypothesis?
a)
evidence from landforms
b)
evidence from fossils
c)
evidence from human remains
d)
evidence from climate
178.
What discovery caused scientists to rethink Wegener's continental drift theory?
a)
discovery of earthquake activity in California
b)
discovery of the ring of fire in the Pacific Ocean
c)
discovery of seafloor spreading in the Atlantic Ocean
d)
discovery of deep trenches off the coast of South America
179.
Which of the following is evidence that supports continental drift?
a)
the presence of penguins at both the equator and Antarctica
b)
fossils of the same plant have been found on several continents
c)
the presence of glacial features in Antarctica
d)
the presence of volcanic rock in Antarctica
180.
Investigation of seafloor spreading showed what about the age of the seafloor?
a)
the oldest seafloor is at the ridge
b)
youngest seafloor is destroyed at the ridge
c)
youngest seafloor is farthest from the ridge
d)
oldest seafloor is farthest from the ridge