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WorksheetsĐề 8 (701-822)
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 4hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
During the completion of work packages, the sponsor requires the PM to report on project progress. To prepare the report, PM asks members to report their work completion percentage. In the team there is a "difficult" member. Responding to the PM's request, he asked again: "Percent completion of what?". Tired of such statements, the PM reported to that member's boss that he had a cooperative attitude. Which of the following is the real problem?
a)
the project manager did not get buy-in from the manager for the resources on the project
b)
the project did not create and adequate reward system for team members to improve their cooperation
c)
the project manager should have had a meeting with the team member's boss the first time the team member caused trouble.
d)
The project manager does not have work packages.
2.
All of the following statements about change control are false except:
a)
The contract must include procedures to accommodate changes
b)
More detailed specifications will reduce the cause of variation
c)
A price-adjusted contract minimizes change control
d)
Changes rarely provide real benefits to the project
3.
A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:
a)
you're going over budget,
b)
You're ahead of schedule
c)
you've only accomplished 76 percent of your original plan,
d)
You have only accomplished 24 percent of your original plan
4.
When should the project scope review be completed?
a)
End of project
b)
Start project
c)
At the end of each phase of the project
d)
Throughout the planning process
5.
What is the key (key) subject in negotiation?
a)
Achieve acceptable and reasonable prices
b)
Negotiate price below seller's estimate
c)
Make sure all project risks are clearly outlined
d)
Make sure there is proper connection management in place
6.
During the risk management process, when is the determination to transfer a risk made?
a)
Identify risks
b)
Qualitative risk analysis
c)
Plan to respond to risks
d)
Monitor and control risks
7.
You worked on a very large software development project that required more than 230 people. Finally, all scopes done, it will be good for:
a)
A party for members.
b)
Make sure this project is integrated with other projects
c)
Start focusing on your other projects
d)
Analyze project success or failure
8.
A rough order of magnitude estimate is performed during which phase of the project management process team?
a)
Project planning
b)
Project finished
c)
Project execution
d)
Project creation
9.
How close should the final budget estimate be to actual costs?
a)
From -75% to 25%;
b)
From -10% to 15%
c)
From 10% to -25%;
d)
From -5% to 10%.
10.
The project manager ensures that the project deliverables have been completed according to the project management plan. So what stage of the project management process is he in?
a)
planning. planning
b)
executing
c)
monitoring and controlling
d)
closing (monitoring and controlling)
11.
What is the most appropriate way to determine project timing before implementation?
a)
The project manager performs all estimates.
b)
Combine individual estimates
c)
Get expert estimates.
d)
There is no way to determine the period
12.
A project is almost completed. The project is not on schedule by 300 (time units) and is not on cost by 900 (cost units). But one of the quality management checks has been completed and the quality requirements of the components have been met. All qualities in the quality record have been addressed. Sponsor calls to prepare a product verification meeting when the customer announce that they want to make a major change in the scope of the project. What to do:
a)
It is necessary to meet with the project team to see if changes can be made
b)
Ask the customer to provide a description of the change
c)
Explain to the customer that changes cannot be made at this point in the process
d)
Notify the manager
13.
An experienced project manager just started work for a large IT integrator. Their manager provided them with a draft project charter and immediately asked her provide a risk analysis of the project. Which of the following would best assist in this endeavor?
a)
An article from PMNetword magazine
b)
A project scope statement from the project planning process
c)
Resource plan from the project planning process
d)
An exchange with members from similar failed projects in the past
14.
The WBS and WBS dictionary have been completed. The project team is embarking on identifying risks. The sponsor contacts the project director, requesting a code to assign responsibility. The project has a budget of $100,000 and is located in 3 countries with a staff of 14 people. There are some anticipated risks to this project and the project manager has managed many similar projects. What should I do next?
a)
understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects (understand the experience of the sponsor on similar projects)
b)
create an activity list (build an activity table)
c)
make sure the project scope í defined (make sure the project scope has been defined)
d)
complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix (complete risk management and issue the responsibility assignment matrix)
15.
Which of the following techniques is used to monitor project risks?
a)
Probability and influence matrix
b)
Pareto chart
c)
R chart.
d)
PERT Analysis (Project Review and Evaluation Technique).
16.
A digital WBS system allows project staff.
a)
Calculate the costs of elements in the WBS
b)
Provides project editing
c)
Determines the levels at which word parts are found
d)
Use it in software management
17.
While working on a project in progress, the project manager overheard two employees arguing about a set of instructions. The project manager investigated and discovered that the set of instructions for foundation construction The concrete being poured is poorly translated between the different languages being used on the project. Which of the following would be best for the project manager to do first?
a)
Have the instructions translated by a more experienced party
b)
Find poor quality translation instructions for nails
c)
Bring the problem to the group's attention and ask them to consider other translation issues
d)
Inform sponsors of issues in the next project report
18.
Team members, scheduled tasks and training plans are part of...
a)
Project plan.
b)
Project regulations.
c)
Traditional plan.
d)
Work detail structure (WBS)
19.
Your employee is 3 days late in submitting the report. 5 minutes before the meeting where the topic of the report will be discussed, she gives you the report. You realize there are serious errors in it. What should you do?
a)
Cancel the meeting and reschedule it when the report is fixed
b)
Go to the meeting and tell the audience about the errors in the report
c)
Make the employee do the presentation and stay silent as the other attendees look for errors
d)
Cancel the meeting and rewrite the report yourself
20.
Which of the following is a product of the project initiation process?
a)
Project plan with allocated resources
b)
Project regulations
c)
WBS (Work detail structure).
d)
List tasks
21.
A project manager is assigned a new project and is given a preliminary report on the project scope and project charter. The first thing the PM needs to do is:
a)
Create a project scope statement
b)
Confirm that all stakeholders have had input into the project scope
c)
Project risk analysis
d)
Start work with a project management plan
22.
A member of the research and development team tells you that her work is too innovative to give you a fixed single estimate for this activity. You decide to use the labor hours from both past projects and future predictions. This is an example of which of the following?
a)
Parameter estimation
b)
Estimated 3 points
c)
Similarity estimates
d)
Monte Carlo analysis
23.
project manager (PM) is assigned to manage four of the company's projects and is being considered to join the project's office management team. The following is his work history. The first project had a cost variance of -500, used 2 critical resources, was needed to rework parts of the project during project execution, and had the company's 14th priority. . The second project ended up with a deadline deviation of +100, was completed with the original deadline shortened, and received a letter of commendation from the sponsor, but the project's product was unusable. The third project had 23% more changes than expected, had an SPI of 0.90 and 25 open files in question to log in when the project was completed. Each project had a budget of $1,000 and had between 20% up to 28% change compared to expectations. Which of the following descriptions best explains why this occurs?
a)
The project manager can only manage low priority projects and he shortens the deadline and this shows that he does not have the working skills in project office management.
b)
Log issues should not be used on a project of this scale, shows he has no skills as a project manager
c)
An ineffective PM (including stakeholders), shows that he has no knowledge in project management
d)
The project manager has 2 key resources on his team and still needs to repeat stages during the project execution, demonstrating that he is not skilled in the office management of the project.
24.
You should always ask your manager to reduce your project estimate by almost 10% after you receive it from the manager. The scope of your new project is unclear and there are 30 stakeholders. Management expects a 25% reduction in wasted time on the project. What action do you choose that is best in this situation?
a)
Provides an accurate estimate of actual price and support
b)
Replan to try to reach 35% to improve wasted time
c)
Reduce estimates and notice changes in the risk management plan
d)
Meet with the entire project team to determine how you can save 10% of your time
25.
Output of the risk response plan:
a)
Remaining risks
b)
Identified risks
c)
List of prioritized risks
d)
Identified effects
26.
All of the following are inputs to the risk management process, EXCEPT:
a)
Historical information
b)
Lessons Learned
c)
Wbs
d)
Project status report
27.
Of all the conflicts that can occur on a project, which ones are most detrimental to team results and performance?
a)
Conflicts within the council
b)
Personal conflicts
c)
Technical compromises
d)
Schedule conflicts
28.
The project team is close to the final part of the build and ready to test the entire application. What type of testing will they perform?
a)
UAT (User Acceptance Testing).
b)
Module
c)
Unit.
d)
System.
29.
project manager estimates the average time to solve a schedule network analysis. Which of the following types of analysis is used?
a)
Create path method
b)
PERT
c)
Monte Carlo
d)
Resource balance
30.
The salesman noticed a contract to build a straight line. Each stage and condition requires it's work plan to be allocated to accept priority for the customer to start work, however the sales person made an error. What customers need to do is:
a)
Grants a default open letter
b)
Arrange a letter of intent
c)
Plan work and assign customers to move things along
d)
Stop the sale until a repair plan is established.
31.
You are managing a project for 6 months and holding meetings with stakeholders every 2 weeks. After 5 and a half months of work, the project is on schedule and on budget but stakeholders are not satisfied. with the product situation. This situation will delay project completion by 1 month. The most important thing that can be used to prevent this situation is:
a)
Monitor and control risks
b)
Progress control
c)
Plan scope
d)
Range control
32.
You take over a project that has been underway for about three months. The project manager previously asked the project team to provide weekly estimates as the project progressed. The project plan shows five phases and 1,000 tasks. The first phase has ended and there are 800 unfinished tasks. Of the 800 unfinished tasks, 200 tasks are 50% complete. Which statement about project status is correct?
a)
The project is about 20% complete
b)
The project is about 30% complete
c)
The project is about 25% complete
d)
Remaining effort estimates and planned completion data need to be gathered for an accurate estimate of project status.
33.
When is risk resolution identified in the risk management process?
a)
Identify risks
b)
Qualitative risk analysis C. Risk response planning
c)
Plan to meet risks
d)
Monitor and control risks
34.
In what part of the sales process will contract negotiations take place?
a)
Select seller
b)
Purchase and acquisition plans
c)
signed plan
d)
Ask for seller feedback
35.
A new development product has four levels of job decomposition and is used according to the arrow model method. Operation time estimate has been received. The next thing to do is
a)
Create a sequence of activities
b)
Start decomposing work
c)
Complete scheduling
d)
Compress the schedule
36.
Contractors are known as 1 part of
a)
Ask the seller to respond
b)
project contract
c)
management contract
d)
Procurement and acquisition planning
37.
project that created some problems, but now seems to be under control. During the final months of the project almost all of the reserves were used up and most of the negative impacts of that event were predicted to have occurred. It had only four activities left and two of the that is on the critical path. Critical management now informs the project manager that if possible it is in the best interest of the performing organization to complete the project two weeks earlier than expected to receive an additional profit.In response, the project manager sends the request for proposals to some of the work groups already employed, in the hope that another company may be able to serve as the task manager. project quickly. The project manager can be said to try to work with: THIS SENTENCE IS VERY BAD BUT DOESN'T KNOW HOW TO TRANSLATE IT FULLY
a)
Opportunity
b)
Reserved
c)
Test scope
d)
Threat
38.
Post-contract reviews are important because:
a)
They are legally required in many jurisdictions
b)
Remuneration is tied to the contractor's performance
c)
They establish the historical basis for the contractor's choice
d)
Most contracts require them
39.
A project performed under a reimbursable cost contract has finally reached the closing phase. Buyers must remember
a)
Consider the seller's cost agreement
b)
Reduce project risk level
c)
Evaluate the fees being paid
d)
Make sure sellers don't get additional resources
40.
Identifying and managing critical paths is vital to project success because:
a)
Aligning employees with leadership and values will affect the quality of work projects
b)
Cost optimization or cost acceleration in the critical path is higher than the cost of any other project activity
c)
Operations on the critical path do not have any time delay
d)
The start date must be calculated by working backwards from finish to start
41.
What is the duration of a milestone?
a)
Shorter than the duration of the longest activity
b)
Shorter than the activity it represents
c)
There is no time period
d)
By the time of activity it represents
42.
Program streams are an example of any type of project selection criteria:
a)
Limit optimization
b)
Almost relative
c)
Measurement is beneficial
d)
Analyze impacts
43.
Negotiations between the two sides are becoming more complicated, so side A makes a few terms for both sides to sign. In addition, when the work is being done, side B wishes that they are not required to must provide additional items that they mutually agree on during the negotiation process because it is not included in the next contract. In this case, Party B is:
a)
Usually that's true, because both parties are only required to perform what's in the contract
b)
is not right because both parties must follow what they agreed to
c)
right because that's 1 offer
d)
is often incorrect, because uniformities must be maintained
44.
You are in the middle of developing a new product for your company when you discover that the previous manager made a payment of $3 million that was not approved according to company policies. Fortunately, the project's cost productivity index CPI is 1.2. What should you do
a)
Contact your manager
b)
Place payouts in an escrow account (??)
c)
Bury and hide costs
d)
Refuse payment
45.
The implementing organization is trying to decide to divide the contracting departments and assign responsibility to the department directly responsible for the project's professional contracts. A contracting professional may not want this division to occur because they would lose...in a decentralized contracting environment
a)
reach out to others with similar expertise
b)
Standardize corporate project management practices
c)
Be loyal to the project
d)
experience
46.
The cost of renting a room to be used for a project meeting is an example of which type of expense?
a)
Inevitable costs
b)
Fixed costs
c)
Costs fluctuate
d)
Costs are not expected
47.
In an effort to complete the project faster, the project manager considers the costs associated with crashing each activity. The BEST approach to crashing will also include considering:
a)
risk of impact of crashing each activity
b)
Customer comments including activities leading to collapse (to crash).
c)
The opinion of the boss in which activities lead to collapse and order in it
d)
The project lifecycle phase in which this activity is intended.
48.
If the probability of a risk occurring in 1 month is 20%, and the project lasts 5 months, the probability that a risk may occur in the 4th month of the project is ?
a)
Less than 1%
b)
20%
c)
60%
d)
80%
49.
The seller's project manager's supervisor told her that the project would do whatever it could to get the bonus. The main purpose of the incentive clause in the contract was:
a)
Discount for buyers
b)
Help sellers adjust prices
c)
Unify goals.
d)
Reduce the seller's risk by transferring the risk to the buyer
50.
Which of the following is best for a project manager to respond to a salesperson's requests during the sales management process?
a)
Answer sellers' questions about auction records
b)
Assess the risks
c)
Confirmation of consent has been sent
d)
Confirm contract changes have been made
51.
Quality control is:
a)
Monitor specific project results to determine whether they comply with relevant quality standards
b)
Evaluate overall project results on a regular basis
c)
Works to increase project effectiveness and efficiency.
d)
Determine what quality standards are relevant to the project.
52.
What is the final key phase of the project?
a)
Turn around
b)
Complete.
c)
Acceptance.
d)
Browser.
53.
All of the following elements are parts of a change control system:
a)
A.Procedures
b)
B. Reporting standards
c)
C. Meetings
d)
D. Training sessions (Lessons learned)
54.
State the project scope in which project management process is created?
a)
Initialization
b)
Planning
c)
Enforcement
d)
Supervision and management
55.
The cost performance index (CPI) of a project is 0.6 and the planning performance index (SPI) is 0.71. This project has 625 work packages and is completed within a period of 4 years. The team members were very inexperienced and the project received very little support for proper planning. Which of the following is best to do:
a)
Update risk analysis and identification
b)
Spend a lot of time increasing estimated costs
c)
Convert possible work packages
d)
Reorganize the responsibility assignment matrix
56.
During project planning, you estimate the time required for each activity and then add estimates to create project estimates. You commit to completing the project by this date. What is Wrong with this scenario
a)
Teams do not generate estimates, and estimates are too long using that method
b)
Teams do not create estimates and network diagrams are not used.
c)
The estimate is too long and needs to be created by management
d)
Estimate the project completion time to be the same as the time requested by the customer
57.
When do poor decisions occur during the project life cycle?
a)
After product acceptance testing takes place.
b)
As soon as a defect is discovered.
c)
Any time during the project lifecycle prior to delivery as defined in the project plan.
58.
Necessary tasks in preparation at the finishing stage are
a)
Browse projects
b)
Risk assessment.
c)
Change control
d)
Configuration management.
59.
As part of your record keeping system, you try to ensure that all sales records are documented and indexed. Which of the following do you not have to worry about?
a)
Negotiation process
b)
Request
c)
State the problem
d)
Terms and condition
60.
When does defect resolution take place in the project life cycle?
a)
Before each important milestone
b)
After product acceptance testing takes place
c)
As soon as the defect is discovered
d)
Any time during the project lifecycle prior to delivery as defined in the project plan
61.
PM is expecting a solution from a member's e-mail today. At the end of the day, this PM contacted the team member because the email had not been received. The employee apologized and said he could not send the letter, and that it would be sent by mail. This employee explained that he informed the PM about this incident during a phone call while the PM was traveling and the PM could not hear clearly because the signal there was weak, what could have avoided this problem? ?
a)
parallel communication
b)
Add to record after phone call
c)
Pay better attention to identifying communication requirements
d)
feedback in the media
62.
The output of the management end is generated by
a)
Project archive
b)
Project regulations
c)
Project management plan
d)
Risk analysis plan
63.
What does a resource diagram show that a responsibility assignment matrix does not?
a)
a. time
b)
. work
c)
relationship
d)
person in charge of each activity
64.
The main functions of the change management board are:
a)
Review the impact of change requests.
b)
Make a change request.
c)
Presents the highest management benefits
d)
Identify new scopes of project work.
65.
The new project director took over the project from the old project director during the project implementation period. The previous project director created the project budget, identified communication requirements and gradually completed the package. job. What should the new project manager do next?
a)
Combine implementation of work packages
b)
Determine quality standards
c)
Start identifying risks
d)
Implement the project management plan
66.
A response to a risk event whose occurrence is not predetermined is called:
a)
Risk mitigation response
b)
Rapid response
c)
Corrective active response
d)
Preventive response
67.
Detailed project scheduling is performed only after which of the following is completed?
a)
project budget
b)
WBS
c)
Project management plan (project management plan)
d)
Detailed risk assessment (detailed risk assessment)
68.
Which factors have the greatest influence on the actual timing of project tasks?
a)
Mission costs.
b)
Resource capabilities
c)
Historical information.
d)
Pioneers and achievers
69.
Adjusting task schedules to deploy human resources more effectively is known as:
a)
Accelerate resources
b)
Download resources
c)
Optimize resources
d)
Adjust resources
70.
Who is the project driver in the project management planning process?
a)
PM
b)
Team member
c)
Functional manager (functional manager)
d)
Sponsor (sponsor)
71.
The high-level scheduling constraints have just been defined, so which process group are you in?
a)
initialization
b)
planning. planning
c)
executing
d)
monitoring and controlling
72.
The project manager publishes the project plan. Activities, start times, end times, and resources are identified. What should the PM do next?
a)
Distribute project plans based on the communication management plan
b)
Confirm resource availability
c)
Improve project management plans to reflect more accurate pricing information
d)
Publish a chart illustrating the timeline
73.
With a clear contract of work, the seller has completed the work according to regulations but the buyer is not satisfied with the results. The contract is considered:
a)
Disabled
b)
Not completed
c)
Complete
d)
Exempted
74.
If a project has a 60% chance of gaining $100,000 and a 40% chance of losing $100,000, then the expected monetary value for the project is:
a)
Profit 100000
b)
Lost 60000
c)
Profit 20000
d)
Lost 40000
75.
The project has just started and includes 14 people in different departments. The contract is signed by one person and includes more than 30 key requirements that must be met on the project. The sponsors notify the project manager SPI teeth must be kept between 0.95 and 1.1. Few minutes survey results of 34 deposit holders and limited project progress goals. A project manager has just been hired. Which of the following types of project management authority best helps a project manager gain the cooperation of others?
a)
Official
b)
Refer
c)
Penalty
d)
Expert
76.
You need to complete the initiation process of a small project and may make changes throughout the planning process as project stakeholders ask you about the project's cost and cost baseline. You need to tell them:
a)
The project budget can be given in the project's mission statement, which needs to be completed immediately.
b)
The project budget and cost baseline cannot be completed and accepted unless the planning process is completed.
c)
The project management plan will not include the project budget and cost baseline; It's a small project
d)
It cannot happen or be completed before the project management plan is created.
77.
At which project management process group is the budget breakdown produced?
a)
Initiating
b)
Before the project management process (before the project management process)
c)
Planning
d)
Executing
78.
During the construction of the approved project, the project manager realized that the project scope was not properly defined, causing significant cost increases and delinquent deliverables. The project manager requests a meeting with project stakeholders to inform them of the required scope variance. The project manager should best approach the scope variance for this project as how?
a)
Prepare a new detailed work structure indicating the time required for project completion and the new required budget
b)
Notify project stakeholders of required budget and schedule changes, reduce additional costs with a contingency plan in place, and obtain written approval for changes request
c)
Inform project stakeholders about the required time and budget needed to complete the project along with financial evidence such as Earned Value Analysis, ROI (Return on Investment) and schedule fluctuations
d)
Identify cost and schedule variances and request approval of requested changes.
79.
Which statement describes the factual basis for establishing and predicting project goals?
a)
Milestones are established in the plan and should not be moved
b)
Milestones are goals that are reset whenever the project critical path changes.
c)
The project should be planned to take into account the go or no-go decision points and begin with the completion of key deliverables.
d)
Completion of the systems analysis phase, which identifies more requirements than originally expected, should not cause any changes to the project budget.
80.
Project managers do not have much time for planning before the project start date (fixed, mandatory). Therefore, he wants to carry out the planning phase as efficiently as possible. Which of the following should be done?
a)
Make sure you have completed the preliminary project scope statement and then start working on the WBS
b)
Create an activity list before creating a network diagram
c)
Document all known risks before documenting high-level assumptions
d)
D.complete the quality management plan before defining the quality matrix
81.
project manager is assigned to a large project that has been in progress a number of times. The project team has just completed the design phase of the project and is underway in the implementation phase. At this point, what changes can be made without running the risk of redoing the entire design phase?
a)
Limit
b)
Mission
c)
Detailed design
d)
Transfer date
82.
Contract termination is similar to management termination in that they both relate to:
a)
Product verification
b)
kickkoff meeting
c)
Quality assurance activities
d)
Scope planning
83.
Project communications plans are often closely related to:
a)
Organize planning.
b)
Build funding
c)
Identify project related objects.
d)
Resource planning
84.
You're on a project when you discover your company's vendor's software is difficult for employees and leads to internal debate. Many projects in your company also use the above service. What should you do?
a)
Tell another project manager in your company about this internal issue
b)
Try to keep everyone's requests in the project
c)
Contact the company and advise that you will cancel that work in the project unless the company has agreed on an internal debate (too difficult to translate).
d)
Stop doing business with the company
85.
Which of the following is an advantage of similarity estimation?
a)
The estimate will be closer to the actual work required.
b)
It is based on a detailed understanding of what the job requires
c)
It helps team members understand what the manager needs
d)
It helps managers determine whether it fits the schedule or not.
86.
Effective project integration often requires one key element:
a)
A.The individual development process of each team member
b)
B.Timely updates on the project management plan
c)
C.Effective communication at key interface points
d)
D.Product control
87.
Change approval jobs are 1 input:
a)
A.Range control and range verification
b)
B.Direct, manage project implementation and control integrated change
c)
C.Develop the project management plan and develop the project charter
d)
D.Develop project management plan and development schema
88.
Why is complete user sign-off part of a quality management plan?
a)
To ensure that the project complies with the user's budget constraints
b)
To ensure that the project complies with user expectations as it relates to product quality
c)
Complete user signing is not part of the quality management plan
d)
To ensure that users do not submit change requests late in the project.
89.
In a project, quality should normally be of:
a)
Equal schedule priority but higher priority than cost
b)
Priority is higher than cost and schedule
c)
Give equal priority to cost but higher priority than schedule
d)
Prioritize cost and schedule equally
90.
What type of costs are project team training costs?
a)
Direct
b)
NPV
c)
Indirect
d)
Permanent
91.
The first step in the project completion phase is:
a)
Complete the contract.
b)
User consent
c)
Final document.
d)
Lessons learned
92.
The project manager received a call from a team member, noting that there was a conflict between the speed of the system in the project and the desired speed (or target speed). If the project manager then evaluates whether the conflict needs to be dealt with, what phase of the project management process is he in?
a)
initialization
b)
executing
c)
monitoring and controlling
d)
closing (monitoring and controlling)
93.
The project team is arguing about the potential vendor who submitted the proposals. One team member advocates for a certain vendor while the rest want the project to go to another vendor. What part of the buying and selling process does this?
a)
Select seller
b)
Purchase and acquisition plans
c)
signed plan
d)
Ask for seller feedback
94.
Which of the following best describes the use of historical documents from previous projects?
a)
A.Estimating, life cycle costs and project planning
b)
B. Manage risks, estimate and initiate training sessions
c)
C. Project management plan, estimate and create a status report
d)
D.Estimating, risk management and project planning
95.
If the probability of a risk occurring is 90% and the possible loss is $10,000, what is $9,000?
a)
Risk value
b)
Present value
c)
Monetary value has been excluded
d)
Contingency budget
96.
During the scheduled weekly project team meeting, an issue emerges that cannot be resolved within the time frame of the scheduled meeting. If this issue is not resolved it could cause the project to be suspended. What is the best action the project manager should follow to solve this problem?
a)
Continue the meeting later than scheduled until the issue is resolved
b)
Continue the meeting according to the company's conflict resolution policy
c)
End the meeting on time, investigate the issue thoroughly, and focus on the issue in the next weekly project meeting
d)
End the meeting on time and arrange another meeting to resolve the issue
97.
Your project has just been quickly drawn up and you are looking for a subcontractor to complete the partnership quickly. There is no time to put out a request for proposals, so you choose a company that has previously You have cooperated many times for software development. One main concern in this regard is:
a)
Subcontractors have professional qualifications
b)
collusion between subcontractors
c)
Subcontractors are the evaluation standard
d)
Organize a contractor conference
98.
The project management plan should be implemented in project management. Which of the following methods is used to achieve realism in project management?
a)
The sponsor outlines the project management plan based on input from the project manager
b)
Functional management is created in the project management plan based on input from the project manager
c)
Project managers create project management plans based on input from higher-level management
d)
The project manager creates the project management plan based on input from the project team
99.
You are working on a construction project. The steel structure and electrical cables make the program director worried that it will not meet quality standards. What will you do in this case?
a)
Assure the program director that during the quality management planning process, quality standards have been met.
b)
Estimate results from similar projects
c)
Establish a quality management team
d)
Check the results of the quality management plan
100.
Which of the following statements best describes bottom-up estimation?
a)
It is the simplest method to estimate costs in a project with many similarities to other successful projects
b)
It requires the planner to use as much detail as possible to divide the project into work packages small enough to allow accurate cost estimates.
c)
It can be described superficially in a Program Review and Review Technique or a Gantt chart.
d)
It entails that a single activity or event has interdependencies with respect to its predecessor, successor, as well as parallel activities or events.
101.
You must work online. There are 30 branches in the US and 20 in the UK. A software seller has a product that is upgraded for the devices being installed. The upgrade will provide customers with the functionality they require, which was not available at the start of the project. The best action in the situations below
a)
Indicates customer upgrades and impact on project timing and functionality
b)
Keep planning, your customers aren't asking for change
c)
Implementing change and scheduling is necessary because this requires customer support
d)
Implement changes to maintain sites and continue with scheduling work
102.
In your risk management plan, you discover 434 risks and 16 main causes of those risks. The project is the final stage of a series of projects on which the team works together. Sponsor very supportive and many times spent a lot of time to ensure the project was completed and signed off by stakeholders. During the project plan, the team could not discover the best way to alleviate or ensure against risks ro. It is not a job that can be outsourced and cannot be eliminated. What is the best solution?
a)
Take risks
b)
Continue to investigate to reduce risks
c)
Find ways to reduce risks
d)
Find ways to transfer risk
103.
What methods are effective in resolving conflicts?
a)
Problem solving
b)
Force
c)
Compromise
d)
Withdraw
104.
In preparing your risk response you identify traditional risks. What should you do?
a)
Add project archives to mitigate new risks and manage notifications
b)
Record the types of risks and calculate the expected monetary value based on the probability and impact of the events occurring.
c)
Identify the risk events and associated costs then add that cost to the project budget as an estimate.
d)
Randomly add 10% to the project budget and notify the customer
105.
Which of the following is an effective result of the change management process?
a)
Minimize productivity loss throughout the project
b)
Absolutely prohibit any scope changes throughout the entire project
c)
Encourage frequent changes throughout the project lifecycle
d)
Balance between project risks and costs
106.
The project was implemented well according to budget; However, to accommodate customer transfers, the delivery date to customers will be delayed by 2 weeks. There are no additional resources assigned to the project. What should a project manager do?
a)
Change the scope of customer specifications to deliver the product on the promised delivery date
b)
Notify customers of missed deadlines and seek appropriate documented support.
c)
Follow the change process outlined in the project regulations
d)
When the project is within budget, you don't have to do anything.
107.
1 Pm asks stakeholders to determine the frequency and impact of risks. He then analyzes the hypotheses and moves to the next step of risk management. Based on this information, the PM What did he forget to do?
a)
Calculating trends in risk analysis
b)
Identify triggers
c)
Provides a standard risk index matrix
d)
Create a backup plan
108.
A seller is working with a cost-reimbursement contract when the customer decides they want to expand the scope of fixed-price change services. These are the options the seller should use, except:
a)
Start over with a new contract
b)
Complete the initial work at the base return price and then negotiate a fixed price for additional work
c)
Complete initial work and refuse additional work
d)
Negotiate a fixed price contract that covers all the work
109.
Which one of the following processes is most important for meeting quality management objectives?
a)
Careful assessment
b)
Trend analysis.
c)
Quality verification
d)
Planning.
110.
Conflict resolution techniques that can be used in a project include confronting, smoothing, forcing and
a)
Withdraw
b)
Instruct
c)
Organization
d)
Control
111.
Corresponding official documents for customers are required upon request
a)
errors are detected
b)
The customer requests additional work not included in the contract
c)
The project has a sliding schedule that includes significant changes in the project
d)
Project costs exceed allowable costs
112.
From a project perspective, quality attributes:
a)
Determine the effectiveness of the organization in project support implementation
b)
Provides guidance on the ultimate success or failure of a project
c)
A special point for which the product is designed and tested
d)
These are objective criteria that must be met
113.
The following are examples of inappropriate costs except:
a)
Redo
b)
Quality training
c)
Remove
d)
Maintenance cost
114.
Project managers will identify risks in their projects. Some risks exceed their expectations, but they still expect the risks to be among the risks listed previously. This may how to practice?
a)
Use Monte Carlo analysis using the Internet as a tool
b)
Apply the limit line method
c)
Identify options for recommended corrective actions
d)
Apply the Delphi technique
115.
project manager (PM) overhears a conversation between two stakeholders who are talking about their unhappiness with the effects on their department. A says: if this project goes through on time and B answers: SPI is 1.05. Party A asked if the project PM knew about B's involvement. B replied: "He can't guarantee". In this case, what should PM do best?
a)
Let A and B know the PM overheard this conversation and ask them to address any questions directly
b)
Hold a meeting with all stakeholders to inform them of the current status of the project
c)
Send A and B a copy of the logs and ask them to write comments
d)
Organize a meeting with A and B to allow them to voice their problems
116.
You are asked to choose tools and techniques to implement a quality assurance program that adds some quality control activities. What will you choose?
a)
CHeck quality
b)
test statistical samples
c)
pareto chart
d)
trend analysis
117.
One of the common ways to calculate the estimate at completion (EAC-Estimate At Completion) is to take the budget at the time of completion (BAC-Budget At Completion) and
a)
divided by SPI
b)
Multiply by SPI
c)
Multiply by CPI
d)
divided by CPI
118.
Choosing a team is not just a function of finding people who are technical or administrative experts. What should a project sponsor leading a highly transparent project expect from a project manager?
a)
Developing key personnel
b)
Leading technical experts.
c)
Communicate with customers/sponsors.
d)
Analyze skills
119.
An information technology project manager is selected for a software package project with a specific deadline and quality requirements. The customer emphasized a few times how important software quality was and they limited their technical support staff. IT project managers realize that quality is extremely important. What basic structural activities can be implemented to ensure that quality is most assuredly achieved?
a)
Plan into a project
b)
Build a careful structure for quality control.
c)
Try to do the best job possible.
d)
Conduct activities surrounding quality.
120.
Conflict resolution techniques that can be used in a project include confrontation, negotiation, and obliging
a)
Withdrawal/Withdrawal
b)
Command
c)
Organization
d)
Organization
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