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WX 201 Final Exam

Total questions: 190

Worksheet time: 2hrs 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The temperature of the tropopause --.

a)

is nearly the same as the sun's temperature.

b)

is much warmer than the temperature at Earth's surface.

c)

is much colder than the temperature at Earth's surface.

d)

can never be measured.

e)

mirrors the temperature of Earth’s oceans.

2.

Climate models predict that, by the end of this century, increasing concentrations of greenhouse gases will result in an additional global warming that could be as much as several degrees Celsius.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Where the air is humid, haze and cloudiness lower the maximum temperature by preventing some of the sun’s rays from reaching the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Suppose the dew point of outside air is the same as the dew point of the air indoors. If the door is opened and hot air rushes in and replaces some of the cool air, then the new relative humidity indoors would be _______________.

a)

impossible to tell from the information given

b)

the same as before

c)

lower than before

d)

higher than before

e)

variable

5.

The main process responsible for warming in the lower atmosphere is ________.

a)

the release of latent heat during condensation

b)

the absorption of infrared radiation

c)

the direct absorption of sunlight by the atmosphere

d)

the presence of heat sinks

e)

related to Earth's gravity and magnetics

6.

The wind-chill factor, which is how cold the wind makes us feel, __________________________________ .

a)

calculates our sensible temperature, which is how we would feel at an equivalent temperature with no wind.

b)

indicates the temperature at which water freezes on exposed skin.

c)

takes into account humidity and air temperature in expressing the current air temperature.

d)

tells farmers when to protect crops from a freeze.

e)

determines how low the air temperature will be on any given day.

7.

On an average, ________ percent of solar energy striking the outer atmosphere eventually reaches the Earth's surface.

a)

70

b)

15

c)

30

d)

5

e)

50

8.

At any given time, _______ of Earth is illuminated by the Sun.

a)

one-fourth

b)

two-thirds

c)

three-quarters

d)

one-half

e)

one-third

9.

Advection Fog is rare over tropical waters.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

Radiation fog typically forms on ________.

a)

clear, calm nights

b)

any day and in any conditions

c)

clear, windy early morning

d)

clear, windy nights

e)

clear, calm days

11.

Which process, over millions of years, provided a rich supply of water vapor into the atmosphere that formed into clouds?

a)

condensation

b)

seafloor spreading

c)

outgassing

d)

precipitation layering

e)

evaporation

12.

On a cold, winter morning, the most likely place for radiation fog to form is _________.

a)

along the side of a hill

b)

in a city

c)

in a valley

d)

over a body of water

e)

at the top of a hill or mountain

13.

The ability or capacity to do work on some form of matter is called ________.

a)

latent heat

b)

specific heat

c)

temperature

d)

thermal heat

e)

energy

14.

When viewed from the surface, these clouds may be viewed as individual cloud elements (puffs) or as parallel rows of ripples that resemble the scales of a fish or a large school of fish.

a)

Cumulus

b)

Mammatus

c)

Cumulonimbus

d)

 

Stratocumulus

e)

Cirrocumulus

15.

Earth emits radiation with greatest intensity at __________ wavelengths.

a)

ultraviolet

b)

radio

c)

visible

d)

X-ray

e)

infrared

16.

In a hilly region, the best place to plant crops that thrive in nighttime low temperatures is __________ .

a)

along the hillsides

b)

 

on the top of the highest hill

c)

on the valley floor

d)

near streams and rivers

e)

in any dry location

17.

Carbon dioxide and water vapor are called "selective absorbing" greenhouse gases.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Our seasons are caused by _________ .

a)

the angle at which sunlight reaches Earth

b)

the amount of cloud cover during the different parts of the year

c)

differences in altitude

d)

proximity to the poles

e)

the constellation of Earth, Sun, and Moon

19.

Across Earth as a whole, at which location would one expect to observe the smallest variation in temperature from day to day and from month to month due to the contributing factors of latitude, elevation, relative humidity, and length of days and nights?

a)

the North Pole

b)

high in the mountains in the middle of a continent

c)

in the center of a large land mass

d)

Tropic of Canceralong the Pacific coast of North America

e)

a small island near the equator

20.

Rising air bubbles called "thermals" are caused by _______ .

a)

advection

b)

conversion

c)

expulsion

d)

convection

e)

absorption

21.

Of the four most abundant gases in our atmosphere, carbon dioxide shows the greatest variation at Earth's surface.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Which region of the United States is particularly prone to advection fog?

a)

Atlantic coast off the barrier islands

b)

Front Range of the Rocky Mountains

c)

Appalachia

d)

Gulf of Mexico coast

e)

Pacific coast

23.

In the Northern Hemisphere, which day has the most hours of daylight?

a)

vernal equinox

b)

autumnal equinox

c)

spring solstice

d)

winter solstice

e)

summer solstice

24.

The ratio of the actual water vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure is the __________.

a)

mixing ratio

b)

absolute humidity

c)

dew point

d)

specific humidity

e)

relative humidity

25.

Under saturated conditions, for every molecule that evaporates, one must condense, resulting in no net loss of liquid or vapor molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Often before sunrise on a clear, calm winter morning, the temperature falls dramatically in the absence of wind and humidity. Ice (frost) can be seen on the tops of parked cars, even though the air temperature is above freezing because the tops of cars are cooled to below freezing due to the loss of heat caused by __________.

a)

latent heat release

b)

convection

c)

conduction

d)

radiation

e)

condensation

27.

Suppose yesterday morning you noticed ice crystals (frost) on the grass, yet the minimum temperature reported in the newspaper was only 35 degrees Fahrenheit (35O F). The most likely reason for this apparent discrepancy is that the _______________ .

a)

temperature readings are taken in instrument shelters more than 5 feet above the ground

b)

newspaper reported the wrong temperature

c)

thermometer was in error

d)

thermometer was read before the minimum temperature was reached for that day

e)

thermometer was read incorrectly

28.

It is snowing outside and the air is saturated. The air temperature and dew point are both 15 degrees Fahrenheit (15O F) and the actual vapor pressure is 3 mb. If this air is brought indoors and warmed to 75 degrees Fahrenheit (75O F), what would the relative humidity of this air be, assuming that its moisture content (i.e., number of water vapor molecules) does not change? (NOTE: The saturation vapor pressure at 75 degrees Fahrenheit is 30 mb.)

a)

30 percent (0.30)

b)

50 percent (0.50)

c)

10 percent (0.10)

d)

100 percent (1.00)

e)

5 percent (0.05)

29.

On a clear, calm night, particularly in high-elevation desert locations such as Winnemucca, Nevada, where the summer air is dry and thin, the ground and air above cool very dramatically mainly by which process?

a)

radiation

b)

convection

c)

evaporation

d)

reflection

e)

conduction

30.

The cooling of the ground to produce dew is mainly the result of __________.

a)

radiational heat loss

b)

condensation

c)

conduction

d)

advection

e)

cooling due to the release of latent heat

31.

Which atmospheric parameter will increase in a rising parcel of air that stays intact and does not mix with the air around it?

a)

air pressure

b)

air temperature

c)

saturation vapor pressure

d)

relative humidity

e)

mixed ratio

32.

In a temperature inversion, the air temperature ________.

a)

decreases with increasing height

b)

is warmer during winter than during summer

c)

 

fluctuates more at night than during the day

d)

increases with increasing height

e)

is extremely unstable

33.

The transfer of heat energy by atmospheric and oceanic circulations prevents low latitudes from  _________ and high latitudes from  _________. (select the most complete answer)

a)

becoming steadily warmer; growing steadily warmer

b)

becoming steadily colder; growing steadily stagnant

c)

becoming steadily colder; growing steadily colder

d)

becoming steadily colder; growing steadily warmer

e)

becoming steadily colder; growing steadily warmer

34.

Air must be cooled to the _____________ temperature in order for it to become saturated.

a)

wet-bulb

b)

minimum

c)

dew-point

d)

maximum

e)

freezing

35.

In a building, frost typically forms on the inside of a window pane, rather than on the outside of the glass, because _________.

a)

there is less water vapor touching the inside of the pane

b)

there is more water vapor touching the inside of the pane

c)

there is insufficient insulation next to it

d)

there is more radiational cooling on the inside

e)

the inside of the pane is colder than the outside

36.

During a 24-hour day, at what time would a surface-based, radiation temperature inversion most likely form?

a)

near sunrise

b)

at noon

c)

toward the end of the morning

d)

between 3 and 5 p.m. when the air temperature reaches a maximum

e)

at sunset

37.

Although the polar regions radiate away more heat energy than they receive from insolation during the course of a year, they are prevented from becoming progressively colder each year by the _________________ .

a)

insulating properties of snow

b)

circulation of heat by the atmosphere and oceans

c)

concentration of Earth's magnetic field lines at the poles

d)

release of latent heat to the atmosphere when polar ice melts

e)

conduction of heat through the interior of Earth

38.

The most abundant greenhouse gas in Earth's current atmosphere is _____________.  

a)

chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

b)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

c)

water vapor (H2O)

d)

nitrous oxide (N2O)

e)

methane (CH4)

39.

Our understanding of the atmosphere and how it produces weather is built on the knowledge acquired and applied through the scientific method.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Dew is most likely to form during __________ nights.

a)

clear, calm

b)

cloudy, calm

c)

cloudy, windy

d)

rainy

e)

clear, windy

41.

On a cold morning, it is possible to see your breath even if the air temperature is above freezing.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Wind direction is _________ .

a)

relative to where the person is standing

b)

always moving directly from low pressure toward high pressure

c)

the direction from which the wind is blowing

d)

the direction to which the wind is blowing

e)

always moving directly from high toward low pressure

43.

The ice-to-vapor phase transition is known as ________.

a)

sublimation

b)

melting

c)

evaporation

d)

condensation

e)

deposition

44.

A geostationary satellite takes pictures of _________ .

a)

one area on Earth as it moves at the same rate as Earth's rotation

b)

different areas on Earth when it is stationary

c)

other planets as they are seen from Earth

d)

any recurring geologic event on Earth

e)

the moon as it is seen from Earth

45.

As air temperature increases, with no addition of water vapor to the air, the relative humidity will increase.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

The rate at which temperature decreases with increasing altitude is known as __________.

a)

the lapse rate

b)

a temperature slope

c)

a temperature inversion

d)

the thermocline

e)

 

the alpine factor

47.

Condensation is most likely to occur when air temperature _______ and the speed of the water vapor molecules _______ .  (choose the most complete answer)

a)

warms; increases

b)

remains the same; decreases

c)

cools; decreases

d)

warms; decreases

e)

cools; increases

48.

Earth's radiative equilibrium temperature is the _________ .

a)

average temperature at which Earth is absorbing solar radiation and emitting infrared radiation at equal rates

b)

temperature at which rates of evaporation and condensation on Earth are in balance

c)

average temperature at which Earth is maintaining warm pockets for natural fish hatcheries

d)

temperature at which the polar ice caps reflect enough light to maintain balance.

e)

average temperature Earth must maintain to prevent oceans from freezing solid

49.

The relationship between the mass of water vapor in an air parcel and the mass of all air in the same parcel (including water vapor) is called __________ .

a)

absolute humidity

b)

relative humidity

c)

specific humidity

d)

mixing ratio

e)

dew point

50.

Considering each hemisphere as a whole, seasonal temperature variation in the Southern Hemisphere is greater than in the Northern Hemisphere due to there there being more ocean water in the Southern Hemisphere.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Sunlight that bounces off a surface is said to be _______ from the surface.

a)

scattered

b)

reflected

c)

radiated

d)

absorbed

e)

emitted

52.

The __________ jetstream is known to show seasonal variations. In winter, the winds are stronger, and the jet moves farther south as the leading edge of the cold air can extend into subtropical regions, as far south as Florida and Mexico. In summer, this band of winds is weaker and is usually found over more northerly latitudes.

a)

astronomical

b)

subtropical

c)

tropical easterly

d)

polar

e)

African easterly mid-level

53.

Which of the following might be mistaken for hail because of its appearance and its origin?

a)

Virga

b)

Dendrite

c)

Ice crystal

d)

Graupel

e)

Supercooled droplet

54.

Most of the United States is located within the prevailing Polar Easterlies wind belt.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Most thunderstorms do not extend very far into the stratosphere because the air in the portion of Earth's atmosphere ___________.

a)

is unstable

b)

is stable

c)

is charged with too much static electricity

d)

is too cold

e)

has too much ozone

56.

As an air parcel aloft moves poleward from the equator, it moves closer to Earth's axis of rotation. Due to the physical parameter known as the Conservation of Angular Momentum, the air parcel's speed should ________.

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

remain constant

d)

decrease but continue in the same direction

e)

decrease and eventually reverse direction

57.

When wind encounters a solid barrier such as a mountain, hill, or dune, a whirl of air, called an eddy, forms on the object's leeward side.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

The magnitude of the Coriolis force varies with wind speed and _________.

a)

altitude

b)

attitude

c)

platitude

d)

longitude

e)

latitude

59.

Which statement best describes the polar jetstream?

a)

It is normally found at a higher altitude than the subtropical jetstreamjet.

b)

It is strongest in summer.

c)

It forms near the boundary called the polar front

d)

It moves farther north in winter.

e)

It has weaker or slower wind speeds than the subtropical jet stream.

60.

Surface winds blow across isobars at an angle and the pressure gradient force is balanced by the ____ force and the Coriolis force.

a)

pressure gradient

b)

geostrophic

c)

frictional

d)

centripetal

e)

gravitational

61.

A fact that surprises many people is that small raindrops fall ___________ large raindrops, and have ________ terminal velocity
than/as large raindrops.

a)

at the same rate as; a variable

b)

faster than; a lesser

c)

at the same rate as; the same

d)

slower than; a lesser

e)

faster than; a greater

62.

A __________ is generally associated with trough on an upper-level 500-mb isobaric chart.

a)

A low pressure center

b)

A high pressure center

c)

convergence

d)

divergence

e)

zonal flow

63.

There are many types of clouds, but not all produce precipitation. Which cloud type will only produce precipitation by the collision-coalescence process?

a)

A thick, cold (Below freezing) nimbostratus cloud.

b)

A thick, cold (below fgreezing) cumulus cloud.

c)

A thick, warm (above freezing) cumulus cloud.

d)

A supercooled (below freezing) cumulus congestus cloud.

e)

A thick, supercooled (below freezing) cumulonimbus cloud with abundant nuclei.

64.

Surface winds are generally strongest and most gusty ____________.

a)

around midnight

b)

just before sunrise

c)

in the early morning

d)

just after sunset

e)

in the afternoon

65.

If rising air cools to the dewpoint temperature, then the relative humidity becomes percent.

a)

20

b)

40

c)

60

d)

80

e)

100

66.

All other physical parameters being equal, the greater pressure gradient, the weaker the wind speed.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

According to the pattern of the three-cell general circulation model, areas of surface low pressure should be found at ____________. (choose the most correct answer)

a)

the equator and 60 degrees latitude

b)

30 degrees latitude and 60 degrees latitude

c)

30 degrees latitude and the poles

d)

the equator and 30 degrees latitude

e)

the Horse Latitudes and the Doldrums

68.

The majority of the world's deserts (e.g., Sahara) are found at 30 degrees latitude because ___________.

a)

of the convergence of the prevailing westerlies and the Northeast Trade Winds

b)

the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is located there

c)

of the Doldrums

d)

of the sinking air of the Antarctic and a lack of a land bridge

e)

of the sinking air of the subtropical highs

69.

In a conditionally unstable atmosphere, the actual environmental temperature lapse rate will be greater than the moist or saturation adiabatic rate and _________ the dry or unsaturated adiabatic rate.

a)

greater than

b)

less than

c)

the same as

d)

inconsistent with

e)

consistent with

70.

The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), often referred to as the Doldrums or the Calms, is a region where ___________.

a)

the Ferrel cell converges with the Hadley cell

b)

the polar front meets the subtropical high

c)

Northeast Trade Winds converge with the subtropical high

d)

Polar Easterlies converge with the air at the Doldrums

e)

Northeast Trade Winds converge with the southeast trades

71.

The speed of falling cloud droplet increases until the air resistance ________ .

a)

is less than gravity

b)

is less than the droplet's momentum

c)

is greater than gravity

d)

equals the pull of gravity

e)

is greater than the droplets inertia

72.

The growth of a precipitation particle by the collision of an ice crystal (or snowflake) with a supercooled liquid droplet is called ____.

a)

spontaneous nucleation

b)

accretion

c)

collision

d)

aggregation

e)

deposition

73.

The pressure gradient force has a direct effect on horizontal wind movements.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

A net convergence of air (i.e., increase of air molecules in a column) would cause the surface pressure to increase and a net divergence (i.e., decrease of air molecules) would cause the surface pressure to decrease.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

The main difference between a cloud drop and a raindrop is its ____________.

a)

color

b)

size

c)

associated precipitation type

d)

shape

e)

hygroscopic nucleus type

76.

A sea or land breeze is caused by __________.

a)

strong surf conditions

b)

differences in humidity (i.e., moisture)

c)

the Coriolis force

d)

temperature differences

e)

ocean tides

77.

Chinook winds are typically found in the interior west of North America where the Canadian prairies and the Great Plains parallel mountain ranges. These winds can be described as ______________.  (choose the most correct answer)

a)

warm, dry downslope winds

b)

cold, dry downslope winds

c)

warm, dry upslope winds

d)

cold, moist downslope winds

e)

warm, moist downslope winds

78.

An offshore wind blows _________.

a)

a minimum distance of at least 100 miles away from the shore

b)

only during the day

c)

from land to water

d)

only at night

e)

from water to land

79.

A rising parcel of air expands and cools, whereas a sinking parcel compresses and warms.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

The wind speeds generally increase with height above Earth's surface because ___________.

a)

air temperature normally increases with height

b)

air parcels expand and become less dense as they rise above the surface

c)

only the lowest layer of air is more dense

d)

 

measuring instruments are not accurate at Earth's surface

e)

friction with Earth's surface slows the air near the ground

81.

The temperature of rising air at a given level inside a cumulus cloud is normally warmer than the air around the cloud.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Pilots must be aware that turbulent eddies can occur in conjunction with mountain waves, which may extend upwards into the stratosphere. When these huge eddies develop with no clouds present, this form of turbulence is referred to as ______________ turbulence.

a)

clear air

b)

convective

c)

lower-stratospheric

d)

undulating

e)

unknown

83.

A "geostrophic wind" is a wind that results from a balance between the _______ force and the _______ force.

a)

Coriolis; gravitational

b)

Coriolis; frictional

c)

pressure gradient; gravitational

d)

Coriolis; pressure gradient

e)

pressure gradient; frictional

84.

The polar front is a boundary separating cold, polar air to the north from warm subtropical air to the south, with the greatest contrast in air temperature occurring along the frontal zone.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

In the middle latitudes, when an area of high pressure approaches a city or other lcoation, surface pressure usually _______. When it moves away, pressure usually ______.

a)

remains the same; rises

b)

falls; rises

c)

remains the same; falls

d)

rises; falls

e)

remains the same; remains the same

86.

Inversions that form as air slowly sinks over a large area are called _______ inversions.

a)

coincident

b)

surface

c)

ground-cover

d)

surficial

e)

subsidence

87.

A temperature inversion represents an extremely stable atmosphere because air that rises into the inversion will eventually
become ______ and more dense than/as the surrounding air.

a)

more viscous

b)

colder

c)

warmer

d)

 

filled with positively charged particles

e)

filled with negatively charged particles

88.

When a seabreeze moving westward meets a seabreeze moving eastward, they form a ___________.

a)

thermal low

b)

land breeze

c)

valley breeze

d)

 

convergence zone

e)

katabatic wind

89.

The mature and most intense stage of an extratropical, winter-type cyclone is best depicted in Panel ________ below.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

90.

The north-south temperature contrast along the polar front is strongest in _______ and weakest in ________.

a)

summer; fall

b)

 

fall; winter

c)

spring; summer

d)

spring; fall

e)

winter; summer

91.

Clouds are complex and can have different temperature zones. The region of a cloud where only ice particles exist is called _______.

a)

graupled

b)

nucleated

c)

glaciated

d)

coated

e)

iced

92.

Correctly label the appropriate air masses for a warm-type frontal occlusion depicted below. (choose the most complete answer)

a)

A = cool; B = cold; C = warm

b)

A = cold; B = warm; C = cool

c)

A = cool; B = warm; C = cold

d)

A = warm; B = cold; C = cool

e)

A = warm; B = cool; C = cold

93.

Correctly label the appropriate frontal systems depicted on the surface map below. (choose the most complete answer)

a)

A = stationary; B = warm-type occlusion; C = cold-type occlusion; D = cold; E = warm

b)

A = warm-type occlusion; B = cold-type occlusion; C = cold; D = warm; E = stationary

c)

A = cold; B = cold-type occlusion; C = warm; D = warm-type occlusion; E = stationary

d)

A = cold-type occlusion; B = warm-type occlusion; C = warm; D = stationary; E = cold-type occlusion

e)

A = stationary; B = cold-type occlusion; C = warm-type occlusion; D = cold; E = warm

94.

The elevation or altitude where clouds form is called the _______ level.

a)

nominal

b)

precipitation

c)

condensation

d)

convection

e)

equilibrium

95.

Based on the 500-mb flow pattern depicted in the upper-level chart (below), an intensifying surface low pressure system would likely be positioned at location _______ .

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

96.

Correctly label the appropriate air masses for a cold-type frontal occlusion depicted below. (choose the most complete answer)

a)

A = cool; B = cold; C = warm

b)

A = cold; B = warm; C = cool

c)

A = warm; B = cold; C = cool

d)

A = warm; B = cool; C = cold

e)

A = cold; B = cool; C = cold

97.

The subtropical jetstream, located near the 200-mb level (approx. 39,000 ft ASL), has little to no effect on the development of polar-front or extratropical lows pressure systems.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

The pressure gradient force is directed from higher pressure towards lower pressure ____.

a)

only in the Southern Hemisphere

b)

 

zones that vary during the year

c)

only in the Northern Hemisphere

d)

at all places on Earth

e)

at all places on Earth except for the equator

99.

A pilot enters the weather service office (one of 122 offices that the National Weather Service operates) and wants to know what time of the day an aircraft would encounter the least turbulent winds at 760 m (2,500 feet) above central Kansas. If you were the weather forecaster, what would you tell the pilot?

a)

at midnight

b)

at sunset

c)

in the early morning

d)

In the afternoon

e)

at noon

100.

A rising parcel of air that does not exchange heat with its surroundings is an example of ________.

a)

an adiabatic process

b)

forced lifting

c)

advection

d)

convection

e)

isothermal ascent

101.

This is a picture of a _______ cloud.

a)

altostratus

b)

cirrostratus

c)

cumulus

d)

lenticular

e)

stratus

102.

The ozone hole is an actual hole in the atmosphere, a region of complete vacuum.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

The most abundant gas in the stratosphere is ____.

a)

oxygen (O2).

b)

chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

c)

ozone (O3).

d)

nitrogen (N2).

e)

carbon dioxide (CO2).

104.

Of the four most abundant gases in our atmosphere, carbon dioxide shows the greatest variation at Earth's surface

a)

True

b)

False

105.

Atmospheric concentration of helium has increased from below 300 ppm historically to over 400 ppm presently.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

Middle latitude cyclonic storms are also known as ____.

a)

tornadoes

b)

anticyclones

c)

gust fronts

d)

extratropical cyclones

e)

hurricanes

107.

Earth emits radiation with greatest intensity at ____.

a)

X-ray wavelengths

b)

infrared wavelengths

c)

ultraviolet wavelengths

d)

visible wavelengths

e)

certain radio wavelengths

108.

As we apply Newtonian principles and analyze the way the Sun’s energy travels to Earth through the atmosphere, we can say that solar radiation reaches Earth's surface as ____.

a)

visible and infrared radiation only.

b)

infrared radiation only.

c)

ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation.

d)

visible radiation only.

e)

ultraviolet radiation only.

109.

What type of energy has a wavelength longer than that of red light?

a)

infrared radiation

b)

red visible radiation

c)

green visible radiation

d)

ultraviolet radiation

e)

blue visible radiation

110.

Earth absorbs approximately less than half the units of solar energy that it emits of infrared energy. What prevents Earth from getting colder and colder?

a)

the atmosphere

b)

a magnetic shield

c)

La Niña

d)

its elliptical orbit

e)

El Niño

111.

If Earth's average surface temperature were to increase, the amount of radiation emitted from the Earth's surface would increase, and the wavelength of peak emission would shift towards shorter wavelengths.

a)

True

b)

False

112.

A vertical exchange of heat is called ____.

a)

condensation.

b)

compression.

c)

convection.

d)

extinction.

e)

evaporation.

113.

Which gases are primarily responsible for the atmospheric greenhouse effect in Earth's atmosphere?

a)

oxygen and ozone

b)

ozone and nitrogen

c)

argon and carbon dioxide

d)

ozone and chlorofluorocarbons.

e)

water vapor and carbon dioxide

114.

If the amount of energy lost by Earth to space each year were not approximately equal to that received, ____.

a)

the atmosphere's average temperature would change.

b)

the sun's solar flares would change.

c)

the length of the year would change.

d)

the earth would eventually slow due to the fact that the mantle would heat up and the earth would be more liquid with an even thinner skin of crust.

e)

nothing would change.

115.

Without water vapor to absorb the Earth's emitted infrared radiation, Earth would lose more heat.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

The combined albedo of Earth and the atmosphere is approximately ____ percent.

a)

75

b)

30

c)

10

d)

50

e)

4

117.

A change of 1 degree on the Celsius scale is ____ a change of 1 Kelvin.

a)

in the opposite direction of

b)

smaller than

c)

insignificant in comparison to

d)

equal to

e)

larger than

118.

Heat is transferred in Earth's atmosphere by radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

The heat energy released when water vapor changes to a liquid is called ____.

a)

specific heat of evaporation

b)

latent heat of fusion

c)

specific heat of condensation

d)

latent heat of condensation

e)

potential energy

120.

The amount of heat energy required to bring about a change in temperature in a substance is called the 

a)

conduction heat

b)

radiative equilibrium.

c)

heat capacity.

d)

latent heat

e)

sensible heat

121.

Without the atmospheric greenhouse effect, the average surface temperature would be ____.

a)

lower than at present

b)

unchanging no matter what happens.

c)

higher in the morning than usual.

d)

the same as it is now.

e)

highly variable and difficult to measure.

122.

Temperature is a measure of the maximum possible speed of atoms and molecules.

a)

True

b)

False

123.

The rising air bubbles from convection are known as ____.

a)

convection.

b)

absorption

c)

thermals

d)

advection

e)

expansion

124.

During the formation of clouds what is released as sensible heat? 

a)

deposition

b)

latent heat

c)

sublimation

d)

longwave radiation

e)

sensible radiation

125.

In most of the world, temperature is recorded in ____.

a)

degrees Kelvin

b)

degrees Fahrenheit

c)

Both degrees Fahrenheit and Celsius

d)

Equal proportions, all three scales are used

e)

degrees Celsius

126.

The atmosphere near the Earth's surface is "heated from below" by heat energy from Earth's interior.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

Carbon dioxide and water vapor are called selective absorbing greenhouse gases.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Both the Earth and the Sun can be treated as blackbodies.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

On an average, what percentage of solar energy striking the outer atmosphere eventually reaches the Earth's surface?

a)

5 percent

b)

15 percent

c)

30 percent

d)

70 percent

e)

50 percent

130.

Solar wind is composed of plasma or charged particles travelling through space.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

Carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and chlorofluorcarbons are the greenhouse gases that appear to be responsible for the enhancement of Earth's atmospheric greenhouse effect.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

In overcast weather, the air next to the ground is usually ____ than the air above during the night and ____ than the air above during the day.

a)

warmer; colder

b)

colder; warmer

c)

colder; less humid

d)

warmer; warmer

e)

hotter; more humid

133.

An important reason for the large diurnal temperature range in deserts is:

a)

there is little water vapor in the air to absorb and scatter infrared radiation.

b)

the light-colored sand radiates heat very rapidly at night.

c)

free convection cells are unable to form above the hot desert ground.

d)

the ozone content of desert air is very low.

e)

dry air is a very poor heat conductor.

134.

If it is winter in New York City, the season in Sydney, Australia is summer.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

During the Northern Hemisphere's summer, the daylight hours in northern latitudes are longer than in the middle latitudes.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

The maximum in daytime surface temperature typically occurs before Earth receives its most intense solar radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

137.

When a liquid thermometer is held in in the shade, it will:

a)

measure the temperature of the Sun rather than the air.

b)

measure a much higher temperature than that of the air.

c)

measure a much lower temperature than that of the air.

d)

accurately measure the air temperature.

e)

overheat and explode.

138.

When would one expect the warmest weather in middle latitudes in the summer in the Southern Hemisphere?

a)

December 21

b)

March 20

c)

January 21

d)

September 22

e)

June 21

139.

Because the temperature of the night air depends primarily on the length of the night, the moisture content of the air, cloudiness, and wind, one would expect the LOWEST temperatures to be found next to the ground on a:

a)

clear, damp, windy night.

b)

cloudy night

c)

clear, dry, calm night.

d)

clear, dry, windy night.

e)

rainy night

140.

Where the air is humid, haze and cloudiness lower the maximum temperature by preventing some of the sun’s rays from reaching the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

141.

Both the ground and the air above it cool by radiating infrared energy, a process called radiational cooling.

a)

True

b)

False

142.

In cold weather, when there is a brisk wind, the temperature we perceive—called the sensible temperature, or wind-chill—is often ____ a thermometer might indicate.

a)

a fraction of what

b)

lower than

c)

at least twice as high as

d)

the same as

e)

higher than

143.

In the Northern Hemisphere, which day has the most hours of daylight?

a)

autumnal equinox

b)

summer solstice

c)

vernal equinox

d)

winter solstice

e)

spring solstice

144.

Although the polar regions radiate away more heat energy than they receive by insolation in the course of a year, they are prevented from becoming progressively colder each year by the:

a)

the insulating properties of snow.

b)

release of latent heat to the atmosphere when polar ice melts.

c)

conduction of heat through the interior of Earth.

d)

concentration of Earth's magnetic field lines at the poles.

e)

circulation of heat by the atmosphere and oceans

145.

Hyperthermia, or heat stroke, is most common in:

a)

cold, wet weather.

b)

cold, windy weather.

c)

cold, dry weather.

d)

hot, humid weather.

e)

hot, dry weather.

146.

How many times per year is the Sun directly overhead at the southern hemisphere city of Asunción, Paraguay (latitude -25 degrees)?

a)

twice a year

b)

never

c)

every month

d)

four times a year

e)

once a year

147.

The daily (diurnal) range of temperature is greatest next to the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

148.

Which latitude would experience the most hours of daylight on December 22?

a)

60 degrees S

b)

20 degrees S

c)

60 degrees N

d)

20 degrees N

e)

0 degrees (Equator)

149.

The smallest variation in daily temperature usually occurs:

a)

at the ground.

b)

at the top of a high-rise apartment complex.

c)

on top of a mountain.

d)

at the level where thermals stop rising.

e)

about 5 feet above the ground.

150.

Where the air is humid, haze and cloudiness lower the maximum temperature by preventing some of the sun’s rays from reaching the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

151.

Which type of thermometer has a glass bulb attached to a sealed, graduated tube about 25 cm (10 in) long that contains a substance, usually mercury or red-colored alcohol?

a)

maximum

b)

electrical

c)

liquid-in-glass

d)

minimum

e)

rotary

152.

Condensation is more likely to happen as the air cools and the speed of the water vapor decreases.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

Absolute humidity represents the water vapor density (mass / volume) in a parcel of air, and normally, is expressed as grams of water vapor in a cubic meter of air.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Water molecules changing from a vapor state to a liquid state are condensing.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

The ice-to-vapor phase transition is known as ____.

a)

condensation

b)

sublimation

c)

evaporation

d)

melting

e)

deposition

156.

Condensation occurs primarily when air is cooled, because as temperature drops the speed of the water molecules increases.

a)

True

b)

False

157.

Microscopic bits of dust, smoke, salt, and other particles that commonly are mixed in with air molecules, are called condensation nuclei.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

As the difference between the air temperature and the dew point increases, the relative humidity ____.

a)

remains constant and equal to 100 percent

b)

decreases

c)

is unaffected

d)

increases

e)

remains constant at a value less than 100 percent

159.

The greatest warming experienced over the globe in the last 100 years, has occurred in ____.

a)

the arctic and over the mid-latitude continents in winter and spring

b)

the United States in winter and spring

c)

Greenland and the mid-latitude continents in summer and fall

d)

parts of Antarctica during the entire year

e)

the oceans of the Southern Hemisphere and parts of Antarctica in spring and summer

160.

Volcanoes that have the most impact on global climate seem to be those rich in ____.

a)

sulfur

b)

water vapor

c)

nitrogen

d)

carbon dioxide

e)

oxygen

161.

The sun’s energy output, called brightness, varies by ____ with sunspot activity.

a)

about 10 percent

b)

about 2 percent

c)

more than 15 percent

d)

less than 1 percent

e)

about 5 percent

162.

If Earth were in a cooling trend, which process below would most likely act as a positive feedback mechanism?

a)

 

Changing the color of snow from white to gray.

b)

Increasing the water vapor content of the air.

c)

Increasing the carbon dioxide content of the air.

d)

Decreasing snow cover in middle and high latitudes.

e)

Increasing the snow cover around the Earth.

163.

Many different mechanisms impact climate change. The water vapor-greenhouse feedback represents a ____ feedback mechanism.

a)

neutral

b)

binary

c)

positive

d)

negative

e)

directional

164.

The Maunder Minimum refers to a time when ____.

a)

the tilt of Earth's axis was less than it is now

b)

Earth was in the middle of an ice age

c)

there were fewer sunspots on the sun

d)

the sun was at its minimum distance from Earth

e)

Earth was closer to the sun than it is now

165.

Particles that reduce the amount of sunlight reaching Earth’s surface tend to cause ____ of the surface air during the ____.

a)

a net warming; night

b)

greater humidity; day

c)

a net cooling; day

d)

less precipitation; day

e)

less precipitation; night

166.

Thick sheets of ice advanced over North America as far south as New York as recently as ____.

a)

the year 1550

b)

2 million years ago

c)

1,000 to 2,000 years ago

d)

the year 1816 ("the year without a summer")

e)

18,000 to 22,000 years ago

167.

Most of the ice on Earth is in the ____ ice sheets.

a)

North American

b)

Greenland and Antarctic

c)

Greenland and Arctic

d)

Siberian

e)

Alpine and Arctic

168.

As oceans cool, they remove more CO2 from the atmosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

169.

When all of the Milankovitch cycles are taken into account, the present trend should be towards ____ over high latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere.

a)

warmer summers

b)

cooler winters

c)

warmer springs

d)

warmer winters

e)

cooler summers

170.

The oxygen isotope ratios of calcium carbonate shells have provided information about the sequence of glacier advances.

a)

True

b)

False

171.

The water vapor-greenhouse feedback, which can amplify the warming effect of other greenhouse gases, represents a positive feedback mechanism because the warming brought about by increased carbon dioxide allows more water vapor to enter the atmosphere.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

The fact that we find glacial features near sea level in Africa today is explained by the ____.

a)

Milankovitch theory

b)

precession of Earth's axis

c)

eccentricity of Earth's orbit

d)

Theory of Plate Tectonics

e)

Miogeosyncline theory

173.

The energy for hurricanes comes from the transfer of ____ from the ocean surface to the atmosphere.

a)

moisture

b)

infrared radiation and momentum

c)

latent heat and momentum

d)

sensible heat and latent heat

e)

sensible heat and momentum

174.

A storm of tropical origin whose high winds and water cause a great deal of destruction to islands in the western North Pacific is (in this part of the world) known as a ____.

a)

cyclone

b)

typhoon

c)

hurricane

d)

willy willy

e)

mesocyclone

175.

Most hurricanes have fronts

a)

True

b)

False

176.

In the Northern Hemisphere, hurricanes and middle latitude cyclones are similar, in that both ____.

a)

have winds that blow counterclockwise around their centers

b)

will generally move from west to east

c)

have surface weather fronts

d)

intensify with increasing height above the ground

e)

have winds that blow clockwise around their centers

177.

Pressure at the center of a hurricane is ____ the surroundings at the surface and ____ than the surroundings aloft.

a)

higher than; lower

b)

lower than; higher

c)

the same as; lower

d)

the same as; higher

e)

higher than; higher

178.

Which of the following areas in the United States would most likely experience thunderstorms, hurricanes, and tornadoes during the course of one year?

a)

Mountain states

b)

Pacific Coast states

c)

Gulf coast states

d)

New England states

e)

Great Plains states

179.

When a hurricane is approaching from the south, its highest winds are usually on its eastern, or right, side.

a)

True

b)

False

180.

Most hurricanes move westwards over tropical waters.

a)

True

b)

False

181.

In a hurricane, the eye wall represents ____.

a)

a layer of cirrus cloud in the center of the storm

b)

a zone of intense thunderstorms around the center

c)

a region of light winds and low pressure

d)

 

the exact center of the storm

e)

the area of broken cloudiness at the center

182.

A favorable condition for hurricane development is a ____.

a)

deep layer of conditionally unstable air

b)

completely stable environment

c)

shallow layer of absolutely unstable air

d)

shallow layer of conditionally unstable air

e)

deep layer of stable air

183.

The main difference between a hurricane and a tropical storm is that ____.

a)

wind speeds are greater in a hurricane

b)

hurricanes have a clearly defined eye on satellite photographs

c)

hurricanes are larger

d)

tropical storms are more than 500 miles from the U.S. mainland

e)

tropical storms deliver more moisture

184.

Hurricanes cannot form along the equator because ____.

a)

it is too humid for the ocean water to evaporate

b)

there are no feedback mechanisms along the equator

c)

the water temperature is too warm

d)

the Coriolis force is too small along the equator

e)

there is not much water along the equator, it is mostly land

185.

Just before a storm becomes a fully developed hurricane, it is in the ____ stage.

a)

typhoon

b)

tropical depression

c)

tropical disturbance

d)

cyclone

e)

tropical storm

186.

Which event only forms over water?

a)

Thunderstorm

b)

Funnel cloud

c)

Mesocyclone

d)

Tornado

e)

Hurricane

187.

The main source of energy for a hurricane is the ____.

a)

warm ocean water and release of latent heat of condensation

b)

rising of warm air and sinking of cold air in the vicinity of weather fronts

c)

ocean currents and tides

d)

upper-level jet stream

e)

solar radiation

188.

The dramatic wind shear associated with several major airline crashes was associated with ____.

a)

the jet streak

b)

dry lines

c)

the jet stream

d)

microbursts

e)

mesocyclones

189.

Downdrafts tend to dominate during the ____ stage.

a)

cumulus

b)

growth

c)

precipitating

d)

dissipating

e)

developing

190.

About ____ percent of all cloud-to-ground lightning is negative rather than positive.

a)

50

b)

10

c)

30

d)

70

e)

90