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HSTC Semester Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the normal range for blood pressure in adults?

a)

around 140/90 mmHg

b)

around 160/100 mmHg

c)

around 100/60 mmHg

d)

around 120/80 mmHg

2.

How is pulse rate assessed?

a)

By checking body temperature

b)

By measuring blood pressure

c)

By counting the number of heartbeats per minute

d)

By counting the number of breaths per minute

3.

What is the normal respiration rate for an adult at rest?

a)

30-40 breaths per minute

b)

12-20 breaths per minute

c)

50-60 breaths per minute

d)

5-10 breaths per minute

4.

How is temperature monitored in a clinical setting?

a)

Pulse oximeter

b)

Stethoscope

c)

Blood pressure cuff

d)

Thermometers

5.

What is the normal range for oxygen saturation in healthy individuals?

a)

80-85%

b)

60-65%

c)

50-55%

d)

95-100%

6.

What is the instrument used to measure blood pressure?

a)

scale

b)

stethoscope

c)

sphygmomanometer

d)

thermometer

7.

What factors can affect pulse rate?

a)

Eating chocolate

b)

Drinking water

c)

Watching TV

d)

Exercise, stress, illness, medication, and caffeine

8.

How does respiration rate change during physical activity?

a)

Respiration rate has no effect

b)

Respiration rate decreases

c)

Respiration rate increases

d)

Respiration rate remains the same

9.

What are the different methods for measuring temperature?

a)

Measuring temperature by counting the number of ice cubes in a drink

b)

Using a ruler to measure the length of a shadow

c)

Estimating temperature based on the color of the sky

d)

Mercury-in-glass thermometer, digital thermometer, infrared thermometer, thermocouples, and resistance temperature detectors (RTDs)

10.

Why is oxygen saturation measurement important in healthcare?

a)

To monitor heart rate

b)

To assess how well the body is oxygenated.

c)

To measure blood pressure

d)

To assess bone density

11.

What is the medical term for low blood sugar?

a)

Hypoglycemia

b)

Hyperglycemia

c)

Hyperlipidemia

d)

Hypertension

12.

What does "arthro-" mean?

a)

Red

b)

Bone

c)

Arm

d)

Joint

13.

What does "arthro-" mean?

a)

Red

b)

Bone

c)

Arm

d)

Joint

14.

What does "-plasty" mean?

a)

Surgical Opening

b)

Surgical Incision

c)

Surgical Repair

d)

Surgical Cleaning

15.

What does "-rrhea" mean?

a)

Blood

b)

Flow

c)

Occlusion

d)

Liquid

16.

What does "Dorsal" mean?

a)

Front

b)

Back

c)

Head

d)

Side

17.

What does "Brady-" mean?

a)

Understated

b)

Slow

c)

Stop

d)

Movement

18.

What does "myo" mean?

a)

Muscle

b)

Heart

c)

Personal

d)

Ligament

19.

What does "intra-" mean

a)

Outside

b)

Surrounding

c)

Within

d)

Cavity

20.

What does "Nephro-" mean?

a)

Liver

b)

Kidney

c)

Bladder

d)

Gallbladder

21.

What does "- emia" mean?

a)

Blood

b)

Platelet

c)

Cell

d)

Hypoxic

22.

What does "Caudal" mean?

a)

Upper body

b)

Lower body

c)

Thorax

d)

Head

23.

What does "Dys-" mean?

a)

Difficulty

b)

Blockage

c)

Distraction

d)

Slow

24.

What does "leuko-" mean?

a)

White

b)

Yellow

c)

Pink

d)

Opaque

25.

What does "hemi-" mean?

a)

Around

b)

Through

c)

Half

d)

Circle

26.

What does "ventral" mean?

a)

Back

b)

Front

c)

Side

d)

Lower

27.

What does "cyano-" mean?

a)

Blue

b)

Skin

c)

Hypoxia

d)

Red

28.

What does "itis" mean?

a)

inflammation of

b)

pertaining to

c)

beneath

d)

within

29.

A word placed at the beginning of a word

a)

Eponyms

b)

Prefix

c)

Suffix

d)

Word roots

30.

The vowels are not used if the word root begins with a vowel.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What does "encephal(o) mean?

a)

brain

b)

liver

c)

skull

d)

joint

32.

What does "brachy" mean?

a)

arm

b)

short

c)

slow

d)

cheek

33.

The term is craniotomy. What part does cranio represent?

a)

Prefix

b)

Suffix

c)

Word root

d)

Eponyms

34.

The term is pseudoappendicitis. Which part is the prefix?

a)

Appendic

b)

itis

c)

Pseudo

d)

Pseudoappendic

35.

What does the term "nocturia" mean?

a)

time of night

b)

urination at night

c)

at night time

d)

difficulty urinating

36.

The term is "leukocytotic". Which part is the word root?

a)

leuko

b)

cyt

c)

otic

d)

cyto

37.

What does the abbreviation ABG mean?

a)

abdominal gases

b)

arterial blood gases

c)

advanced blood glucose

d)

before means glucose

38.

A person who studies xrays?

a)

radiologist

b)

dermatologist

c)

psychologist

d)

cardiologist

39.

What does "rrhea" mean?

a)

blood

b)

occlusion

c)

flow

d)

liquid

40.

What part of the body would the prefix "gastro" would be talking about?

a)

bowel

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

colon

41.

What is the study of blood called?

a)

oncology

b)

cardiology

c)

hematology

d)

physiology

42.

What does the suffix "ectomy" mean?

a)

removal

b)

incision

c)

operation

d)

addition

43.

What does "hemi" mean?

a)

around

b)

half

c)

through

d)

circle

44.

The word root "Pneum/o" or "Pulmon/o" means?

a)

chest

b)

ribs

c)

lungs

d)

head

45.

What is the definition of "oma"

(a)  

46.

What does "ad' mean?

a)

toward to, near

b)

down

c)

away from

d)

together

47.

What does "septicemia" mean?

(a)  

48.

When ambulating residents with right sided weakness, you should:

a)

Use a gait belt, and have him put cane in right hand

b)

Use a gait belt and have him put cane in left hand

c)

Use a gait belt and walk behind the resident so they don't trip

d)

Use a gait belt and walk in front of them watching them walk for safety

49.

When ambulating residents with a gait belt, the CNA walks:

a)

behind the resident

b)

on the resident's strong side

c)

on the resident's weak side

d)

just in front of the resident

50.

When using a mechanical lift, there should be _____ CNA's at all times.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

51.

Four common reactions to admission are fear, anxiety, loss of control, and loss of identity.

a)

T

b)

F

52.

Transferring within the facility is the simplest transfer of a patient from one unit to another unit within the same facility.

a)

T

b)

F

53.

the act of moving or walking, with or without an assistive device.

a)

ambulation

b)

ergonomics

c)

body mechanics

d)

log roll

54.

semi-sitting position in which the head of the bed is elevated 45 to 60 degrees

a)

Sim's

b)

Semi-Fowler's

c)

Fowler's

d)

Dangle

55.

Position in which a person is lying on their stomach

a)

Dangle

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Lateral

56.

Body position where a person is lying flat on their back

a)

Supine

b)

Fowler's

c)

Sim's

d)

Prone

57.

moving a person as a unit without disturbing the alignment of the body

a)

Logrolling

b)

Dangle

c)

Rotate

d)

Twisting

58.

Body position used in emergencies, such as shock, where the person lies flat with their head is lower than their feet

a)

Trendelenburg

b)

Fowler

c)

Sims

d)

Medial

59.

A __________________ is a band of fabric or leather that is positioned around the patient's waist to provide additional support during ambulation.

a)

transfer/gait belt

b)

stabilizer

c)

back brace

d)

waist belt

60.

___________ are artificial supports that assist the patient who needs help walking

a)

Walkers

b)

Canes

c)

Crutches

d)

Quad Canes

61.

__________________ crutches are made of wood or aluminum and are used for patients who need crutches for a short period of time. The patient must be able to bear weight on the hands instead of the axillary supports.

a)

Platform

b)

Forearm or Loftstrand

c)

Axillary

62.

________________ crutches attach to forearms are used for patients with weakness or paralysis in both legs. Recommended for patients who need crutches permanently or for a long period of time. Requires upper arm strength and good coordination.

a)

Platform

b)

Forearm or Loftstrand

c)

Axillary

63.

_____________ crutches are used for patients who cannot grip handles of other crutches or bear weight on their wrists or hands.

a)

Platform

b)

Forearm or Loftstrand

c)

Axillary

64.

Which of the following is true regarding fitting crutches for a patient?

a)

Wear poorly fitting shoes with 2-3 inch heals and skid soles.

b)

Crutches should be positioned 8-10 inches in front of and to the side of the patient's foot.

c)

The length should be adjusted so that there are 2 inches between the armpit and the axillary bar.

d)

The handpieces of axillary or forearm crutches should be adjusted so that each elbow is flexed at a 70 to 90 degree angle.

65.

__________ gait is used when both legs can bear some weight. It is a slow gait and is often taught first.

a)

four-point

b)

two-point

c)

three-point

d)

swing-to

e)

swing-through

66.

________________ gait is used only when one leg can bear weight.

a)

four-point

b)

three-point

c)

two-point

d)

swing to

e)

swing through

67.

___________ is an assistive device that provides balance and support. Several types include standard, T-handle, J-handle, tripod, quad, hemiwalker

a)

Cane

b)

Walker

c)

Crutches

68.

Which of the following is true when fitting a patient for a cane?

a)

A cane is used on the unaffected (good) side.

b)

The bottom tip of the cane should be positioned approximately 10 inches from the side of the unaffected foot.

c)

The level of the handle should be with the top of the pelvis.

d)

The elbow should be flexed to a 50 to 70 degree angle.

69.

__________________allow the patient’s weight to be more evenly distributed.

a)

walker

b)

cane

c)

cruthes wheelchair

70.

HIPAA stands for ...

a)

Health Information Patient Protection Act

b)

Health Information Probability and Accountability Act

c)

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

d)

Helping Information Protection and Access Act

71.

HIPAA protects patients from ...

a)

having to tell their employers if they are vaccinated or not.

b)

medical staff disclosing their personal and medical information to others.

c)

having to tell random people if they have been to the doctor or not.

d)

medical staff helping them with their insurance.

72.

If HIPAA is violated, the medical staff member could lose their job.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

If a doctor is consulting another doctor about a patient (without using identifying information), HIPAA is being violated.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

It is okay to have a conversation about a patient in a public setting.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

If you are married, your doctor can tell your medical information to your spouse, with or without your consent.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

What is a legal document that allows people to state what medical treatment they want or do not want in the event they are unable to make decisions or communicate?

a)

battery

b)

advance directive

c)

slander

d)

Code of Ethics

77.

________ are rules of conduct among people.

a)

liability

b)

laws

c)

ethics

d)

tort

78.

What is the proper procedure for documentation error correction?

a)

white out incorrect information, initial and date

b)

add corrected information below error, initial and date

c)

draw a line through the error, add correct information, initial and date

d)

black out incorrect information, initial and date

79.

A list of written statements describing proper conduct for a group of people is ________________.

a)

Code of Ethics

b)

torts

c)

laws

d)

advance directive

80.

What is the law or act that ensures a patient's medical information is private?

a)

Family Medical Leave Act

b)

OSHA

c)

HIPAA Health Information Portability and Accountability Act

d)

Fair Labor Standards Act

81.

All cultures are okay with eye contact, meaning there is nothing wrong with it across all cultures.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Culturally competent care allows you to provide:

a)

Quality care

b)

Individualized care

c)

A relationship with you patient

d)

All are correct

83.

What can you NOT wear when your working as a nurse

a)

Navy srubs

b)

Colorful srubs

c)

jeans

d)

t-shrit/to revealing

84.

Can the ladies have on acrylic nails on while on the job

a)

YES

b)

NO

85.

When you have a NEW patient what is the first thing you get/ask from them

a)

Ask for name and date of brith

b)

Ask whats their favorite food

c)

Ask what they want to drink

d)

ask shoe size

86.

A document provides instructions directly to physicians, hospitals, and other healthcare providers involved in a client’s medical treatment.

It may details circumstances which treatment should be discontinued, such as coma, brain death, or terminal condition. It may also detail which treatments or medication to suspend and which to maintain.

It may also indicate preference regarding organ donation, autopsy and alternative treatments

a)

Informed Consent

b)

Code of Ethics

c)

Living will

87.

Pathogen

a)

Where Pathogen lives

b)

How germs get out

c)

disease cause microorganism

d)

Handwashing disinfecting sterilizing

88.

How do you dispose of a sharp?

a)

throw it away

b)

Drop the entire sharp into the sharps container

c)

Leave it on table

d)

make sure you cover the sharp in a paper towel and then throw in trash.

89.

How long can a single pair of gloves be used.

a)

everytime

b)

one time for one patient

c)

2 patients

d)

don't use gloves

90.

PPE examples

a)

cap, t shirt, gloves

b)

jeans, googles, shoe covers

c)

gloves, goggles, gowns, mask, shoe coverings,, face shield.

d)

t shirt, glasses, Nike shoes, gloves

91.

PPE means:

a)

a) Personal protective equipment.

b)

b) Plastic process equipment.

92.

A disease is one that is spread from one person to another (direct or indirect contact) through a variety of ways that include: contact with blood and bodily fluids; breathing in an airborne virus; or by being bitten by an insect.

a)

communicable

b)

HAI

c)

Endogenous

d)

immunocompromised

93.

Chain of infection includes

a)

infection, health worker, portal of exit, portal of entry, mode of carrier

b)

causative agent, infection, portal of entry,

portal of exit, mode of transmission

c)

causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, susceptible host

d)

infection, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, carrier

94.

After removing PPE, you should always wash your hands.

a)
True
b)
False
95.

The proper amount of time to lather your hands with soap is___________ seconds

a)

20

b)

30

c)

40

d)

50

96.

What pieces of PPE do you need for Contact Precautions? (choose all that apply)

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

Goggles

97.

What pieces of PPE do you need for Airborne Precautions? (choose all that apply)

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

Goggles

98.

What pieces of PPE do you need for Droplet Precautions? (choose all that apply)

a)

Gloves

b)

Mask

c)

Gown

d)

Goggles

99.

What one piece of Personal Protective Equipment is a Standard Precaution and therefore used for ALL patients?

a)

Goggles

b)

Gown

c)

Gloves

d)

Mask

100.

When putting on your PPE what is the first piece of PPE that you put on?

a)

Googles

b)

Gown

c)

Mask

d)

Gloves

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