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WorksheetsQUIZ 3 OFFICERS BATCH 2023-24
Total questions: 105
Worksheet time: 41mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
As per the revised LTE norms what is the maximum amount of loan that can be given in case of loans above 30 lacs and upto 75 lacs
a)
90% of the agreement value & cost of additional work
b)
75% of realisable value additioanl ROI-0.10% if loan is more than 80% of agreement value & additional work
c)
80% of realisable value additioanl ROI-0.10% if loan is more than 80% of agreement value & additional work
d)
1 or 2
e)
1 or 3
2.
What is the maximum amount that can be given without income documents in case of car loan
a)
5.00 Lacs
b)
7.50 Lacs
c)
10.00 Lacs
d)
15.00 Lacs
e)
20.00 Lacs
3.
What is the maximum LTV ratio to be maintained under Future Rent Receievables Scheme if industrial property is obtained as collateral security.
a)
50%
b)
25%
c)
65%
d)
75%
e)
100%
4.
Maximum Home Loan that can be granted under Baroda Home Improvement Loan is
a)
50 lacs
b)
100.00 Lacs
c)
200.00 Lacs
d)
500.00 Lacs
e)
None of above
5.
What should be the minimum Turnover in the account in case of Overdraft Facility Sanctioned under Baroda Mortgage Loan to Non Individuals
a)
10% of the limit
b)
25% of the limit
c)
40% of the limit
d)
50% of the limit
e)
None of the above
6.
Education loan Professional courses like: Engineering, Medical, Agriculture, Veterinary, Law, Dental, Management, Architecture in India are covered under __ Scheme
a)
Baroda Vidya
b)
Baroda Gyan
c)
Baroda Scholar
d)
Baroda Skill Loan Scheme
e)
None of above
7.
One of the following is not correct in case of gold loan
a)
The weights of specially minted gold coins should not exceed 50 grams per customer.
b)
Studded Ornaments with gold content less than 60% of the weight of the Jewellery/ ornaments will not be accepted.
c)
The loan shall be secured by minimum 18 carat gold Jewellery/ ornaments/ specially minted coins/ hall marked gold Jewellery/ ornaments.
d)
No loan can be granted against bullion/ Primary gold.
e)
All are correct
8.
The following information is available from the balance sheet of a unit,
Total liabilities - 20 lacs, Current liabilities -7 lacs, Term liabilities -4 lacs, what will be DE Ratio?
a)
4.5
b)
3.15
c)
2.26
d)
1.22
e)
0.95
9.
Which of the following method should be used to assess the wrokign capital limits upto rs. 5 crore for a micro enterprise
a)
first method of lending
b)
turnover method
c)
either A or B
d)
Higher of A and B
e)
Lower of A and B
10.
A Company delas with SBI. It has book-debts of Rs.100 lacs under LC issued by BOB. Now, Book- Debts of Rs.100 lacs is discounted by SBI after getting confirmation from BOB. Where you will find such Book-Debts outstanding details in Company's Financials?
a)
Under Current Assets as Book-Debts Outstanding
b)
Under Non-Current Assets as the company has got the money against Book- Debts from SBI
c)
Under Foot-note or notes to the account of the Company Financials
d)
It will not appear anywhere in the Balance Sheet as SBI will get money from BOB.
e)
None of above
11.
Which of the following is NOT a Cash Expenses transaction in Profit and Loss Account?
a)
Amortisation
b)
Depreciation
c)
Writing off Preliminary Expenses
d)
All of the above
e)
None of above
12.
As per GCEMP what is the maximum aggregate exposure (FB+NFB) for individual / propreitor as borrower ?
a)
5 crores
b)
10 crores
c)
15 crores
d)
20 crores
e)
25 crores
13.
A company had purchased Plant & Machinery of Rs.100 lacs on 01.01.2022 and as on 31.03.2022 the Plant & Machinery was still under installation stage. The investment in Plant & Machinery will shown under which head of the Balance Sheet?
a)
Fixed Assets
b)
Non-Current Assets
c)
In the foot note of Balance Sheet
d)
Capital Work in Progress
e)
None of above
14.
What is partial credit enhancement to corporate bonds ?
a)
A type of bond that provides partial credit to a company
b)
a credit facility provided by banks to improve credit rating of bond issued
c)
a type of bond that provides partial ownership of a company
d)
a credit facility provided by companies to improve their credit rating
e)
a credit facility to meet working capital requirement of the company
15.
A company has total capital of Rs.200 lacs. It also has investment in its associate concern of Rs.30 lacs, Fixed Assets of Rs.20 lacs, Intangible Assets of Rs.10 lacs and loss of Rs.5 lacs. HOW MUCH IS THE TANGIBLE NETWORTH OF THE COMPANY?
a)
200 lacs
b)
170 lacs
c)
160 lacs
d)
190 lacs
e)
155 lacs
16.
A company has total Inventory holding level of 35 days as on 31.03.2022 which has been increased to 60 days as on 31.03.2023. Which of the following is the best indicator of increase in Inventory Holding Level?
a)
The company requires more working capital now.
b)
The company is improving its business model.
c)
The company requires less working capital
d)
The debtors holding level mostly increases due to increases in Sales
e)
None of above
17.
Small enterprise may be defined as whose investment in P& M and turnover does not exceed _______
a)
5 crores, 20 crores
b)
10 crores, 20 crores
c)
10 crores, 50 crores
d)
10 crores, 100 crores
e)
None of above
18.
Branch Manager will monitor all the accounts in CREMON with FB and NFB exposure of ______
a)
1 crore and below
b)
1 crore and above
c)
5 crore and below
d)
5 crore and above
e)
None of above
19.
QIS III is to be submitted in ________
a)
Withing 1 month after close of the half year
b)
Withing 2 months after close of the half year
c)
Withing 3 months after close of the half year
d)
Withing 6 months after close of the half year
e)
None of above
20.
Regional office will submit details of account causing concern for exposure between 1 crore and 5 crores before _ of each month to Zonal office
a)
10th
b)
15th
c)
20th
d)
22nd
e)
None of above
21.
What is the maximum daily POS/Ecom txn limit of BOB World Sapphire Card
a)
100000
b)
300000
c)
500000
d)
1000000
e)
October 9th
22.
Which of the following vertical is not associated with the Meet & Greet - Mobile Application?
a)
Retail liabilities
b)
C & I
c)
Retail Banking (assets) Department
d)
MSME
e)
None of above
23.
With respect to BOB World Smart Insure Platform which of the following is incorrect ?
a)
360 degree view of customers insurance policies
b)
availability of real timetracking of customer application
c)
option to lodge claim service request with live tracking of their current status
d)
All are correct
e)
None are correct
24.
What is the maximum amount for Fund transfer P2P after setting / resetting of UPI PIN in Baroda Bhim Pay UPI
a)
1000
b)
5000
c)
10000
d)
25000
e)
50000
25.
What is the maximum amount that can be loaded on baroa prepaid gift card
a)
2000
b)
1000
c)
5000
d)
10000
e)
25000
26.
Joining fee/ annual fee for BOB Eterna Card is
a)
500
b)
700
c)
1000
d)
2499
e)
Lifetime free
27.
Retail user can purchase maximum _ cards in a year
a)
2
b)
5
c)
10
d)
20
e)
None of above
28.
What is the menu for automatic reducation in drawing power from overdraft limit in finnacle system in housing loan
a)
DPRED
b)
DRWPWRED
c)
DEREDUCE
d)
DPREDUCE
e)
None of above
29.
What is the new menu for deletion of erroneous transactions related to DD/BC at branch level
a)
DDBCDEL
b)
DDTRAND
c)
DDTRANDEL
d)
BCTRANDEL
e)
None of above
30.
What is the menu for fee collection from affiiliated schools for Rajasthan Madhyamik Shiksha Board
a)
RMSBFEE
b)
RSBEFEE
c)
RMSBSEFEE
d)
RSBMEFEE
e)
None of above
31.
What is the new menu introduced for processing of gold loans accounts end to end process
a)
GLDLOAN
b)
GOLDLOAN
c)
GLOAN
d)
GDLN
e)
None of above
32.
What is the new menu for submission of details of education loans covered under NCGTC
a)
NCGTC
b)
NCGTCCVR
c)
NCGTCVR
d)
NCGTCCVRG
e)
None of above
33.
What is the maximum loan amount under third tranche of PM SVANidhi Scheme?
a)
Rs. 10000
b)
Rs. 20000
c)
Rs. 50000
d)
Rs. 100000
34.
As per our bank's policy on Co-Lending Model, NBFCs shall be required to retain a minimum of ___ per cent share of the individual loans on their books.
a)
5
b)
10
c)
20
d)
25
35.
As per Reserve bank of India guidelines, the stipulated NSFR (Net Stable Funding Ratio) for Banks should be equal to at least ______ % on an ongoing basis.
a)
4.5 PCT
b)
18 PCT
c)
25 PCT
d)
100 PCT
36.
The Reserve Bank of India in its Statement on Developmental andRegulatory Policies (October 2023) proposed to include beneficiaries of___________ Scheme in all centres under the PIDF Scheme.
a)
PM Kisan
b)
PM Svanidhi
c)
PM Vishwakarma
d)
PM Matsya Sampada
37.
The IRDAI has introduced changes to the Indian Motor Tariff 2002,making it compulsory for General Insurers to include coverage for___________ under IMT-29 (Indian Motor Tariff) as an inbuilt feature within private car insurance policies.
a)
Minors
b)
Employer
c)
Employees
d)
Owners
38.
What is the name of our Bank’s Rajbhasha Page on Bank’s website?
a)
Samvaad
b)
Shabdnaad
c)
Rajbhasha Pragati
d)
Sanskriti
39.
What is the full form of FLCC in regard to Financial Inclusion guidelines?
a)
Financial Liability & Credit co-operati on Centre
b)
Financial Literacy & Career Counselling Centre
c)
Financial Literacy & Credit Counselling Centre
d)
Financial Literacy & Customer Conversion Centre
40.
How much commission is paid for credit card which is issued on Paid basis to BC?
a)
225/-
b)
250/-
c)
125/-
d)
150/-
e)
None of the Above
41.
As per Priority Sector Guidelines, Loans for Food and Agro-processing up to an aggregate sanctioned limit of Rs._____ crore per borrower from the banking system will be classified under Agriculture
a)
75
b)
50
c)
25
d)
100
e)
None of the Above
42.
Minimum Age for appointment of Assayer for Gold Loan is ?
a)
18
b)
25
c)
30
d)
21
e)
None of the Above
43.
What is the maximum Limit of processing Charges under Gold Loan scheme to Agriculture for advances up to 3 Lakh to 25 Lakh?
a)
Rs.1000 +GST
b)
Rs. 2000+ GSt
c)
Rs. 2500+ GST
d)
Rs. 3500 + GST
e)
None of the Above
44.
No Review is to be carried out under following Scheme code under Gold Loan?
a)
LA411, LA180,CC044
b)
LA411, LA180,CC044,OD043
c)
LA411, LA180,OD043
d)
LA411, LA180
e)
None of the Above
45.
What is the charges per month of safe keeping the Jewels after closure of Loan Account nd Jewels are not collected by Borrower?
a)
Rs. 500 + GST
b)
Rs. 250 +GST
c)
RS.100+ GST
d)
Rs.1000+GST
e)
None of the Above
46.
Which is the new Zero Tolerance area added under the parameters during Internal Audit?
a)
Non Compliance in KYC norms in newly opened accounts
b)
Non compliance of guidelines in handling of PINs and Debit Cards.
c)
Attending and rectification of CEMU alerts by the Branches
d)
Periodical visit by Security Officer as per Bank guidelines.
e)
None of the Above
47.
The threshold for RFA (Red flagged Accounts) is an exposure of Rs.____ or more at the level of a bank irrespective of the lending arrangement?
a)
Rs. 2 Crore
b)
Rs. 5 Crore
c)
Rs. 3 crore
d)
Rs.10 Crore
e)
None of the Above
48.
What is the term for a person who exposes corrupt practices with in an organization or government?
a)
Informant
b)
Whistle Blower
c)
Accomplice
d)
Conspirator
e)
None of the Above
49.
Which international organization publishes the corruption perceptions index (CPI) annually?
a)
United Nations
b)
World Bank
c)
International Monetary Fund
d)
Transparency International
e)
None of the Above
50.
Baroda Alokchandra Bravery Award is institutionalised in year_____?
a)
2018
b)
2019
c)
2020
d)
2017
e)
None of the Above
51.
ESG Stands for ?
a)
Economic social guarantee
b)
Environmental Social Governanace
c)
Economic Service Group
d)
Emerging Social Guard
e)
None of the Above
52.
Minimum amount per contribution under Tier- II account of NPS is?
a)
Rs.50/-
b)
Rs.250/-
c)
Rs. 500/-
d)
Rs. 1000/-
e)
None of the Above
53.
All Non Financial transaction under NPS are chargeable for Rs…..?
a)
Rs. 50/-
b)
Rs. 100/-
c)
Rs. 250/-
d)
Rs. 30/-
e)
None of the Above
54.
If contribution under APY is discontinued then after how many months, account will be deactivated?
a)
12 months
b)
24 months
c)
36 months
d)
6 months
e)
None of the Above
55.
Which form is used for Extension of PPF account with Deposit after Maturity?
a)
Form no. 5
b)
Form No. 3
c)
Form No.2
d)
Form No.4
e)
None of the Above
56.
Subscription in PPF account qualify for tax rebate under which section of Income Tax Act?
a)
Sec- 80D
b)
Sec - 80C
c)
Sec- 80E
d)
Sec-80DDE
e)
None of the Above
57.
How many nominees can be added in PPF account?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
None of the Above
58.
Banking Regulation Act,1949 was enacted to regulate
a)
Bank of India
b)
banking companies
c)
cooperative land development banks
d)
primary agricultural credit societies
59.
Banks are being ranked under ____ for rendering based on customers service rendered by :-
a)
RBI
b)
IBA
c)
IIBF
d)
BCSBI
60.
Banks disclose the information about their borrowers to RBI under provisions of
a)
Directives of RBI
b)
Section 45-C, RBI Act
c)
Section 45 of Banking Regulation Act
d)
Directions of Finance Ministry
61.
BCSBI is related to
a)
BASEL II
b)
corporate governance
c)
capital market
d)
customer service
62.
BCSBI stands for
a)
Banking company and standards Board of India
b)
Banking codes and standards Board of India
c)
Banking codes and strategy Board of India
d)
Banking company and strategy Board of India
63.
Bank notes issued by RBI are exempted from payment of stamp duty as per which of the following
a)
Section 12, Indian Stamp Act 1899
b)
Section 23, Banking Regulation Act
c)
Section 5, Negotiable Instrument Act
d)
Section 29, RBI Act
64.
Cheque has already been negotiated by A to B and by B to C. How many times more this instrument can be negotiated?
a)
Thrice
b)
Twice
c)
Once
d)
No limit
65.
Debtor X has executed a Demand Promissory Note and a Hypothecation agreement to Bank Y. Then the bank has made available the finance. It is a/an
a)
Valid contract
b)
Invalid contract
c)
Quasi contract
d)
No contract
66.
For ensuring protection under Section 85(1) of Negotiable Instruments Act, a banker is to ensure that the endorsement is
a)
Genuine
b)
Regular
c)
Genuine and regular
d)
Regular and legible
67.
For which of the following, the acceptance of the drawee of the instrument is required?
a)
D. P. Note
b)
Demand Bill of Exchange
c)
Usance Bill of Exchange
d)
Draft
68.
What is the Maximum Age for eligible for Personal Accident Insurnce in SB 186 Scheme?
a)
Up to Age of 70 years
b)
Up to Age of 75 years
c)
Up to Age of 60 Years
d)
Till Death
e)
None of the Above
69.
SB 114 pensioner account can be opened with Minimum Rs.
a)
Rs. 100/-
b)
Rs. 1000/-
c)
Rs. 500/-
d)
Rs. 5/-
e)
None of the Above
70.
When can be SB account of SHG can be opened?
a)
After 6 months of group formtion
b)
After 3 meetings of group formation
c)
After 3 months of group formtion
d)
After 2 meetings of group formation
e)
None of the Above
71.
What is the maximum Balance Limit under Baroda Champ SB Account (SB 156) ?
a)
Rs. 5 Lakh
b)
Rs. 10 lakh
c)
Rs. 1 Lakh
d)
Rs. 50000/-
e)
None of the Above
72.
Which Debit Card is issued under Baroda Salary Premium Account (SB176) ?
a)
Rupay Platinum Card
b)
Rupay Sapphire Card
c)
Rupay ETERNA card
d)
Any of the above
e)
None of the Above
73.
Stock Audit of NPA Account is to be conducted where Working Capital Limit is more than Rs. ?
a)
Rs. 50 Lakh
b)
Rs. 1 crore
c)
Rs. 2 crore
d)
Rs. 5 crore
e)
None of the Above
74.
The Corporate policy for management & recovery of NON PERFORMING ASSETS, ADVANCES (DOMESTIC BRANCHES) 2023 will be valid up to
a)
31.03.2025
b)
31.03.2026
c)
31.03.2027
d)
31.03.2024
e)
None of the Above
75.
What is the primary issue observed regarding e- auctions of Properties in symbolic possesion, which leads to either cancel e- auction and return the auction amount with interest?
a)
Inadequate intrest from potential Bidders
b)
Delay in the auction process
c)
Difficulty in conduction online auctions
d)
Failure to deliver physical possesion to successful bidders.
e)
None of the Above
76.
What is the advice course of auction for branches regarding the E- Auction of properties in Symbolic Possession under SARFAESI Act?
a)
Branch should increase the number of properties in e- Auction
b)
Braches should lower the reserve prices for e- Auction.
c)
Branches should continue with e- Auction on Symbolic Possession as before
d)
Branches are advised not to put the properties for e- Auction on symbolic possession.
e)
None of the Above
77.
What is the maximum repayment schedule for OTS amount above 25 lakhs and up to 50 lakhs.
a)
Balance within 45 working days of sanction.
b)
Balance within 60 working days of sanction.
c)
Balance within 30 working days of sanction.
d)
Balance within 90 working days of sanction.
e)
None of the Above
78.
What is the maximum repayment schedule for OTS amount above 100 lakhs for MSME accounts.
a)
Balance within 45 working days of sanction.
b)
Balance within 60 working days of sanction.
c)
Balance within 30 working days of sanction.
d)
Balance within 90 working days of sanction.
e)
None of the Above
79.
Collateral Management Company provides following services
a)
Quality Cerification
b)
Preservation of Commodity
c)
Insurance of commodity
d)
All the above
e)
None of the Above
80.
Which among the following is an Internal cause of account becoming NPA
a)
close of factory due to strike or court order
b)
Non Realisable of securities
c)
adverse governement policy guidelines affecting the same of product
d)
diversion of fund for unproudtcive expenditure
e)
None of the Above
81.
Minimum & Maximum period in case of FCNR(B) accounts are_____ & _______
a)
1 Year & 5 Year
b)
1 Year & 10 Year
c)
6 Month & 10 Year
d)
6 Month & 5 Year
e)
None
82.
Which of the following is correct for Liberalised Remittance Scheme(LRS)
a)
No restriction on the frequency of remittance
b)
Its mandatory to have PAN to make remittance
c)
Both A& B
d)
Once remittance is made for an amount USD2,50,000 during financial year a resident individual would not be eligible to make further remittance.
e)
All of the above
83.
NRI is an individual who stays outside India
a)
Under circumstances indicating an intention to stay
b)
Any citizen deputed outside India for a temporary period
c)
For purppose of carrying out employment or any business or vacation
d)
Working abroad on assignment with foreign companies
e)
All of the above
84.
Which of the following is NOT correct combination of Account with type of account
a)
NRE-Saving,Current,Recurring,Fixed Deposit
b)
EEFC-Saving,Current,Recurring,Fixed Deposit
c)
NRO-Saving,Current,Recurring,Fixed Deposit
d)
FCNR-Term Deposit only
e)
Both A &B
85.
Forign national is on a one month visit to India. He wants to open a bank account. Which type of account he can open
a)
NRE
b)
NRO
c)
He is not allowed to open account
d)
RBI Permission Required
e)
He can open any account
86.
What is the organization's policy regarding diversity and inclusion?
a)
To value differences and understand that diversity and inclusion are good for the organization
b)
To ignore differences and avoid diversity and inclusion
c)
To only consider diversity in certain situations
d)
To discriminate against certain categories of people
87.
Ethics may be defined as going beyond what is legal and doing what is
a)
Easy
b)
Popular
c)
Right
d)
Profitable
88.
Which statement best defines ethics?
a)
A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by local law.
b)
A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by company policy.
c)
A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by the majority opinion.
d)
A set of beliefs about what is right and wrong, as determined by personal moral beliefs.
89.
Which of the following elements in our Code of Ethics reinforce our commitment to protecting the environment? (Select all that apply)
a)
We strive for environmental sustainability and comply with all applicable laws and regulations.
b)
We are committed to promoting a green future through our activities, including our efforts to mitigate climate impact.
c)
We do not engage in or facilitate an activity prohibited or restricted by economic and trade sanctions
d)
We stand committed to playing our part in the transition towards a low carbon and resource efficient economy.
90.
When was the Bank’s Code of Ethics Launched?
a)
On 21st May 2022 at the Annual Business Conference 2022.
b)
On 20th July 2021 on our Bank’s Foundation Day.
c)
On 26th January 2022 on Republic Day.
d)
On 10th August 2021 when the Corporate Ethics Function was established.
91.
Which approach does our Code of Ethics follow?
a)
Customer centric approach.
b)
Employee centric approach.
c)
Stakeholder centric approach.
d)
Shareholder centric approach.
92.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, updation of Red Flag and White Flag is done on a ____________ basis.
a)
Realtime
b)
Monthly
c)
Quarterly
d)
Half Yearly
93.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, which of the following is NOT correct?
a)
There are 2 types of Flagging
b)
Event recording on quarterly basis
c)
Employees do not have option to appeal
d)
Past Red Flags cannot be eliminated with future White Flags
94.
In Finacle, Money Laundering Risk categorisation of the customers is done in periodicity.
a)
Half Yearly for March and September every year
b)
Half Yearly for June and December every year
c)
Quaterly
d)
Yearly
95.
Enhance Due Diligence is to be undertaken to which of the following type of customer
a)
Low income group
b)
Small Deposit Accounts
c)
High Risk Customers
d)
Self Help Group
96.
Simplified Due Diligence is to be undertaken to which of the following type of customer
a)
Low income group
b)
Politician
c)
Firms with Sleeping partners
d)
NGOs receiving donations
97.
Small Deposit Accounts are those accounts where the balance of all accounts and total credits of all accounts at any point of time in a year should not exceed Rs. & Rs. .
a)
50000/- & 100000/-
b)
100000/- & 50000/-
c)
100000/- &
200000/-
d)
200000/- &
100000/-
98.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, Examination of Staff Accountability falls under pillar.
a)
2nd
b)
3rd
c)
1st
d)
4th
e)
none of these
99.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, updation of Red Flag and White Flag is done on a basis.
a)
Realtime
b)
Monthly
c)
Quarterly
d)
Half Yearly
e)
none of these
100.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, Employees coming under Category will be liable for direct initiation of disciplinary action.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
None of the Above
101.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, who is responsible for uploading Red Flag in the HRMS system?
a)
CIAD
b)
Compliance Dept
c)
ZIAD
d)
HR
e)
none of these
102.
How many White Flag Parameters for continued compliant behaviours has been specified in the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability?
a)
19
b)
29
c)
39
d)
49
e)
none of these
103.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, the Low- Risk Area carries Red Flag Points.
a)
1
b)
3
c)
5
d)
10
e)
none of these
104.
As per the policy on Administrative Enforcement of Accountability, the Medium Risk Area carries Red Flag Points.
a)
1
b)
3
c)
5
d)
10
e)
none of these
105.
Which of the following is a in-appropriate behavior?
a)
(A) Employees should avoid clicking on links in posts, updates and links which look suspicious.
b)
(B) Posting, uploading or forwarding any kind of material that is false or defamatory statement about any person or Bank.
c)
(C) Posting, uploading or forwarding any kind of confidential information about customers, staff members or the Bank.
d)
(B) and (C) both
e)
none of these
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