WorksheetsPhysiology Practice Exam 1 (2023)
Total questions: 64
Worksheet time: 32mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Wen comparing fused (complex) tetanus with unfused (incomplete) tetanus, which is
a)
complete tetanus occurs at a lower frequency of stimulation than unfused tetanus
b)
complete tetanus involves some relaxation between twitches
c)
complete tetanus involves development of maximum tension
d)
complete tetanus would occur when there is more time between twitch contractions
2.
A stroke is due to the sudden lack of blood to a region of the brain resulting in sensory/motor impairments. An ischemic stroke is caused by:
a)
reduced or restricted blood flow to regions of the brain
b)
hemorrhage in the brain
c)
bursting of blood vessels in the brain
3.
Which of the following will increase the rate of a reaction in the human body?
a)
low substrate concentration
b)
pH much higher than the optimal range for that reaction
c)
presence of an enzyme
d)
body temperature over 108 degrees F
4.
In the autonomic nervous system, postglanglionic sympathetic neurons secrete ____ onto adrenergic receptors, and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons secrete _____ onto muscarinic ____ receptors
a)
acetylcholine, acetylcholine, cholinergic
b)
norepinephrine, acetylcholine, cholinergic
c)
norepinephrine, acetylcholine, adrenergic
d)
acetylcholine, norepinephrine, cholinergic
5.
The major steps of triglyceride breakdown (in order) to provide ATP are:
a)
liposomes digest triglycerides transport into nucleus, keto--oxidation, citric acid cycle
b)
lipases digest triglycerides, transport into mitochondria, beta-oxidation, glycolysis
c)
lipases digest triglycerides, transport into mitochondria, beta-oxidation, citric acid cycle
d)
proteases digest triglycerides, transport into mitochondria, beta-oxidation, citric acid cycle
6.
Synergism occurs when:
a)
one hormone triggers the secretion of a second hormone
b)
hormones working together produce a smaller effect than predicated
c)
hormones working together produce a larger effect than predicted
d)
a hormone can exert its full effects only in the presence of another hormone
e)
one hormone inhibits the release of a second hormone
7.
The primary role of the citric acid cycle is to:
a)
form NADH and FADH2 to transport electrons to the electron transport chain
b)
form lactate
c)
make ATP directly
d)
make carbon dioxide
8.
The estrogens are an example of a _____ hormone and are transported in the blood bound to ____
a)
protein, binding globulins
b)
glycolipid, lipoproteins
c)
amine, lipoproteins
d)
steroid, binding globulins
9.
A fluid mosaic model is used to describe the cell membrane and the membrane is a mosaic because it ______
a)
contains phospholipids and cholesterol
b)
contains membrane embedded proteins
c)
protects the cell from bacteria or other pathogens
d)
communicates with other cells
10.
The ATP generating pathway with the highest maximum power output requires which of the following
a)
NADH
b)
creatine kinase
c)
lactase
d)
PFK
11.
Any substance that enters or leaves the internal environment of the body crosses _____
a)
connective tissue
b)
muscle cells
c)
mesentary
d)
epithelial tissue
12.
Smallest living unit in the body or "basic functional unit" is a(n)
a)
cell
b)
tissue
c)
atom
d)
organ
13.
Plasma is
a)
a subdivision of the intracellular fluid
b)
a subdivision of the extracellular fluid
c)
the fluid portion of the cytosol
d)
the fluid surrounding the organelles
14.
Which of the following changes would increase the amount of active hormone available?
a)
increase in metabolism
b)
increase in the amount of hormone bound to binding proteins
c)
increase in secretion and decrease in metabolism
d)
decrease in secretion and increase in metabolism
15.
The electron transport chain produces ATP by which of the following
a)
movement of H+ ions through the inner mitochondrial membrane
b)
delivery of NADH and FADH2 to the citric acid cycle
c)
movement of fats from the cytosol to the mitochondria
d)
movement of H+ ions through the ATP synthase
16.
Which of the following is an example of local communication by the neuroendocrine system?
a)
neurotransmission
b)
paratransmission
c)
exocrine
d)
paracrine
17.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the cell membrane?
a)
primary location for hormone receptors
b)
physical barrier: separate extracellular space from intracellular space
c)
release hormones
d)
allow peptide hormones unlimited access to the intracellular space
18.
Hepatocytes are extremely active in protein synthesis, thus which of the following organelles would be prominent in their cytoplasm?
a)
peroxisomes
b)
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c)
mitochondria
d)
rough endoplasmic reticulum
e)
lysosomes
19.
You need to supply your body with all the essential amino acids so you put peanut butter on toast since peanut butter alone is
a)
a complete protein
b)
not absorbed in the small intestine
c)
an incomplete protein
d)
a food with a high glycemic index
20.
In the aerobic metabolism of glucose, if the electron transport chain was blocked, the body would not be able to utilize oxygen since it acts as the _____
a)
electron donor
b)
final ATP acceptor
c)
ATP synthase
d)
final electron acceptor
21.
Epinephrine is a(n) ____ hormone which is derived from _____
a)
peptide, amino acids
b)
steroid, lipids
c)
amine, tryptophan
d)
amine, tyrosine
22.
The reactions of glycolysis occur in the cell's ___; the reactions of the citric acid cycle occur in the ___
a)
cytoplasm, cytoplasm
b)
mitochondria, cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria, mitochondria
d)
cytoplasm, mitochondria
23.
The falling (depolarization) phase of the action potential is due mainly to:
a)
Na+ flow in the cell only
b)
Na+ flow out of the cell only
c)
K+ flow into the cell only
d)
K+ flow out of the cell only
24.
As ATP binds to the myosin head during a muscle contraction cycle, the myosin head immediately
a)
initiates binding with actin
b)
rotates
c)
detaches from actin
d)
completes the power stroke
25.
In order for cross bridges to form in contracting skeletal muscle, calcium must
a)
bind to troponin which moves the tropomyosin
b)
phosphorylate the tropomyosin which moves it
c)
bind to tropomyosin which moves the troponin
d)
bind to myosin to move the tropomyosin
26.
As the force on a muscle fiber is increased
a)
the fiber shortening velocity decreases
b)
the fiber metabolic rate decreases
c)
the t-tubules release Ca2+
d)
cytosolic (Ca2+) decreases
27.
The force generated by a muscle is related to
a)
the cytosolic (Na+) of the active fibers
b)
the muscle temperature only
c)
the number of motor units recruited and the frequency of activation (rate coding) of those fibers
d)
the number of actin-titin crossbridges
28.
You accidentally got hit in the jugular vein with a curare tipped arrow. Which of the following is likely to occur at the neuromuscular junction?
a)
Norepinephrine will prevent the release of acetylcholine from alpha motoneurons
b)
Curare will bind to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and block the effects of acetylcholine
c)
curare will prevent the release of acetylcholine from alpha motoneurons
d)
curare will bind to muscarinic acetylcholine receptors and generate an IPSP
29.
Which statements apply to the parasympathetic division of the nervous system?
a)
it is dominant during "resting and digesting" and its ganglia are near their target organs
b)
epinephrine is the primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic division
c)
it is dominant during exercise
d)
it is dominant during "resting and digesting"
30.
Graded potentials may
a)
be called EPSPs or IPSPs
b)
all of these actions
c)
hyper polarize the membrane
d)
initiate an action potential
e)
depolarize the membrane to the threshold voltage
31.
Damage to which of the following brain structures would most likely interfere with your circadian rhythm?
a)
medulla
b)
pineal gland
c)
thalamus
d)
cerebellum
e)
pons
32.
Which of the following would increase the conduction rate of action potentials down the axon?
a)
presence of myelin
b)
axons with small diameters
c)
presence of nodes of Schwann
d)
release of an excitatory neurotransmitter
33.
The multiple thin branched structures on some neurons whose main function is to receive incoming signals are the
a)
cell bodies
b)
axons
c)
soma
d)
dendrites
34.
An excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
a)
depolarizes a neuron, increasing the likelihood of an action potential
b)
depolarizes a neuron, decreasing the likelihood of an action potential
c)
hyper polarizes a neuron, increasing the likelihood of an action potential
d)
hyper polarizes a neuron, decreasing the likelihood of an action potential
35.
Which is a characteristic of slow-twitch oxidative skeletal muscle fibers?
a)
high endurance and a large number of mitochondria
b)
fast speed of contraction
c)
used for sprinting at max speed
d)
primarily use oxidative metabolism and few mitochondria
e)
primarily use glycolic metabolism
36.
The primary somatic sensory cortex
a)
is the termination point for sensory input from the skin and viscera
b)
directs the somatic motor division
c)
provides involuntary control of breathing
d)
sends information to the skin
37.
Which of the following meninges stabilizes the spinal cord within the vertebral column?
a)
choroid
b)
pia
c)
dura
d)
arachnoid
38.
The adrenal medulla is important to the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system because it
a)
releases epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into the blood
b)
is considered a modified sympathetic ganglion and releases epinephrine directly into the blood
c)
is a source of acetylcholine
d)
is considered a modified parasympathetic ganglion
39.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the size principle of motor unit recruitment?
a)
Slow motor units are recruited first
b)
large, fast motor units are recruited first
c)
small motor units are recruited during high intensity activities
d)
all motor unites are recruited during activities requiring low effort (e.g. walking)
40.
The function of the t-tubules is to
a)
bring action potentials into the interior of the muscle fiber
b)
form a crossbridge
c)
provide ATP for contraction
d)
provide elasticity to the sarcomere
41.
During a(n) ____ contraction the muscle produces force but length increases, whereas one that generates force without movement is ______
a)
concentric, isometric
b)
isotonic, isometric
c)
isometric, isotonic
d)
eccentric, isometric
e)
concentric, eccentric
42.
The function of the titin protein is to
a)
stabilize the position of myosin and provide elasticity
b)
release calcium during contraction
c)
cover the myosin binding site on the actin molecule
d)
interact with actin during contraction and provide elasticity
43.
According to the length tension relationship in muscle, the active force output of a muscle
a)
is greatest when the muscle is stretched to twice its resting length
b)
is greatest when sarcomere length allows maximum actin-myosin head overlap (i.e. roughly at the resting length of the muscle)
c)
is not influenced by changes in muscle length
d)
is greatest when the muscle is shortened to its shortest possible length
44.
Calcium is important in the synapse because it
a)
is necessary for acetylcholine synthesis
b)
leaves the axon terminal hyper polarizing the cell
c)
binds to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, opening ion channels, and triggering graded potentials
d)
signals the exocytosis of the neurotransmitter
45.
Huxley offered two observations that led to the sliding filament theory. Select the statement that summarizes one of his observations of muscle during shortening
a)
the H zone expanded to a length equal to the length of the entire sacromere
b)
the Z lines and the thin filaments were no longer attached
c)
the A band length did not change, but the I band decreased
d)
the length of the A band decreased
46.
An important function of the cerebrospinal fluid is to
a)
regulate the number of Schwann cells in the brain
b)
block glucose from entering the brain
c)
increase brain weight by ~30 fold
d)
regulate the extracellular environment of the brain
e)
block substances from crossing the choroid plexus
47.
The resting membrane potential results from
a)
higher membrane permeability to Cl-
b)
even distribution of ions
c)
concentration gradient for Na+
d)
higher membrane permeability to K+
48.
A motor unit consists of
a)
one alpha motoneuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers it innervates
b)
one axon terminal branch and the myofibrils it controls
c)
one skeletal muscle fibers and the neuron that innervates that fiber
d)
one skeletal muscle fiber and all the alpha motoneurons that control the fiber
49.
Which of the following would increase the amount of neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft?
a)
blocking the release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic neuron
b)
increasing neurotransmitter diffusion out of the synaptic cleft
c)
returning more neurotransmitter to the presynaptic neuron for reuse
d)
blocking the enzymes that inactivate the neurotransmitter
50.
An individual was in a car accident and hit his head which caused damage to the frontal lobe regions and impacted his ability to plan movements. Which brain regions were damaged in the accident?
a)
limbic system and hippocampus
b)
cerebrum only
c)
primary somatosensory cortex and premotor cortex
d)
primary motor cortex and premotor cortex
e)
primary associative cortex and basal ganglia
51.
The I band of normal length, relaxed skeletal muscle fibers contains
a)
1 and 4
b)
2, lack actin
c)
3, contain crossbridges
d)
1, lack myosin
e)
4, contain troponin
52.
The blood-brain barrier contains
a)
capillary endothelial cells that are wrapped in myelin
b)
leaky junctions promoting the movement of solute between endothelial cells
c)
oligocyte foot processes that promote tight junctions
d)
astrocyte foot processes that promote tight junctions
53.
You injured your ankle and start taking NSAIDS to reduce pain and swelling. After a few weeks of taking NSAIDS daily you notice that you are experiencing some stomach discomfort. This is likely due to the fact that NSAIDS:
a)
inhibit both COX-1 and COX-2
b)
produce arachidonic acid
c)
are a selective COX-1 inhibitor
d)
are a selective COX-2 inhibitor
54.
An anabolic reaction
a)
results in the breakdown of biomolecules
b)
results in the synthesis of biomolecules
c)
only occurs in the mitochondria
d)
never requires energy
55.
Local anesthetics produce anesthesia by blocking the depolarization of action potentials. This is achieved by anesthetics binding to and blocking
a)
ligand gated K+ channels
b)
voltage gated Na+ channels
c)
voltage gated Ca2+ channels
d)
voltage gated K+ channels
56.
Which of the following takes into account both the quality and quantity of carbohydrate in a food serving?
a)
glycemic period
b)
carbo load
c)
glycemic index
d)
glycemic load
57.
An individual was stabbed in the back and sustained damage to his dorsal root. Which of the following information in his spinal cord would be affected?
a)
sensory information to the ventral root
b)
motor information to the CNS
c)
motor information from the CNS
d)
sensory information to the CNS
58.
The end product of anaerobic glycolysis is
a)
creatine kinase
b)
NADH
c)
lactate
d)
pyruvate
59.
One of the fates of lactic acid is:
a)
reconversion to Acetyl CoA which is utilized by the liver for energy
b)
transfer to the heart to make new glucose (gluconeogensis)
c)
reconversion to NADH and used for energy by aerobic tissues
d)
reconversion to pyruvate and used for energy by aerobic tissues
60.
Match the following with the appropriate term: storage form of carbohydrates
a)
glycogen
b)
triglycerides
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
glucose
e)
unsaturated fatty acids
61.
Match the following with the appropriate term: storage form of lipids
a)
glycogen
b)
triglycerides
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
glucose
e)
unsaturated fatty acids
62.
Match the following with the appropriate term: primary storage site of carbohydrates
a)
glycogen
b)
triglycerides
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
glucose
e)
unsaturated fatty acids
63.
Match the following with the appropriate term: monosaccharide in the body
a)
glycogen
b)
triglycerides
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
glucose
e)
unsaturated fatty acids
64.
Match the following with the appropriate term: liquid at room temperature
a)
glycogen
b)
triglycerides
c)
skeletal muscle
d)
glucose
e)
unsaturated fatty acids
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