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Analytical Instrumentation Quiz

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A(n) _ sample is a sample from a process in which the composition of the sample is the same as in the process piping.

a)

intermittent

b)

Condensable vapor

c)

Representative

d)

Coalescing

2.

Analyzers that process _ samples have lag times too long for conventional control methods.

a)

Intermittent

b)

Continuous

c)

Conditioned

d)

Unconditioned

3.

The thermal conductivity analysis method can only be used for _ gases with widely different thermal conductivities.

a)

Binary

b)

Condensable

c)

Heated

d)

Cooled

4.

A(n) _ analyzer is a radiant-energy absorption analyzer consisting of an IR electromagnetic radiation source, an IR detector, and two IR absorption chambers.

a)

Nondispersive infrared

b)

Ultraviolet

c)

Paramagnetic oxygen

d)

Thermal conductivity

5.

_ materials are repelled by a magnetic field.

a)

Diamagnetic

b)

Paramagnetic

c)

Hygroscopic

d)

Hydroscopic

6.

A _ measures an electric current generated when the analyzer is subjected to different oxygen concentrations on opposite sides of an electrode.

a)

Zirconium oxide oxygen analyzer

b)

Humidity analyzer

c)

Microwave moisture

d)

Photoacoustic detector

7.

_ is the ambient air temperature measured by a thermometer that is freely exposed to the air but shielded from other heating or cooling effects.

a)

Specific humidity

b)

Saturated air

c)

Wet bulb temperature

d)

Dry bulb emperature

8.

A(n) _ is a humidity analyzer that measures the physical or electrical changes that occur in various materials as they absorb or release moisture.

a)

hydrometer

b)

hygrometer

c)

Sling psuchrometer

d)

Ultraviolet analyzer

9.

A _ is a combination of a hygrometer, pressure sensor, and temperature-sensing instrument.

a)

thermohygrometer

b)

diamagnetic analyzer

c)

Thermoparamagnetic analyzer

d)

Paramagnetic analyzer

10.

The hygrometer is the _ device for measuring liquid density.

a)

Simplest

b)

Large

c)

Hardest

d)

Smallest

11.

As the density of the fluid in a vibrating U-tube density analyzer changes, the _ of the U-tube changes.

a)

temperature curve

b)

tube length

c)

Resonant vibration frequency

d)

Float position

12.

A _ inside the float, which is also used as weight, acts as a variable coupling to a set of external electrical coils.

a)

Metal rod

b)

specific gravity

c)

Temperature

d)

Absolute viscosity

13.

_ viscosity is the ratio of absolute viscosity to fluid density and has units of centistokes (cS).

a)

Newtonian

b)

Saybolt

c)

Kinematic

d)

Rotating spindle

14.

A _ analyzer measures the amount of suspended solids in a liquid by the measurement of light scattering from the suspended particles.

a)

Turbidity

b)

Refractive index

c)

Flotation

d)

Viscosity

15.

Conductivity measurement is much more complex at higher concentrations because the response may become very _.

a)

Linear

b)

Nonlinear

c)

Erratic

d)

Bufffered

16.

A (n) _ is a graph that shows the quantities of reagent required to change the pH of a solution.

a)

Buffered solution

b)

Unbuffered solution

c)

Oscillator

d)

Titration curve

17.

A _ analyzer is an electrochemical analyzer consisting of a cell that generates an electric potential when immersed in a sample.

a)

pH

b)

Newtonian

c)

Horizontal

d)

Slightly sloped

18.

A (n) _ is the modern unit of electrical conductivity and is the reciprocal of resistance.

a)

mho

b)

ampere

c)

Siemens

d)

Volt

19.

A _ is a lliquid analyzer consisting of an instrument where a measured quantity of a process sample is mixed with precise quantities of reagents and then quantitatively measured with a pH meter or by a coloriometric or other type of detector.

a)

Titration curve

b)

Viscosity analyzer

c)

Turbidity analyzer

d)

Titration curve

20.

Wet bulb temperature is the highest temperature that can be obtained through the heating effect to water evaporating into the atmosphere.

a)

true

b)

false

21.

A _ psychrometer consists of two glass thermometers attached to an assembly that permits the two thermometers to be rotated through the air.

a)

Sling

b)

Recording

c)

Hygrometer

d)

Double

22.

_ is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor in air to the maximum amount of water vapor possible at the same temperature.

a)

Relative humidity

b)

Specific humidity

c)

Kinematic humidity

d)

Absolute humidity

23.

A dew cell is a fiberglass cylindrical core impregnated with lithium chloride and wrapped with a winding of gold wore around the core that serves as a _ element.

a)

Recording

b)

Fixing

c)

Cooling

d)

heating

24.

A thermohygrometer is a combination of a hygrometer, pressure sensor, and temperature-sensing instrument.

a)

true

b)

false

25.

Absolute humidity is another name for humidity ratio.

a)

true

b)

false

26.

A _ is a humidity analyzer that measures physical or electrical changes that occur in various materials as they absorb or release moisture.

a)

Sling psychrometer

b)

Hygrometer

c)

Recording psychrometer

d)

Dew cell

27.

_ humidity is a ratio of mass water vapor to the mass of dry air plus moisture.

a)

Absolute

b)

Relative

c)

Specific

d)

None of the above

28.

_ is the amount of water vapor in a given volume of air.

a)

density

b)

humidity

c)

Buoyancy

d)

Saturation

29.

_ are the band of electromagnetic radiation between infrared and VHF broadcast frequencies, covering the range of approximately 3 mm to 3 m wavelengths.

a)

Microwaves

b)

Radiowaves

c)
d)
30.

Water absorbs microwaves at a wavelength of approximately_.

a)

132 mm

b)

122 mm

c)

112 mm

d)

102 mm

31.

A hygroscopic material is a material that readily absorbs and retains moisture with _ in humidity and releases moisture with _ in humidity.

a)

Increase-decrease

b)

Decrease-increase

32.

_ is a temperature to which air must be cooled for the air to be saturated with water and any further cooling results in water condensing out.

a)

Dew cell

b)

Microwave

c)

Saturated air

d)

Dew point

33.

What is the ability of a material to reflect light or radiant energy?

a)

Reflectance

b)

Admittance

c)

Transmittance

d)

Temperature

34.

What is the simplest device for measuring liquid density?

a)

Thermohygrometer

b)

Hygrometer

c)

Hydrometer

d)

Thermohydrometer

35.

What is a liquid that contains suspended solids that are heavier than the liquid?

a)

Slurry density

b)

Slurry

c)

Newtonian liquid

d)

Non-Newtonian liquid

36.

What is a humidity analyzer that uses two thermometers with the bulb of one thermometer kept moist (wet bulb) and the other bulb kept dry (dry bulb)?

a)

Recording psychrometer

b)

Sling psychrometer

c)

Psychrometric chart

d)

Psychrometer

37.

What is the ambient air temperature measured by a thermometer that is freely exposed to the air but shielded from other heating or cooling effects?

a)

Dry bulb temperature

b)

Wet bulb temperature

38.

What is the dependent variable that is to be controlled in a control system?

a)

Controller

b)

Process variable

c)

control variable

d)

primary element

39.

What is a change in process conditions that changes the process variable (PV) and must be compensated for by a change in the control variable?

a)

Lag

b)

Gain

c)

Load change

d)

Reaction

40.

What is the ability of a process to store material or energy?

a)

Resistance

b)

Potential

c)

Capacitance

d)

Gain

41.

What is the period of time occurs between the time a change is made to a process and the time the first response to the change is detected?

a)

Dead time

b)

Lag

c)

Gain

d)

Feedback

42.

What is a control strategy in which a primary controller that controls the ultimate measurements adjusts the setpoint of a secondary controller?

a)

Fuzzy logic

b)

Proportional band

c)

Ratio control

d)

Cascade control

43.

A process with a lot of dead time must be tuned to _?

a)

Respond quickly and maximize overshoot

b)

Respond quickly and minimize overshoot

c)

Respond slowly and maximize overshoot

d)

Respond slowly and minimize overshoot

44.

The setpoint step change method consists of making small changes in the _ and observing the response.

a)

Setpoint

b)

Deadtime

c)

Decay ratio

d)

Gain

45.

What is a method of tuning a controller by increasing the gain until the system cycles at the point of instability?

a)

Controller gain tuning

b)

Self-tuning control

c)

Ziegler-Nichols open loop tuning

d)

Ziegler-Nichols closed loop tuning

46.

What is a method of tuning a controller based on open loop response to a step input?

a)

Setpoint step change input

b)

Ziegler-Nichols open loop tuning

c)

Ziegler-Nichols closed loop tuning

d)

Dynamic response tuning

47.

What is a distributed control system (DCS) connected by?

a)

Control panel

b)

High-speed digital communication network

c)

Digital recorder

d)

Null-balance network

48.

How many types of common control strategies do we have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

49.

How many types of control elements do we have?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

4

d)

6

50.

What types of effects do we have?

a)

Seebeck

b)

Peltier

c)

Thomson

d)

All of the above

51.

A tube to transport fluid substances is _?

a)

Pipe

b)

Vessel

c)

Heat exchanger

d)

Pump

52.

It is efficiently transfer heat.

a)

Pipe

b)

Vessel

c)

Heat exchanger

d)

Pump

53.

P&ID differs from PFD because _?

a)

It is more specified

b)

It is more difficult

c)

There is more information

d)

All of the above

54.

How many types of pressure do we have?

a)

6

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3

55.

What consists of a flexible metal which expands or contracts in response to a change in pressure?

a)

Diaphragm

b)

Pressure spring

c)

Bellow

d)

Double-ended piston

56.

What is the purpose of the Destination device in data transmission?

a)

Generate signals

b)

Convert analog signals

c)

Receive data

d)

Device for which source sends the data

57.

Why is Modbus considered popular in the industrial automation industry?

a)

Complex implementation

b)

Lack of versatility

c)

Simplicity and ease of implementation

d)

Limited data type support

58.

What type of model does the Modbus protocol use for communication?

a)

Broadcast model

b)

Publish-Subscribe model

c)

Request-Response model

d)

Point-to-Multipoint model

59.

Which physical layer options does Modbus support for communication?

a)

USB and Bluetooth

b)

Fiber Optic and Infrared

c)

RS-485, Ethernet, and TCP/IP

d)

Wi-Fi and Zigbee

60.

In Modbus, which version uses ASCII characters to represent data for serial communication?

a)

Modbus RTU

b)

Modbus ASCII

c)

Modbus TCP

d)

Modbus Plus

61.

Which Modbus version is commonly used for serial communication and represents data in binary format?

a)

Modbus RTU

b)

Modbus ASCII

c)

Modbus TCP

d)

Modbus Plus

62.

In which architecture does Modbus RTU operate?

a)

Client-Server

b)

Peer-to-Peer

c)

Master-Slave

d)

Point-to-Multipoint

63.

What is the maximum data rate of Modbus RTU?

a)

1 Mbps

b)

115.2 kbps

c)

10 Gbps

d)

500 bps

e)

56 kbps

64.

What is a key advantage of Modbus TCP over Modbus RTU?

a)

Lower data rates

b)

Serial interface usage

c)

Small-scale systems

d)

Network connectivity

65.

Which network topology is typically associated with Modbus ASCII?

a)

Token-passing network

b)

Point-to-point communication

c)

Bus network

d)

Star network

66.

What error detection method does Modbus ASCII use?

a)

Hamming codes

b)

LRC (Longitudinal Redundancy Check)

c)

Checksum

d)

CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

67.

How does Modbus typically facilitate communication between devices?

a)

Wireless transmission

b)

Serial communication

c)

Optical fiber connections

d)

Satellite communication

68.

What is the primary application of Modbus protocol?

a)

Home entertainment systems

b)

Personal computers

c)

GPS navigation devices

d)

Industrial automation and control

69.

In Modbus communication, what is the range of slave addresses?

a)

1 to 247

b)

0 to 255

c)

1 to 1000

d)

0 to 99

70.

What role does the Start of Frame (Start Delimiter) play in Modbus messages?

a)

Marks the end of a message

b)

Synchronizes communication

c)

Specifies the recipient's address

d)

Defines the purpose of the message

71.

What is the purpose of the Function Code field in a Modbus message?

a)

Specifies the recipient's address

b)

Marks the end of the frame

c)

Defines the purpose of the message

d)

Contains the actual information being sent

72.

Why is the Error Check (CRC) included in a Modbus message?

a)

To ensure data integrity

b)

To synchronize communication

c)

To mark the end of the message

d)

To define the purpose of the message

73.

Which physical layer supports longer communication distances in Modbus RTU?

a)

RS-232

b)

USB

c)

RS-485

d)

Ethernet

74.

What is the primary advantage of using RS-485 in Modbus RTU?

a)

Faster data transfer

b)

Shorter communication distances

c)

Support for wireless communication

d)

Longer communication distances

75.

What is a key advantage of Modbus RTU in terms of implementation and troubleshooting?

a)

Complexity

b)

Simplicity

c)

Bandwidth

d)

Speed

76.

Despite being a differential communication method, what is a potential drawback of Modbus RTU in industrial environments?

a)

Simplicity

b)

Real-time operation

c)

Limited bandwidth

d)

Susceptibility to noise

77.

What communication medium does Modbus TCP use?

a)

RS-232

b)

RS-485

c)

Ethernet

d)

USB

78.

How does the communication distance in Modbus TCP compare to serial communication?

a)

Ethernet has shorter distances

b)

Serial communication has longer distances

c)

Ethernet supports longer distances

d)

Both have equal communication distances

79.

Why is Modbus TCP well-suited for integration into modern industrial setups?

a)

Real-time operation

b)

Compatibility with legacy systems

c)

High-speed data transfer

d)

Widely used and standard communication medium

80.

What potential issue might arise with Modbus TCP regarding latency, especially when compared to the real-time nature of serial communication?

a)

High speed

b)

Compatibility with modern systems

c)

Potential latency

d)

Real-time operation

81.

What is the primary purpose of Function Code Addresses in Modbus?

a)

Identify specific data points

b)

Represent binary values

c)

Specify the type of function or operation

d)

Store analog values

82.

Which Modbus address type is used for analog input values and can store 16-bit or 32-bit integer values?

a)

Input Status Addresses

b)

Input Register Addresses

c)

Holding Register Addresses

d)

Coil Addresses

83.

What is the primary function of the Slave devices in the Modbus communication model?

a)

Initiates communication

b)

Responds to requests

c)

Acts as a Master

d)

Generates error-checking codes

84.

What role do function codes play in Modbus communication?

a)

Unique addresses for Slaves

b)

Identifying the Master device

c)

Specifying the type of operation the Master is requesting

d)

Controlling processes on the Master devicе

85.

How does the Master device ensure regular communication with multiple Slaves in the system?

a)

By responding to requests from Slaves

b)

Through analog inputs and outputs

c)

Using a unique polling mechanism

d)

By generating error responses

86.

What information does a Modbus request from the Master to a Slave typically include?

a)

Unique address and error details

b)

Slave's address, function code, and parameters

c)

Analog inputs and outputs

d)

Master's address and error response

87.

What is a distinguishing feature of Modbus TCP compared to traditional serial Modbus?

a)

Strictly Master-Slave architecture

b)

Communication over USB networks

c)

Peer-to-peer communication capability

d)

Dependency on Wi-Fi networks

88.

How does Modbus TCP differ from traditional serial Modbus (RTU or ASCII) in terms of architecture?

a)

Modbus TCP uses USB networks

b)

Modbus TCP is strictly Master-Slave

c)

Modbus TCP uses Wi-Fi networks

d)

Modbus TCP allows peer-to-peer communication

89.

What is the primary function of the "Committee of Technical Regulation and Metrology" in the field of standardization in Kazakhstan?

a)

Develop organizational standards

b)

Manage standardization work

c)

Approve international standards

d)

Implement foreign standards

90.

During which period did the state standardization system in Kazakhstan undergo a transition to a national standardization system?

a)

The first period (2005)

b)

The transitional period (2005-2012)

c)

The final stage

d)

The post-2013 period

91.

What organization is engaged in creating standards for telecommunications, including the seven-level reference model of closed systems interaction?

a)

International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

b)

International Standards Organization (ISO)

c)

Inter-national Standards Organization (ISO)

d)

International Telecommunication Union (ITU)

92.

In Modbus TCP, what type of communication allows a device to send a message to all devices on the network?

a)

Peer-to-peer interactions

b)

Dynamic roles

c)

Broadcast communication

d)

Function codes

93.

How does the flexibility of Modbus TCP differ from traditional Master-Slave communication in terms of client and server roles?

a)

It doesn't use function codes

b)

The roles are static and predefined

c)

The roles can be dynamic

d)

It only allows clients to initiate requests

94.

What do control method standards establish in standardization?

a)

Economic efficiency

b)

Methods of testing, measuring, and analyzing products

c)

Standards for processes

d)

IP addresses for devices

95.

What is the purpose of standardization work in terms of economic efficiency?

a)

To increase the total amount of expenditure

b)

To decrease the economic benefit

c)

To achieve optimal regulation in a specific area

d)

To reduce the total amount of expenditure for a product

96.

What are the main types of standardization work?

a)

Economic, political, and environmental

b)

Economic, technical and informational, and social

c)

Social, cultural, and organizational

d)

Organizational, political, and technical

97.

What is the role of standards for processes in standardization work?

a)

To define IP addresses

b)

To specify function codes

c)

To establish norms for testing and measuring

d)

To reduce the time spent on designing new models

98.

How long is the public discussion period for a draft national standard in Kazakhstan?

a)

At least one week

b)

Not less than a month

c)

Two months

d)

Six months

99.

What is the primary condition for developing and approving organizational standards in Kazakhstan?

a)

Improving the press page

b)

Enhancing the research process

c)

Enhancing the production process and improving product quality

d)

Increasing services

100.

What does the status of a harmonized standard ensure in the system of state technical regulation?

a)

Strict adherence to international standards

b)

Fulfillment of requirements established in technical regulations

c)

Exclusivity for organizations

d)

Exemption from public discussion

101.

What do standards for products (services provided) set requirements for?

a)

General technical conditions

b)

Specific product types

c)

Acceptance rules

d)

Methodological documents

102.

What do reference standards provide in a specific area of technical regulation?

a)

Exclusivity for specific organizations

b)

Broad scope or general provisions

c)

Requirements for individual product types

d)

Specialized testing tools

103.

How are standards for products (provided service) different from standards for processes?

a)

Products standards are for specific industries, while process standards are universal.

b)

Product standards include general requirements, while process standards define methods and regimes.

c)

Product standards focus on labeling, while process standards emphasize transportation rules.

d)

Product standards set specific quantities, while process standards focus on basic parameters.

104.

What aspect of standards is increasingly gaining importance within product (service) quality assurance systems?

a)

Testing tools and accessories

b)

Preparation for testing

c)

Management processes

d)

Standards for labeling

105.

_ is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor in the air to the maximum amount of water vapor possible at the same temperature.

a)

Relative humidity

b)

Absolute humidity

c)

Humidity ratio

d)

Saturation

106.

   A (n) _ moisture analyzer is an analyzer that measures the amount of moisture in solids by measuring the speed of neutrons that strike the object.

a)

electrical impedance                                                           

b)

nuclear solids

c)

    Microwave

d)

Radiowave