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WorksheetsCYBER ONE ZILLION
Total questions: 107
Worksheet time: 27hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
You have hired 10 new temporary workers who will be with the company for three months. You want to make sure that the user accounts cannot be used for login after that time period. What should you do?
a)
Configure account expiration in the user accounts
b)
Configure day/time restrictions in the user accounts.
c)
Configure account policies in Group Policy.
d)
Configure account lockout in Group Policy.
2.
Which Microsoft tool can be used to review a system's security configuration against recommended settings?
a)
Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit
b)
Registry Editor
c)
Microsoft Internet Explorer
d)
Windows Defender
3.
Which type of update should be prioritized even outside of a normal patching window?
a)
Critical updates
b)
Security updates
c)
Microsoft updates
d)
Monthly updates
4.
Prepare to Document means establishing the process you will use to document your network. Which of the following makes this documentation more useful?
a)
Have a printed hard copy kept in a secure location.
b)
Identify the choke points on the network.
c)
Automate administration as much as possible.
d)
Identify who is responsible for each device.
5.
Documenting procedures and processes are part of which milestone in the NSA's Manageable Network Plan?
a)
Document Your Network
b)
Prepare to Document
c)
Reach Your Network
d)
Control Your Network
6.
Which of the following tools can you use on a Windows network to automatically distribute and install software and operating system patches on workstations? (Select two.)
a)
WSUS
b)
Group Policy
c)
Security Templates
d)
Security Configuration and Analysis
7.
Which of the following describes a configuration baseline?
a)
A list of common security settings that a group or all devices share
b)
A collection of security settings that can be automatically applied to a device
c)
A set of performance statistics that identifies normal operating performance
d)
The minimum services required for a server to function
8.
What should you consider security baselines?
a)
Suggestion
b)
Unchangeable
c)
Static
d)
Dynamic
9.
By definition, what is the process of reducing security exposure and tightening security controls?
a)
Hardening
b)
Passive reconnaissance
c)
Social engineering
d)
Active scanning
10.
Which of the following is the strongest form of multi-factor authentication?
a)
A password, a biometric scan, and a token device
b)
Two-factor authentication
c)
A password and a biometric scan
d)
Two passwords
11.
You have placed a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server in your DMZ behind your firewall. The FTP server is to be used to distribute software updates and demonstration versions of your products. However, users report that they are unable to access the FTP server. What should you do to enable access?
a)
Open ports 20 and 21 for outbound connections.
b)
Install a VPN.
c)
Move the FTP outside of the firewall.
d)
Define user accounts for all external visitors.
12.
FTPS uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?
a)
SSL
b)
Multi-factor authentication
c)
IPsec
d)
Token devices
13.
To transfer files to your company's internal network from home, you use FTP. The administrator has recently implemented a firewall at the network perimeter and disabled as many ports as possible. You can no longer make the FTP connection. You suspect the firewall is causing the issue. Which ports need to remain open so you can still transfer the files? (Select two.)
a)
21
b)
20
c)
443
d)
23
e)
80
14.
You want to close all ports associated with NetBIOS on your network's firewalls to prevent attacks directed against NetBIOS. Which ports should you close?
a)
135, 137-139
b)
67, 68
c)
161, 162
d)
389, 636
15.
Which of the following file transfer protocols use SSH to provide confidentiality during the transfer? (Select two.)
a)
SCP
b)
HTTPS
c)
FTPS
d)
SFTP
16.
You need to increase the security of your Linux system by finding and closing open ports. Which of the following commands should you use to locate open ports?
a)
nmap
b)
traceroute
c)
nslookup
d)
netstat
17.
Which action would you use in a rule to disallow a connection silently?
a)
Drop
b)
Accept
c)
Reject
d)
Forward
18.
In which of the iptables default chains would you configure a rule to allow an external device to access the HTTPS port on the Linux server?
a)
Input
b)
Forward
c)
Accept
d)
Output
19.
Which type of packet would the sender receive if they sent a connection request to TCP port 25 on a server with the following command applied?
sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -j REJECT
a)
RST
b)
ICMP Unreachable Port
c)
SYN
d)
ACK
20.
You have configured the following rules. What is the effect?
sudo iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT
sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT
a)
Allow SMTP traffic
b)
Block SMTP traffic
c)
Block SSH traffic
d)
Allow SSH traffic
21.
Which command would you use to list all of the currently defined iptables rules?
a)
sudo iptables -L
b)
sudo iptables -F
c)
sudo iptables -A INPUT -j DROP
d)
sudo /sbin/iptables-save
22.
When a cryptographic system is used to protect data confidentiality, what actually takes place?
a)
Unauthorized users are prevented from viewing or accessing the resource.
b)
Encrypted data transmission is prohibited.
c)
Data is protected from corruption or change.
d)
Data is available for access whenever authorized users need it.
23.
An SSL client has determined that the certificate authority (CA) issuing a server's certificate is on its list of trusted CAs. What is the next step in verifying the server's identity?
a)
The CA's public key must validate the CA's digital signature on the server certificate.
b)
The master secret is generated from common key code.
c)
The domain on the server certificate must match the CA's domain name.
d)
The post-master secret must initiate subsequent communication.
24.
Which of the following would require that a certificate be placed on the CRL?
a)
The private key is compromised.
b)
The encryption key algorithm is revealed.
c)
The certificate validity period is exceeded.
d)
The signature key size is revealed.
25.
Which technology was developed to help improve the efficiency and reliability of checking the validity status of certificates in large, complex environments?
a)
Online Certificate Status Protocol
b)
Certificate Revocation List
c)
Private key recovery
d)
Key escrow
26.
A PKI is an implementation for managing which type of encryption?
a)
Asymmetric
b)
Hashing
c)
Symmetric
d)
Steganography
27.
A remote access user needs to gain access to resources on the server. Which of the following processes are performed by the remote access server to control access to resources?
a)
Authentication and authorization
b)
Identity proofing and authentication
c)
Authorization and accounting
d)
Authentication and accounting
28.
Audit trails produced by auditing activities are which type of security control?
a)
Detective
b)
Deterrent
c)
Directive
d)
Preventative
29.
Which of the following is used for identification?
a)
Username
b)
PIN
c)
Cognitive question
d)
Password
30.
Which of the following are examples of Something You Have authentication controls? (Select two.)
a)
Photo ID
b)
Smart card
c)
Handwriting analysis
d)
PIN
e)
Voice recognition
31.
Which of the following identification and authentication factors are often well known or easily discovered by others on the same network or system?
a)
Username
b)
PGP secret key
c)
Password
d)
Biometric reference profile
32.
Which of the following is a password that relates to things that people know, such as a mother's maiden name or a pet's name?
a)
Cognitive
b)
Dynamic
c)
Passphrase
d)
One-time
33.
What is the process of controlling access to resources such as computers, files, or printers called?
a)
Authorization
b)
Authentication
c)
Mandatory access control
d)
Conditional access
34.
Which of the following objects identifies a set of users with similar access needs?
a)
Group
b)
SACL
c)
DACL
d)
Permissions
35.
Which of the following account types is a cloud-based identity and access management service that provides access to both internal and external resources?
a)
Azure AD
b)
Domain
c)
Microsoft
d)
Administrator
36.
Which of the following account types uses a single sign-on system that lets you access Windows, Office 365, Xbox Live, and more?
a)
Microsoft
b)
Azure AD
c)
Domain
d)
Administrator
37.
You manage an Active Directory domain. All users in the domain have a standard set of internet options configured by a GPO linked to the domain, but you want users in the Administrators OU to have a different set of internet options. What should you do?
a)
Create a GPO user policy for the Administrators OU.
b)
Create a GPO computer policy for the Administrators OU.
c)
Create a GPO user policy for the domain.
d)
Create a Local Group Policy on the computers used by members of the Administrators OU.
38.
You want to make sure that all users have passwords over eight characters in length and that passwords must be changed every 30 days. What should you do?
a)
Configure account policies in Group Policy
b)
Configure day/time settings in user accounts
c)
Configure expiration settings in user accounts
d)
Configure account lockout policies in Group Policy
39.
You are teaching new users about security and passwords. Which of the following is the BEST example of a secure password?
a)
T1a73gZ9!
b)
8181952
c)
Stiles_2031
d)
JoHnSmITh
40.
You are configuring the Local Security Policy of a Windows system. You want to prevent users from reusing old passwords. You also want to force them to use a new password for at least five days before changing it again. Which policies should you configure? (Select two.)
a)
Minimum password age
b)
Enforce password history
c)
Maximum password age
d)
Password must meet complexity requirements
41.
Where should an organization's web server be placed?
a)
DMZ
b)
Extranet
c)
Honeynet
d)
Intranet
42.
Which of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?
a)
Internet
b)
Extranet
c)
MAN
d)
Intranet
43.
You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data but actually store fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the attacker's methods.
Which feature should you implement?
a)
Honeynet
b)
Extranet
c)
NIPS
d)
NIDS
44.
A honeypot is used for which purpose?
a)
To delay intruders in order to gather auditing data
b)
To disable an intruder's system
c)
To entrap intruders
d)
To prevent sensitive data from being accessed
45.
Which of the following devices can apply quality of service and traffic-shaping rules based on what created the network traffic?
a)
Application-aware devices
b)
Proxy server
c)
Network access control
d)
All-in-one security appliances
46.
Which item would provide the BEST security for this situation?
a)
All-in-one security appliances
b)
Firewall on your gateway server to the internet
c)
A Proxy server with access controls
d)
Network access control system
47.
Which of the following terms describes a network device that is exposed to attacks and has been hardened against those attacks?
a)
Circuit proxy
b)
Bastion or sacrificial host
c)
Multi-homed
d)
Kernel proxy
48.
Of the following security zones, which one can serve as a buffer network between a private secured network and the untrusted internet?
a)
DMZ
b)
Intranet
c)
Padded cell
d)
Extranet
49.
Which of the following is the MOST likely to happen if the firewall managing traffic into the DMZ fails?
a)
All devices in the DMZ and LAN will be compromised.
b)
Only the servers in the DMZ are compromised, but the LAN will stay protected.
c)
Nothing will happen - all devices will stay protected.
d)
The LAN is compromised, but the DMZ stays protected.
50.
You have a company network that is connected to the internet. You want all users to have internet access, but you need to protect your private network and users. You also need to make a web server publicly available to internet users. Which solution should you use?
a)
Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the web server inside the DMZ and the private network behind the DMZ.
b)
Use a single firewall. Put the web server and the private network behind the firewall.
c)
Use firewalls to create a DMZ. Place the web server and the private network inside the DMZ.
d)
Use a single firewall. Put the web server in front of the firewall and the private network behind the firewall.
51.
How many network interfaces does a dual-homed gateway typically have?
a)
3
b)
4
c)
1
d)
2
52.
What needs to be configured on a firewall to allow traffic directed to the public resource in the DMZ?
a)
Packet filters
b)
Subnet
c)
VPN
d)
FTP
53.
Which of the following are features of an application-level gateway? (Select two.)
a)
Reassembles entire messages
b)
Allows only valid packets within approved sessions
c)
Verifies that packets are properly sequenced
d)
Uses access control lists
e)
Stops each packet at the firewall for inspection
54.
You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?
a)
Circuit-level gateway
b)
Application-level gateway
c)
VPN concentrator
d)
Packet-filtering firewall
55.
Jessica needs to set up a firewall to protect her internal network from the internet. Which of the following would be the BEST type of firewall for her to use?
a)
Hardware
b)
Stateful
c)
Software
d)
Tunneling
56.
You want to protect the laptop from internet-based attacks. Which solution should you use?
a)
Host-based firewall
b)
VPN concentrator
c)
Network-based firewall
d)
Proxy server
57.
You want to connect your small company network to the internet. Your ISP provides you with a single IP address that is to be shared between all hosts on your private network. You do not want external hosts to be able to initiate connection to internal hosts. Which type of Network Address Translation (NAT) should you implement?
a)
Dynamic
b)
Restricted
c)
Static
d)
Shared
58.
Which NAT implementation assigns two IP addresses to the public NAT interface, allowing traffic to flow in both directions?
a)
Dynamic
b)
PAT
c)
Static
d)
Dynamic and static
59.
Which device is NAT typically implemented on?
a)
Gateway router
b)
RADIUS server
c)
AD server
d)
ISP router
60.
Which problem does NAT help address?
a)
The shortage of IPv4 addresses
b)
IPSec not working properly
c)
Registering IP addresses with an ISP
d)
The shortage of IPv6 addresses
61.
At which layer of the OSI model do NAT routers operate?
a)
Layer 3 (Network layer)
b)
Layer 5 (Session layer)
c)
Layer 1 (Physical layer)
d)
Layer 7 (Application layer)
62.
How many concurrent connections does NAT support?
a)
5,000
b)
Unlimited
c)
300
d)
90
63.
A group of salesmen would like to remotely access your private network through the internet while they are traveling. You want to control access to the private network through a single server. Which solution should you implement?
a)
VPN concentrator
b)
IDS
c)
IPS
d)
DMZ
64.
A VPN is primarily used for which of the following purposes?
a)
Support secured communications over an untrusted network
b)
Allow remote systems to save on long-distance charges
c)
Support the distribution of public web documents
d)
Allow the use of network-attached printers
65.
Which VPN implementation uses routers on the edge of each site?
a)
Site-to-site VPN
b)
Always-on VPN
c)
Host-to-host VPN
d)
Remote access VPN
66.
Which VPN tunnel style routes only certain types of traffic?
a)
Split
b)
Full
c)
Site-to-site
d)
Host-to-host
67.
Which IPSec subprotocol provides data encryption?
a)
ESP
b)
AH
c)
AES
d)
SSL
68.
You are investigating the use of website and URL content filtering to prevent users from visiting certain websites. Which benefits are the result of implementing this technology in your organization? (Choose two.)
a)
Enforcement of the organization's internet usage policy
b)
An increase in bandwidth availability
c)
Identification and disposal of infected content
d)
Prevention of emails containing threats
e)
Prevention of phishing attempts
69.
Travis is sending a highly confidential email to Craig that contains sensitive data. Which of the following should Travis implement to ensure that only Craig is able to read the email?
a)
Encryption
b)
Anti-phishing software
c)
Virus scanner
d)
Spam filter
70.
Which of the following types of proxies would you use to remain anonymous when surfing the internet?
a)
Forward
b)
Reverse
c)
Content filter
d)
VPN
71.
As the security analyst for your organization, you have noticed an increase in emails that attempt to trick users into revealing confidential information. Which web threat solution should you implement to protect against these threats?
a)
Anti-phishing software
b)
Encryption
c)
Proxies
d)
Data loss prevention
72.
Which of the following are functions of gateway email spam filters? (Select two.)
a)
Filters messages containing specific content
b)
Blocks email from specific senders
c)
Blocks users from visiting websites with malicious content
d)
Blocks phishing attempts, which try to access confidential information
e)
Helps enforce an organization's internet usage policy
73.
Which of the following NAC agent types would be used for IoT devices?
a)
Agentless
b)
Permanent
c)
Zero-trust
d)
Dissolvable
74.
Which of the steps in the Network Access Control (NAC) implementation process occurs once the policies have been defined?
a)
Apply
b)
Plan
c)
Review
d)
Test
75.
Which of the following defines all the prerequisites a device must meet in order to access a network?
a)
Authentication
b)
Identity Services Engine (ISE)
c)
Zero-trust security
d)
Authorization
76.
Which of the following applies the appropriate policies in order to provide a device with the access it's defined to receive?
a)
Authentication
b)
Authorization
c)
Identity Services Engine (ISE)
d)
Zero-trust security
77.
Which of the following NAC agent types creates a temporary connection?
a)
Dissolvable
b)
Agentless
c)
Permanent
d)
Zero-trust
78.
You are the security analyst for your organization and have discovered evidence that someone is attempting to brute-force the root password on the web server. Which classification of attack type is this?
a)
Active
b)
Inside
c)
External
d)
Passive
79.
An attacker sets up 100 drone computers that flood a DNS server with invalid requests. This is an example of which kind of attack?
a)
DDoS
b)
Backdoor
c)
Replay
d)
Spamming
80.
In which of the following zones would a web server most likely be placed?
a)
Low-trust zone
b)
Medium-trust zone
c)
No-trust zone
d)
High-trust zone
81.
Which area of focus helps to identify weak network architecture or design?
a)
Documentation
b)
Network baseline
c)
Entry points
d)
Inherent vulnerabilities
82.
Which classification of attack type does packet sniffing fall under?
a)
Passive
b)
Inside
c)
External
d)
Active
83.
An attacker was able to gain unauthorized access to a mobile phone and install a Trojan horse so that he or she could bypass security controls and reconnect later. Which type of attack is this an example of?
a)
Backdoor
b)
Social engineering
c)
Privilege escalation
d)
Replay
84.
In an effort to increase the security of your organization, programmers have been informed they can no longer bypass security during development. Which vulnerability are you attempting to prevent?
a)
Backdoor
b)
Social engineering
c)
Privilege escalation
d)
Replay
85.
Which of the following are characteristics of a complex password? (Select two.)
a)
Consists of letters, numbers, and symbols
b)
Has a minimum of eight characters
c)
Has a minimum of six characters
d)
Has a maximum of fifteen characters
e)
Consists of letters and numbers only
86.
An attacker has gained access to the administrator's login credentials. Which type of attack has most likely occurred?
a)
Password cracking
b)
Buffer overflow
c)
Privilege escalation
d)
Backdoor
87.
When setting up a new wireless access point, what is the first configuration change that should be made?
a)
Default login
b)
Encryption protocol
c)
MAC filtering
d)
SSID
88.
Which common design feature among instant messaging clients make them less secure than other means of communicating over the internet?
a)
Peer-to-peer networking
b)
Real-time communication
c)
Transfer of text and files
d)
Freely available for use
89.
Which type of application allows users to share and access content without using a centralized server?
a)
Peer-to-peer software
b)
Group Policy
c)
Real-time communication
d)
Instant messaging
90.
Which of the following methods did Microsoft introduce in Windows 10 to help distribute OS updates?
a)
Peer-to-peer software
b)
Group Policy
c)
Server download
d)
File Transfer Protocol
91.
Which of the following is a benefit of P2P applications?
a)
Shared resources
b)
Low-upload bandwidth
c)
Strong security
d)
Real-time communication
92.
What do application control solutions use to identify specific applications?
a)
Application signatures
b)
Flags
c)
Packet inspection
d)
Whitelists
93.
Which of the following scenarios would typically utilize 802.1x authentication?
a)
Controlling access through a switch
b)
Authenticating VPN users through the internet
c)
Controlling access through a router
d)
Authenticating remote access clients
94.
Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?
a)
Spanning Tree Protocol
b)
Trunking
c)
802.1x
d)
Bonding
e)
PoE
95.
When configuring VLANs on a switch, which type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?
a)
Trunk ports
b)
Each port can only be a member of a single VLAN
c)
Any port not assigned to a VLAN
d)
Gigabit and higher Ethernet ports
e)
Uplink ports
96.
Which of the following switch attacks associates the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of the victim's devices?
a)
ARP spoofing/poisoning
b)
DNS poisoning
c)
Cross-site scripting (XSS)
d)
MAC spoofing
97.
Which of the following attacks, if successful, causes a switch to function like a hub?
a)
MAC flooding
b)
Replay attack
c)
ARP poisoning
d)
MAC spoofing
98.
You are adding switches to your network to support additional VLANs. Unfortunately, the new switches are from a different vendor than the current switches. Which standard do you need to ensure that the switches are supported?
a)
802.1Q
b)
802.3
c)
802.1x
d)
802.11
99.
When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify which VLAN a device belongs to?
a)
Switch port
b)
MAC address
c)
Host name
d)
IP address
100.
Which 802.1Q priority is IP phone traffic on a voice VLAN tagged with by default?
a)
5
b)
3
c)
8
d)
1
101.
A virtual LAN can be created using which of the following?
a)
Switch
b)
Gateway
c)
Router
d)
Hub
102.
You are creating a VLAN for voice over IP (VoIP). Which command should you use?
a)
switchport voice vlan [number]
b)
switchport vlan voice [number]
c)
switchport voip vlan [number]
d)
switchport vlan voip [number]
103.
Which of the following should be configured on the router to filter traffic at the router level?
a)
Access control list
b)
Anti-spoofing rules
c)
Telnet
d)
SSH
104.
Which of the following happens by default when you create and apply a new ACL on a router?
a)
All traffic is blocked.
b)
The ACL is ignored until applied.
c)
All traffic is permitted.
d)
ACLs are not created on a router.
105.
Which type of ACL should be placed as close to the source as possible?
a)
Extended
b)
Basic
c)
Standard
d)
Advanced
106.
You are deploying a brand new router. What is one of the first things you should do?
a)
Update the firmware.
b)
Secure the configuration file.
c)
Configure anti-spoofing rules.
d)
Configure SSH to access the router configuration.
107.
Which of the following can make passwords useless on a router?
a)
Not controlling physical access to the router
b)
Using SSH to remotely connect to a router
c)
Using the MD5 hashing algorithm to encrypt the password
d)
Storing the router configuration file in a secure location
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