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WorksheetsCAA IR
Total questions: 216
Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins
What information does a Mach meter present?
The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of
aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.
The ratio of aircraft
equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.
When standard atmospheric
conditions exist.
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and
at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will
decrease and true altitude will increase.
increase and true altitude will
decrease.
increase and true altitude will increase.
The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area,
primarily to provide for
the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.
better vertical separation of aircraft.
more accurate terrain clearance
in mountainous areas
How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?
Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and
the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the
field elevation.
Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current
altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in
setting.
Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication
should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.
(Refer to Figure 1.) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 feet?
2
3
4
During normal operation of a vacuum-driven attitude indicator, what attitude
indication should you see when rolling out from a 180* skidding turn to
straight-and-level coordinated flight?
A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
A nose-high
indication relative to level flight.
The miniature aircraft shows a turn in
the direction opposite the skid.
When an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and
incorrectly indicate a
climb
descent
right turn
What force causes an airplane to turn?
Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component
Horizontal lift component.
When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?
Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.
increase
the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.
increase the angle
of attack.
During standard-rate turns, which instrument is considered "primary" for bank?
Heading indicator.
Turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator.
Attitude indicator.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180*?
1 minute
2 minutes
3 minutes
What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum-driven heading indicator in
preparation for an IFR flight?
After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft
and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.
After 5 minutes, check that
the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than
2* in 5 minutes of ground operation.
On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should
swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning
from north.
exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.
swing freely and indicate known headings.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is
actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up
to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input
and drain hole are blocked?
The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.
The airspeed indicator
will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.
No airspeed indicator
change will occur during climbs or descents.
What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent
from level flight if the static ports were iced over?
The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM
climb).
The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in
excess of 500 FPM.
The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the
actual rate of descent.
During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following
instruments would be affected?
The airspeed indicator only.
The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.
If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of
static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations
in instrument indications should the pilot expect?
The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.
The altimeter to read
higher than normal.
The vertical speed to show a climb.
What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument
flying?
Aircraft control, cross-check, and instrument interpretation.
Instrument
interpretation, cross-check, and aircraft control.
Cross-check, instrument
interpretation, and aircraft control.
What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3* glide
slope at a constant true airspeed?
When ground speed decreases, rate of descent must increase.
When ground
speed increases, rate of descent must increase.
Rate of descent must be
constant to remain on the glide slope.
The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon
true airspeed.
calibrated airspeed.
ground speed.
What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?
Attitude indicator.
Turn coordinator.
Heading indicator.
What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn
at cruise climb airspeed?
Attitude indicator.
VSI.
Airspeed indicator.
What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude
standard rate turn?
Altimeter.
VSI.
Airspeed indicator.
To enter a constant-airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain
cruising airspeed, the pilot should
first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator
as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.
first
reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference
to establish a specific rate on the VSI.
simultaneously reduce power and
adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the
cruising airspeed.
While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude
indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the
airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.
airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and
the vertical speed stops its movement.
altimeter and vertical speed reverse
their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.
Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose-low,
increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?
Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.
Reduce power,
correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.
Reduce
power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.
Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?
Slant range distance in NM.
Slant range distance in SM.
Line-of-sight
direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.
Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site
at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?
0
1
3
As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility
should you be to consider the reading as accurate?
Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
One
or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.
No specific
distance is specified since the reception is line-of-sight.
When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is
inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of
20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.
30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.
60
second intervals at 1350 Hz.
When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may
be used
in lieu of the OM.
in lieu of visibility requirements.
to determine
distance from TDZ.
When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance
between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other
except the antenna)?
4* between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
Plus or minus 4* when set
to identical radials of a VOR
6* between the two indicated radials of a VOR.
How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on
the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?
Set the OBS on 180* plus or minus 4*; the CDI should center with a FROM
indication.
Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within
plus or minus 4* of that radial with a FROM indication.
With the aircraft
headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000*, the CDI should center
within plus or minus 4* of that radial with a TO indication.
In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular
airport be found?
Aeronautical Information Manual.
En Route Low Altitude Chart.
Airport/Facility Directory.
Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered
and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint?
Plus or minus 6* of the designated radial.
Plus 6" or minus 4* of the
designated radial.
Plus or minus 4* of the designated radial.
What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check
when using a VOT?
Plus or minus 4*.
Plus or minus 6*.
Plus or minus 8*.
What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing
maintenance and may be considered unreliable?
No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.
Coded
identification, but no navigation indications.
A voice recording on the VOR
frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.
In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft
located?
Northeast.
Southeast.
Southwest.
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI
presentation "A" correspond?
9 and 6.
9 only.
6 only.
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI
presentation "B" correspond?
11
5 and 13.
7 and 11.
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position does HSI
presentation "C" correspond?
9
4
12
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position does HSI
presentation "D" correspond?
1
10
2
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI
presentation "E" correspond?
8 only.
3 only.
8 and 3.
(Refer to table 96 and 97 of Figures 3.) To which aircraft position does HSI
presentation "F" correspond?
4
11
5
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated
by illustration 4?
285*.
055*.
235*.
(Refer to Figure 4) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located
on the 055* radial of the station and heading away from the station?
1
2
3
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest
of the station and moving closer TO the station?
1
2
3
(Refer to Figure 5.) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to
the wing-tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a right-hand arc with
a right crosswind component?
Behind the right wing-tip reference for VOR-2.
Ahead of the right wing-tip
reference for VOR-2.
Behind the right wing-tip reference for VOR-1
(Refer to Figure6) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their
respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the
MAP?
Blue-alternate dots and dashes; amber-dashes.
Amber-alternate dots and
dashes; blue-dashes.
Bule-dashes; Amber-alternate dots and dashes.
(Refer to Figure 6) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional,
differ from a standard ILS approach facility?
The LOC is wider.
The LOC is offset from the runway.
The GS is unusable
beyond the MM.
What is a way point when used for an IFR flight?
A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV
instrument approach.
A reporting point defined by the intersection of two
VOR radials.
A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by
VOR and DME signals.
What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?
The SDF course width is either 6* or 12" while the LDA course width is
approximately 5*.
The SDF course has no glide slope guidance while the LDA
does.
The SDF has no marker beacons while the LDA has at least an OM.
What is the difference between a Localizer-Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the
ILS localizer?
The LDA is not aligned with the runway.
The LDA uses a course width of
6* or 12*, while an ILS uses only 5*.
The LDA signal is generated from a
VOR-type facility and has no glide slope.
Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two-letter
coded signal?
Middle marker.
Outer marker.
Compass locator.
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course
ILS approach?
One dot per second and a steady amber light.
Six dots per second and a
flashing white light.
Alternate dashes and a blue light.
Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical
ILS?
100 feet
200 feet
300 feet
Hand-held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used
during IFR operations as
the principal reference to determine enroute waypoints.
an aid to
situational awareness.
the primary source of navigation.
During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation,
no other navigation system is required.
active monitoring of an alternate
navigation system is always required.
the aircraft must have an approved and
operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route.
(Refer to Figure 7.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI
and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?
175°.
165°.
345°.
(Refer to table 65J and 66 of Figures 8.) What is your position relative to GRICE
intersection?
Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.
Right of V552 and past
GRICE intersection.
Left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
Use a very rapid cross-check.
Properly interpret the flight instruments
and act accordingly.
Avoid banking in excess of 30 degree.
A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with
ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as
elevator illusions.
autokinesis.
false horizons.
Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night
flight?
Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots
The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night
adaptation.
Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct
red lighting.
In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where
no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under
IFR below an altitude of
500 feet above the highest obstacle.
1,000 feet above the highest obstacle
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.
When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are
within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and
descend at a rate of between
500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.
500 feet per minute and
1,500 feet per minute.
1,000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.
What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while
operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two
VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has VOR / Localizer / Glide Slope capability,
and the No. 2 has only VOR/ Localizer capability.
Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.
Continue the flight as cleared
no report is required.
Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB
approach.
While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from
an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?
Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.
Squawk 7700 for the
duration of the emergency.
Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC
facility within 48 hours.
An abbreviated departure clearance ...CLEARED AS FILED... will always contain
the name
and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.
of the
destination airport filed in the flight plan.
of the first compulsory
reporting point if not in a radar environment.
Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?
DPS, STARS, and contact approaches.
Contact and visual approaches.
DPS
STARS, and visual approaches.
(Refer to Figure 9.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK
intersection?
6,500 feet MSL.
1,400 feet MSL.
10,200 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 9.) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum
rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified
on the instrument departure procedure?
350 feet per minute.
475 feet per minute.
700 feet per minute.
A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of
210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots,
what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?
210
450
490
What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify?
Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all
aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.
Your aircraft has been
identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided
until radar identification is terminated.
You will be given traffic
advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact
has been lost.
Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are
on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION." this phrase means that
you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
radar
services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.
you
are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.
(Refer to Figure 10.) What sign #7 is designated by illustration
Location sign.
Mandatory instruction sign.
Direction sign.
What is the definition of MEA?
The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements
and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.
The lowest published
altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational
signal coverage, two-way radio communications, and provides adequate radar
coverage.
An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures
acceptable navigation signal coverage, two-way radiocommunications, adequate
radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.
Reception of signals from an off-airway radio facility may be inadequate to
identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is
designated for the fix?
MRA
MCA
MOCA
Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA,
MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non-mountainous area.)
Adequate navigation signals.
Adequate communications.
1,000-foot
obstacle clearance.
(Refer to Figure 11) En route on Vl12 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum
altitude crossing Gymme intersection is
6,400 feet.
6,500 feet.
7,000 feet.
(Refer to Figure 11) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum
altitude at TROTS intersection is
7,100 feet.
10,000 feet.
11,500 feet.
(Refer to Figure 12) Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO
VORTACS?
20 DME from GVO VORTAC.
20 DME from MQO VORTAC.
30 DME from SBA VORTAC.
(Refer to Figure 13) What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN
VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?
8,500 feet MSL.
9,300 feet MSL.
9,700 feet MSL.
What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?
Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs
later.
Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.
Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.
At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard
holding pattern?
Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.
When the
wings are level at the completion of the 180 turn outbound.
When over or abeam
the holding fix, whichever occurs later.
When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second
leg outbound?
When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established
after completing the turn to the outbound heading.
When the wings are level
after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever
occurs first.
When abeam the holding fix.
Given the distance from IGN to BRISS that is 36 NM, refer to the flight data
in Fig. A03_00335 to determine the Estimated Time Enroute.
1 hour 14 minutes.
58 minutes.
50 minutes.
(Refer to Figure 15) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR
to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260 and your intended TAS is 185
knots?
33 minutes.
37 minutes.
39 minutes.
At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDDS2 arrival
begin?
CMK VORTAC.
IGN VORTAC.
BRISS intersection.
When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a
descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared
for the approach?
When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.
You may descend
immediately to published glide slope interception altitude.
Only after you
are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.
While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent
and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by
the pilot?
Turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and
inform ATC.
Turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the
outer marker if approach clearance has not been received.
Maintain the last
assigned heading and query ATC.
(Refer to Figure 18) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/ Mahlon
Sweet Field?
363 feet MSL.
365 feet MSL.
396 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 18) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach
course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS
glide slope?
415 feet per minute.
484 feet per minute.
555 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 19) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure
for the RNAV ( GPS ) RWY 33 approach be initiated?
Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.
When passage of the
MAP way point RW33 is shown on the GPS receiver.
After the MDA is reached
and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP way point.
(Refer to Figure 19) If the aircraft has only LNAV function, what is the MDA
and visibility criteria respectively for the S-33 approach procedure?
1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.
1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM.
1,300 feet MSL;
1 SM.
(Refer to Figure 20) What is the difference in elevation ( in feet MSL ) between
the airport elevation ( in feet MSL ) between the elevation and TDZE for RWY
36L ?
15 feet
18 feet
22 feet
(Refer to Figure 20) Which navigational information and services would be
available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency?
Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.
Localizer
information only, ATIS and DME are available.
Localizer and glide slope, DME,
and no voice capability.
(Refer to Figure 20) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to
establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots ground
speed.)
425 feet per minute.
530 feet per minute.
646 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figures 21) What is the MDA and visibility criteria for a straight-in
LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International?
1,100 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM.
680 feet MSL; visibility 1 SM.
680
feet MSL; visibility 1 NM.
(Refer to Figure 22) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant
rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft
to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?
200 feet per minute.
400 feet per minute.
600 feet per minute.
(Refer to Figure 23) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept
the glide slope on the ILS RWY 06 approach procedure ?
3,000 feet MSL.
1,800 feet MSL.
1,690 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 23) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available
for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International?
HIRL, REIL, and VASI.
HIRL and VASI.
ALSF2 and HIRL.
(Refer to Figure 24) What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R?
3,649 feet MSL.
3,517 feet MSL.
3,450 feet MSL.
(Refer to Figure 25) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY,
it means the flight should
land straight in on runway 32.
comply with straight-in landing minimums.
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
(Refer to Figure 26) When flying the RNAV ( GPS ) Rwy 36 approach , what
condition requires you to do the course reversal ?
When start the approach from BAQXI
When arrive come from southwest and
start the approach from FEHEX.
When arrive come from north and start the
approach from FEHEX.
(Refer to Figure 27) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land
procedures for LDA RWY / GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional ?
Circling to runway 24 not authorized.
Circling not authorized NW of RWY
6-24.
Visibility increased 1/2 mile for circling approach.
Aircraft approach categories are based on
certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.
1.3 times the stall
speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
1.3 times
the stall speed at maximum gross weight.
When may you obtain a contact approach?
ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the
runway in sight and are clear of clouds.
ATC may assign a contact approach
if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile.
ATC will
assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at
least 1 mile.
Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?
A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer
or middle marker.
ADF or VOR bearings which cross either the outer or middle
marker sites may be substituted for these markers.
DME, when located at the
localizer antenna site, should be substituted for the outer or middle marker.
RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and
cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following
would be an operational consideration?
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and
applied as ground visibility.
RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the
runway has an operative HIRL system.
RVR minimums may be disregarded,
providing all other components of the ILS system are operative
What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex
behavior?
The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.
The upwind
vortex would tend to remain over the runway.
The downwind vortex would tend
to remain over the runway.
The middle and far bars of 3-bar VASI will
both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath
constitute a
2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath
constitue a 2-bar VASI for using
the upper glidepath
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than
actually flown (true altitude)?
Air temperature lower than standard.
Atmospheric pressure lower than
standard.
Air temperature warmer than standard.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with
an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?
In warmer than standard air temperature.
In colder than standard air
temperature.
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is
set so the altimeter indicates
true altitude at field elevation.
pressure altitude at field elevation.
pressure altitude at sea level.
At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg.
The pressure altitude would be approximately
7,500 feet.
6,000 feet.
6,500 feet.
Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument
is adjusted to indicate height above
sea level.
the standard datum plane.
ground level.
En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local
altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650
feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate
indication upon landing?
715 feet.
1,300 feet.
Sea level.
While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92"
Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?
24,000 feet.
25,000 feet.
26,000 feet.
If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting
you should set your altimeter
on 29.92" Hg.
on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.
to
the airport elevation.
One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation
is the
ability to resist precession 90* to any applied force.
resistance to
deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.
deflecting force developed from
the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.
If a 180* steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to
straight-and-level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator
should immediately show straight-and-level flight.
will show a slight
skid and climb to the right.
may show a slight climb and turn.
Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is
unreliable?
The horizon bar tilts more than 5* while making taxi turns.
The horizon
bar vibrates during warmup.
The horizon bar does not align itself with the
miniature airplane after warmup.
While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When
entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change
by increasing back elevator pressure until the
attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.
vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.
attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the
130-knot climb.
What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while
taxiing?
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains
centered.
The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball
moves to the right.
Angle of bank.
What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Direct indication of bank angle and pitch
attitude.
Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.
During a constant-bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed
have on the rate and radius of turn?
Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase.
Rate of
turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.
Rate of turn would
decrease, and radius of turn would increase.
What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?
Coriolis force at the mid-latitudes.
Centrifugal force acting on the
compass card.
The magnetic dip characteristic.
As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight
flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or
tachometer.
VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Airspeed
indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected
by using
two bar widths on the attitude indicator.
less than a full bar width on
the attitude indicator.
less than half bar width on the attitude indicator.
As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight,
which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or
tachometer.
Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.
Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.
Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?
Altimeter and airspeed only.
Altimeter and VSI only.
Altimeter,
airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the
desired value during change of airspeed in a level turn?
Airspeed indicator.
Attitude indicator.
Altimeter.
Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have
deviated from your assigned altitude?
Altimeter and VSI.
Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.
Attitude indicator
altimeter, and VSI.
Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight
are
airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack.
flight path, wind
velocity, and angle of attack.
relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical
lift component.
Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to
determine the number of feet to lead the level-off from a climb to a specific
altitude?
10 percent.
20 percent.
25 percent.
What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a
full-scale deflection of the CDI?
4
5
10
When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as
station passage?
The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.
The moment the TO-FROM indicator becomes blank.
The first positive,
complete reversal of the TO-FROM indicator.
A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot
deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced
approximately how far from the course centerline?
2NM
3NM
5NM
An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale
deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?
1 1/2 miles.
2 1/2 miles.
3 1/2 miles.
After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What
is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?
The airplane is getting closer to the radial.
The OBS is erroneously set
on the reciprocal heading.
The airplane is flying away from the radial.
Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked
and found to meet 14 CFR part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight?
Owner.
Operator.
Pilot-in-command.
Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected
on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These
systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under
IFR by
January 5, next year.
January 5, 2 years hence.
January 31, 2 years
hence.
If a half-standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?
1 minutes.
2 minute.
4 minutes.
If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?
1 minute.
2 minutes.
3 minutes.
What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight,
stabilized climb at a constant rate?
Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.
Heading indicator and attitude
indicator.
Heading indicator and turn coordinator.
What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?
Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.
Cross
check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.
Cross check,
emphasis, and aircraft control.
Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during
change of airspeed in a level turn?
Airspeed indicator and VSI.
Altimeter and attitude indicator.
Attitude
indicator and VSI.
During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant
the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the
miniature airplane.
a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.
the
altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of
movement.
What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the
pilot making the VOR operational check?
The date, place, bearing error, and signature.
The date, frequency of VOR
or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.
The date,
place, bearing error, aircraft total time, and signature.
When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the
OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the
090 radial.
180 radial.
360 radial.
When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing
selector and the OBS indicator should read
within 4° of the selected radial.
within 6° of the selected radial.
0°
TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.
What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once
approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?
The VOR and DME components are operative.
VOR and DME components are both
operative, but voice identification is out of service.
The DME component is
operative and the VOR component is inoperative.
Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within
Class B airspace?
A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment
A VOR receiver with DME.
A 4096 code transponder.
When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course
change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either
side should be between
5° and 6°.
8° and 10°.
10° and 12°.
What is the magnetic bearing TO the station for an aircraft with MH350 RB270?
060°.
260°.
270°.
The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360 degrees.
Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on TO/FROM indicator and the CDI
pointing to left of center?
1
2
3
( Refer to figure 29. )In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft
located?
Northeast.
Southeast.
Northwest.
For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR
navigational aids used to describe the route of flight should be no more than
80 NM apart.
40 NM apart.
70 NM apart.
Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle
deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.
deflects
from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.
deflects from
half scale left to half scale right.
How should a pilot determine when the DME at municipal County Airport is
inoperative?
The airborne DME will always indicate ``0'' mileage.
The airborne DME will
``search,'' but will not ``lock on.''
The airborne DME may appear normal,
but there will be no code tone.
( Refer to figure 30. ) When the system is in the free gyro mode, depressing
the clockwise manual heading drive button will rotate the remote indicating
compass card to the
right to eliminate right compass card error.
right to eliminate left
compass card error.
left to eliminate left compass card error.
( Refer to figure 30. )The heading on a remote indicating compass is 5° to the
left of that desired. What action is required to move the desired heading under
the heading reference?
Select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.
Select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.
Select the free gyro mode and depress the counter clockwise heading drive
button.
What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?
Rate of roll and rate of turn.
Angle of bank and rate of turn.
Both
the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.
( Refer to figure 31. ) If true airspeed is 160 knot, headwins is 10 knots, takeoff
runway is 16L , what is the minimum rate of climb before 9200 ft MSL
12000 ft MSL
10500 ft MSL
10000 ft MSL
( Refer to figure 32. ) At position 4, which statement is true?
On V264, altitude 7700 feet MSL could guarantee obstacle clearance but could
not guarantee VOR signal reception beyond 22NM.
On V264, altitude 8500 feet
MSL could guarantee obstacle clearance but could not guarantee VOR signal
reception beyond 22NM.
On V264, altitude 7700 feet MSL could guarantee
obstacle clearance but could not guarantee VOR signal reception beyond 25NM.
( Refer to figure 32. ) The symbol at position 5 means
Total distance of V388 airway
Distance between two VORs on that segment
of airway
Distance between DEWAY intersection and ACINS intersection
Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated
instrument conditions can cause?
Pilot disorientation
False horizon
Elevator illusion
Why is the hypoxia particular dangerous during flights with one pilot?
Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot connot see other aircraft.
Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's
reactions are affected.
The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft
even if using oxygen.
The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight
conditions
are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots,but never by
pilots with moderate instrument experience.
occur, in most instances,during
the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight
must be
supressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight
instrument.
How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?
Rely on kinesthetic sense.
Use a very rapid cross-check.
Read and
interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if
kinesthetic senses are ignored
eyes are moved often in the process of
cross-checking the flight instruments
body signals are used to interpret
flight attitude
What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?
Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.
Consciously breathe
at a slower rate than normal
Conciously force yourself to take deep breaths
and breathe at a faster rate than normal
If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot systems are blocked,
what reactions should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied
and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?
The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleragtion while climbing
The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero
No change until an actual
climb rate is established then indicated airspeed will increase
What pre-takeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation
for IFR flight?
The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.
The miniature aircraft
should erect and become stable within 5 minutes
The horizon bar should erect
and become stable within 5 minutes
During a skidding turn to right,what is the relationship between the component
of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?
Centrifugal force is less than horizonal lift and the load factor is increase
Centrifugal force is greater than horizonal lift and the load factor is
increase
Centrifugal force and horizonal lift are equal and the load factor
is decrease
What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?
Indirect Indication of the bank attitude
Direct indication of the bank
attitude and the quality of the turn
Quality of the turn
During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe
when rolling out to straight-and -level flight from a 180o steep turn to the
right ?
A straight-and-level coordinated flight indication.
The miniature
aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.
The miniature
aircraft would show a slight descent and wings-level attitude.
What force causes an airplane to turn?
Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.
Vertical lift component
Horizontal lift component.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will
remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading
of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the aproximate correct magnetic
heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to
starting an engine?
Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the
instruments.
Check that the attitude of the miniature airctaft is wings level
before turning on electrical power.
Turn on the electrical poewer and listen
for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.
Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn-and-slip indicator to
determine if the
needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors
with the horizon
needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of
fluid
ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the
aircraft is rocked
What indications should you observe on the turn-and -slip indicator during taxi?
The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the
direction of the turn
The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but
the ball remains centered.
The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle
remains centered
what pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in
preparation for an IFR flight?
After 5 minutes,set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft
and check for proper alignment after taxi turns
after 5minutes, check that
the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the
aircraft.
Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than
2o in 5 minutes of ground operation.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will
remain on east for a short time,them gradually catch up to the magnetic heading
of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic
heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere ?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right,but at a faster rate than is
actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up
to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level
360o turn, with a bank of approximately 15o
135o through 225 o
90o and 270 o
180o and 0 o
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a
standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere
The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is
actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up
to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere?
The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction,then turn
to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will renain om a westerly heading for a short time,then gradually
catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.
The compass will indicate
the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the northern hemisphere?
The compass will indicate a turn to the right,but at a faster rate than is
actually occurring.
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
The compass will remain on north for a short time,then gradually catch up
to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere
the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right
the compass will
remain in west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading
of the aircraft
the compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic
heading if the roll into the turn is smooth
what should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard
rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere
the compass will indicate a turn to the left, but ar a faster rate than is
actually occuring
the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right
the compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up
to the magnetic heading of the aircraft
Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually
at maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a
180°turn
270° turn
360° turn
If,while in level flight,it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of
ststic pressure vented inside the airplane,which of the following should the
pilot expect?
The gyroscospic instruments to become inoperative.
The altimeter and
airspeed indicator to become inoperative.
The vertical speed to momentarily
show a climb.
If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight , the airplane should
be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the
manueuverablility of the airplane will be increased.
amount of excess load
that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.
airplane will stall at
a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.
The displacment of a turn coodinator during a coordinated turn will
indicate the angle of bank
remain constant for a given bank regardless
of airspeed
increase as angle of bank increases
Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is
set so the altimeter indicates
Pressure altitude at sea level
true altitude at field elevation
pressure altitude at field elevation
How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?
IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel in LOC frequency box
LOC/DME are indicated
on en route low altitude frequency box
Loc/DME frquencies available in the
Aeronautical Information Manual.
which of following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?
Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4300 feet
and standard IFR seperation is provided on the adjacent runway.
Parallel ILS
approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1 1/2 miles radar separation between
successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.
Landing minimums to
the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but
will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.
Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is
Installed on a front course ILS approach?
One dot per second and a steady amber light.
Six dots per second and a
flashing white light.
Alternate dashes and a blue light.
Approximately what height is the glide slope center line at the MM of a typical
ILS?
100 feet
200 feet
300 feet
What is a difference between an SDF and LDA facility?
The SDF course width is either 6o or 12o while the LDA course width is
approximately 5o
The SDF course has no glide slope guidance while the LDA
does.
The SDF has no marker beacons while the LDA has at least an OM.
Determine the course and distance from
TINHO to LYUDAO on Airway B-591.
199°/100NM
222°/85NM
199°/105NM
200°/120NM
Determine the frequency for airway
transition under the sector of Taichung.
135.9MHZ
130.1MHZ
114.9MHZ
128.1MHZ
W-2 Airway is
from SUNGSHAN to KINMEN NDB
from SUNGSHAN to NANGAN NDB/DME
from APU
VOR/DME to NANGAN NDB/DME
from GENIE to NANGAN NDB/DME.
Determine the En route Altitude on W-6
Airway.
5000 feet
6000 feet
8000 feet
10000 feet
The position of ZONLI holding fix is
TIA R-196 /10DME
HLG R-051/35DME
ITSG R-260/25DME
The position of YILAN DME fix is
LK R-138/30DME
APU R-154/80DME
AP R-154/30DME
The altitude of 6000feet between YILAN
DME fix and LK radio beacon represents
Upper Limit
Lower Limit
Suggested Altitude
Minimum Enroute
Altitude
Holding altitude at LK is(如圖A03_Fig34)
5000feet
above 5000feet
4000feet
At ILAN DME fix headed LK Holding
Pattern via LK-138 BRG, what is the recommended entry procedure?
parallel entry
Teardrop Entry
Direct Entry
The angle of glide path on ILS RWY10 at
RCSS is
2°
3°
5°
While holding at LK, you receive approach
clearance upon turning outbound of the station (095°). You should
proceed straight-in Approach
turn inbound toward station and complete a
Procedure Turn
depend on conditions.
Determine the angle of the localizer
course offset to runway direction.
10°South
10°North
7°South
7°North
The obstacle altitude within 5NM from
the glideslope is
319feet
846feet
518feet
