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SOCIAL ENTREPRENEURSHIP

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Objective of an economy is to generate wealth and

welfare for the society, using the available resources.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

2.
A market failure is best described as
a)
The idea that market forces of supply and demand always provide the maximum benefit for society
b)
The idea that market forces of supply and demand do not always provide the maximum benefit for society
c)
The concept that a decision made by one party can have negative effects on another party
d)
The concept that a decision made by one party can have positive effects on another party
3.

When there is a _______ production externality, the free market _________ resources to the production of the good and too ______ of it is produced relative to the social optimum. This is shown by _______and _______ at the point of production, Qm, *

a)

negative; misallocate; little; Qm > Qopt; MSC < MSB

b)

positive; underallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSB > MSC

c)

negative; overallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

d)

positive; misallocate; much; Qm > Qopt; MSC > MSB

4.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a merit good?

a)

It could be provided by the free market, but not in sufficient quantities

b)

It is always provided free to consumers

c)

It tends to generate negative externalities, so governments restrict its consumption

d)

Once the good has been supplied to one consumer, there is no additional cost in supplying it to others

5.

Which of the following diagrams best represents the market for vaccines?

a)
b)
c)
d)
6.

Which of the following diagrams best represents the market for sugary drinks?

a)
b)
c)
d)
7.

Negative externality of production happens when

a)

Marginal social cost is to the left of marginal private cost

b)

Marginal social cost is to the right of marginal private cost

c)

Marginal social benefit is to the left of marginal private benefit

d)

Marginal social benefit is to the right of marginal private benefit

8.

The use of advertisement to decrease negative externality of consumption affects

a)

Marginal social cost

b)

Marginal private cost

c)

Marginal social benefit

d)

Marginal private benefit

9.

Complete market failure always exists when

a)

there are negative externalities in production

b)

the free market underprices demerit goods

c)

the free market fails to provide sufficient merit goods

d)

the market does not provide any public goods

10.

Merit goods are likely to be underprovided in a free market economy because their

a)

social benefits exceed their social costs

b)

social benefits exceed their private benefits

c)

private benefits exceed their social benefits

d)

private costs exceed their private benefits

11.

Where there is partial market failure

a)

the product is both non-excludable and non-rival in consumption

b)

the market can only be competitive with government support

c)

a market exists but there is a misallocation of resources

d)

there is excess demand in the market at the current market price

12.

A good is excludable if

a)

it is supplied by the government rather than through the free market

b)

one person's use has no effect on the quantity available for someone else

c)

it is supplied at a zero price

d)

it is possible to prevent someone from enjoying its benefits

13.

What is a distinguishing feature of a public good that is not found with private goods?

a)

It creates negative externalities

b)

Consumption depends on the ability to pay

c)

Its consumption by one consumer can have an effect on othe consumers

d)

Its consumption by one consumer does not restrict consumption by other consumers

14.
Refer to the image. The socially optimal quantity and the per-unit tax that will achieve the socially optimal quantity are which of the following? 
a)
Quantity = Q1
Tax = P4-P2
b)
Quantity = Q2
Tax = P3-P2
c)
Quantity = Q2
Tax = P3-P1
d)
Quantity = Q3
Tax = P4-P2
15.

Which of the following is true based on the graph shown?

a)

Quantity of education in the private market is more than the socially optimal quantity

b)

Producers of education could be taxed in order to achieve the socially optimal quantity

c)

Consumption of education has a negative externality

d)

Consumers of education could be subsidised in order to achieve the socially optimal quantity

16.

The demand and supply schedules for grain are shown in the image. The government fixes the minimum price (price floor) at $18 per tonne. How much will this cost taxpayers, IF the government buys the entire economic surplus?

a)

$72,000

b)

$108,000

c)

$144,000

d)

$180,000

17.

What is the reason why price ceilings are often imposed on essential goods and services, such as food products and rents on public housing?

a)

To make these goods and services affordable to low-income earners

b)

To reduce the consumption level of these goods and services

c)

To create informal markets for these products

d)

To create producer surplus for suppliers of these goods and services

18.

HL: What is the change in consumer expenditure after the price ceiling?

a)

£ 45,000

b)

£ 135,000

c)

£ 160,000

d)

£ 115,000

19.

HL: What is the change in producer revenue per week after the introduction of the price floor?

a)

£ 200,000

b)

£ 800,000

c)

£ 1,000,000

d)

£ 1,200,000

e)

£ 2,000,000

20.

Why does the government give subsidies?

a)

To reduce negative externalities in a market

b)

To increase consumption of merit goods

c)

To increase the interest rate

d)

To reduce travel costs

21.

What is a subsidy?

a)

Direct payments made by Producers to the Consumers

b)

Direct payments made by Government to the Producers

c)

Direct payments made by Government to the Consumers

d)

Direct payments made by Government to the Stakeholders

22.

Which 2 of the following are advantages of subsidies?

a)

Reduces the price of raw materials

b)

Reduces producer's cost of production

c)

Increases production/output

d)

Increases consumer's income

23.

The government grants subsidy to producers. What are the 2 effects of this?

a)

Price changes from P1-P

b)

Quantity changes from Q-Q1

c)

Quantity changes from Q1-Q

d)

Price changes from P-P1

24.

When PED<1,a subsidy will reduce cost of production AND prices which will result in...a 1._________ percentage change in 2.________

a)

1.Greater, 2.Price

b)

1.Lower, 2.Demand

c)

1.Greater, 2.Demand

d)

1.Lower, 2.Price

25.

One effect of the subsidy is to increase:

a)

Market Failure

b)

Consumer surplus

c)

Tax revenue

d)

Producer surplus

26.

This is the minimum price buyers are required to pay for a good. It's a lower limit for the price.

a)

equilibrium

b)

shortage

c)

price floor

d)

price ceiling

27.

A price ceiling will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

28.

A price ceiling will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

29.

A price floor will result in a

a)

shortage

b)

surplus

c)

equilibrium price

d)

equilibrium quantity

30.
If the government set the price at $700, would that be a price ceiling or floor?
a)
Price Ceiling
b)
Price Floor 
c)
Neither
31.

Market failure results in a misallocation of resources. In some cases, this can be corrected by the government

a)

restricting the manufacture of goods that generate positive externalities

b)

Providing public goods

c)

subsidising all loss-making firms

d)

placing a tax on merit goods

32.

Provide one advantage of a market economy.

a)

Consumers are sovereign

b)

There is no poverty.

c)

Firms have a lot of market power.

d)

All people are employed.

33.

What encourages firms to produce what consumers demand?

a)

The chance to earn a high profit

b)

The chance to experience high unit costs of production

c)

The desire to attract new firms into the industry

d)

The desire to keep revenue as low as possible

34.

In this diagram, how is allocative efficiency experienced?

a)

Price: fall

Demand: fall

Supply: rise

b)

Price: fall

Demand: rise

Supply: fall

c)

Price: rise

Demand: fall

Supply: rise

d)

Price: rise

Demand: rise

Supply: fall

35.

In a market system, what encourages firms to keep their costs low?

a)

Competition

b)

Government regulations

c)

Subsidies

d)

Taxation

36.

Which movement in the diagram shows an increase in productive efficiency?

a)

A to B

b)

B to C

c)

C to D

d)

A to D

37.

What is the "private sector"? Select all that apply.

a)

composed of individual firms

b)

composed of government firms

c)

providing goods and services for everyone is the main objective

d)

earning a profit is the main objective

38.

What is the "public sector"? Select all that applies

a)

composed of individual firms

b)

providing goods and services for everyone is the main objective

c)

earning a profit is the main objective

d)

composed of government firms

39.

How are consumers sovereign in a market economy? Select all that apply.

a)

they keep the price low by buying the most affordable products

b)

they produce products that are needed by everyone

c)

they determine what is

produced

d)

they can increase a product's price by buying more of it

40.

What is the role of profit in a market economy? Select all that apply.

a)

it's an incentive that firms get when they listen to customers

b)

it drives efficiency among firms

c)

Consumers' demands are met

d)

it gives firms an opportunity to expand their bsuiness

41.

What argument can be used to say that prices in a market economy may be low?

a)

because there may be a high level of

competition

b)

because customers are always right

c)

because producers will use quality materials

d)

because customers like second-hand products

42.

Which of the following cases is market failure experienced?

a)

Firms producing above the lowest possible cost

b)

Consumers determining what is produced

c)

Price falling as a result of a decrease in demand

d)

Price rising as a result of an increase in costs of production

43.

Which of the following defines a merit good?

a)

has an absence of external benefits

b)

has higher private benefits than consumers realise

c)

imposes costs on those who are not involved in its production directly

d)

is both non-excludable and non-rival

44.

Which type of goods would be over-produced if left to market forces?

a)

Capital goods

b)

Basic necessities

c)

Merit goods

d)

Demerit goods

45.

What is a cause of market failure?

a)

Diff erences in pay between skilled and unskilled workers

b)

Competition between firms

c)

Resources being both geographically and occupationally mobile

d)

Consumers lacking information about where the lowest prices can be found

46.

What is an external cost? Choose all that apply.

a)

a harmful effect on third parties

b)

a harmful effect on people not directly involved in

consuming and producing a product

c)

workers in a chemical factory suffer from respiratory problems

d)

people living near a chemical factory suffer from contaminated water source

47.

What does not define a merit good?

a)

one that the government considers is more beneficial to consumers than they

realise

b)

underconsumed and underproduced if left to market forces

c)

generates external benefits

d)

the private benefits exceed the social benefits

48.

What is a demerit good? Choose all that apply.

a)

it causes external costs

b)

government thinks is more harmful to consumers than

they appreciate

c)

is underconsumed and so underproduced if left to

market forces

d)

the social costs exceed the private costs

49.

Why are the social benefits of education exceed its private benefits?

a)

because education has external benefits

b)

because what else can we say, education is education

c)

because if a private benefit exceeds another one, then there will be 2 of them

d)

because a private benefit is directed to the one engaged in education

50.

What are the external benefits of education? Select all that apply.

a)

and better quality output due to higher labour productivity

b)

increased output

c)

More and better

products can be consumed

d)

increased tax revenue arising from higher

incomes

51.

What are arguments that can be used to support the claim that the continuous tree cutting in the Amazon rainforest should stop? Select all that apply.

a)

External costs exceed external and private benefits

b)

Damage to wildlife habitats

c)

Global warming

d)

Social costs exceed social benefits

52.

Assume that the government regulates a monopoly so that it definitely won't have to subsidize the firm. In this case, regulators would set a price equal to:

a)

Average variable cost

b)

Average total cost

c)

Average fixed cost

d)

Marginal cost

53.

Compared to a perfectly competitive industry, a monopoly’s price and quantity will be which of the following?

a)

P=Higher; Q=Same

b)

P=Lower; Q=Same

c)

P=Lower; Q=Higher

d)

P=Higher; Q=Lower

54.
What are the main characteristics of oligopoly?
a)
Few firms, independent, high barriers of entry
b)
Few firms, interdependent, high barriers of entry 
c)
Many firms, interdependent, low barriers of entry
d)
Many firm, independent, low barriers of entry
55.

A monopoly introduces a technological innovation that lowers the marginal cost of production. The price of the good and the quantity are most likely to change in which of the following ways?

a)

P=Decrease; Q=Increase

b)

P=Decrease; Q=Decrease

c)

P=Increase; Q=Increase

d)

P=Increase; Q=Decrease

56.

If a monopolist wants to sell a larger quantity of its good, it must

a)

set a higher price

b)

maintain the current price

c)

set a lower price

d)

implement new technology

57.

In a normally functioning monopoly, if the firm's total revenue is falling, it marginal revenue must be

a)

positive

b)

negative

c)

zero

d)

greater than TR

58.

A formal organization of sellers or producers who cooperate on the production, pricing, and marketing of a product

a)

Imperfect competition

b)

Monopoly

c)

Cartel

d)

Market structure

59.

What is the main difference between the profit-maximizing actions a perfectly competitive firm can take and those a monopoly can take?

a)

Perfectly competitive firms maximize profits where MC=MR while monopolies do so where P=MC

b)

they both face downward-sloping demand curves but a perfectly competitive firm's demand is inelastic

c)

a monopoly chooses the highest possible price while a perfect competitor chooses the lowest

d)

a competitive firm can only change output, monopoly can change output or price

60.

Offering a senior citizen discount is an example of

a)

Perfect price discrimination.

b)

Illegal collusion

c)

3rd degree price discrimination.

d)

Product differentiation

61.
The cartel model of oligopoly predicts that: 
a)
all the firms in the industry act in unison to set a monopoly price 
b)
each producer acts independently of others 
c)
firms follow the low-price firm in the industry
d)
differences in cost of production discourage individual firms from cheating
62.
For an unregulated monopolist, the profit-maximizing quantity will always be:
a)
in the elastic region of the demand curve 
b)
where marginal revenue equals price 
c)
where price equals average total cost 
d)
where the marginal cost curve intersects the demand curve 
63.

Assume that a monopoly is producing a quantity where its marginal revenue is positive as output rises. The firm's total revenue is ____ as output rises and demand for its product is _____.

a)

decreasing; elastic

b)

decreasing; inelastic

c)

increasing; elastic

d)

increasing; inelastic

64.

A monopoly is currently producing in the inelastic portion of its demand curve. In order to maximize profits, the firm should change the price and quantity in which of the following ways?

a)

P=Increase; Q=Increase

b)

P=Increase; Q=Decrease

c)

P=Decrease; Q=Decrease

d)

P=No Change; Q=Increase

65.

Analysis of how decisions are made when strategic interaction between firms exists is known as

a)

Game theory

b)

Contestable market theory

c)

Market power

d)

Predatory pricing theory

66.

A given market is considered to be monopolistic. Which of the following is a necessary characteristic of that industry?

a)

A small number of large firms dominate the market

b)

Many firms sell differentiated products in order to inspire brand loyalty

c)

There are significant barriers to entry that will keep new competitors out of the market

d)

The existing firms are mutually dependent and may often cooperate on pricing decisions

67.

In monopolistic competition, which of the following most accurately describes the long-run equilibrium conditions for a firm?

a)

P>ATC, MR=MC, and P>MC

b)

P=ATC, MR=MC, and P=MC

c)

P=ATC, MR=MC, and P>MC

d)

P=ATC, MR>MC, and P>MC

68.

One important difference between monopoly and monopolistic competition is that

a)

There is a greater likelihood of the government restricting output in monopolistic competition.

b)

There are no barriers to entry in monopolistic competition, allowing for new competitors to enter the industry in pursuit of profit

c)

The marginal revenue and demand curves are the same for a monopoly whereas they are different for monopolistic firms

d)

The different types of demand curves the firms face

69.

In long run equilibrium, monopolistically competitive firms are considered inefficient in allocating society’s resources for which of the following reasons?

a)

The firms' marginal revenue exceeds the price they charge

b)

The price charged by these firms is greater than their marginal cost

c)

Firms in these markets will have minimized their average total costs

d)

Firms in these markets will be earning economic profits in the long run

70.

An industry that is dominated by a few large firms, making each firm interdependent would be considered

a)

Monopolistic competition

b)

A monopoly

c)

Perfectly competitive

d)

An oligopoly

71.

A monopolistically competitive firm advertises in order to:

a)

Shift the demand curve for its product to the left

b)

Make its product more similar to its competitors’

c)

Reduce the industry’s barriers to entry

d)

Make the demand for its product more price inelastic