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AP Biology Unit 6

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 2hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When does DNA replication take place?

a)

Whenever new genes are needed

b)

During the S phase of the cell cycle

c)

In the middle of mitosis or meiosis

d)

Immediately before cytokinesis begins

2.

Match the following enzymes to their roles in DNA replication.

a)

Ligase

1.

Fills in the gaps in the new DNA strands

b)

DNA polymerase

2.

Synthesizes the new strands of DNA

c)

Primase

3.

Adds a small RNA "primer"

d)

Helicase

4.

Unwinds the parent DNA strands

3.

DNA replication involves many different enzymes. Helicase unwinds the DNA so that the parent strands can be seperated. DNA polymerase adds the nucleotides to synthesize the daughter strands. What is the role of primase?

a)

It adds a small RNA "primer" to allow DNA polymerase to begin

b)

It sorts the prime numbers of RNA into even piles

c)

It removes incorrecly matched nucleotides to avoid mutations

d)

It connects the gaps between nucleotide segments

4.

Label the stages of protein synthesis.

a)Transcription
b)mRNA processing
c)Translation
d)Gene regulation
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
5.

Which of the following are part of a bacterial lac operon? (Select all that apply)

a)

Promotor

b)

Genes for lac enzymes

c)

Regulatory genes

d)

Enhancers

6.

Match the following genetic regions to their roles:

a)

Makes a repressor protein

1.

Regulatory gene

b)

Place where transcription begins

2.

Promotor

c)

The on/off switch where the repressor protein binds

3.

Operator

d)

Codes for the main protein / enzymes

4.

Genes of Operon

7.

The trp operon in E. Coli is responsible for making 5 polypeptides involved in the tryptophan synthesis pathway. When tryptophan is present, it combines with the repressor protein to block the operator. What type of operon is trp?

a)

Repressible

b)

Inducible

8.

The operon model was discovered in E. Coli and is almost exclusively found in ​ (a)   .

Choose from the below words
prokaryotes
eukaryotes
9.

After eukaryotic transcription takes place, mRNA undergoes several modifications before leaving the nucleus to take part in translation. Some sections of mRNA are cut out, and the remaining sections are spliced together to create the finished mRNA molecule. Which of the following mRNA sections are spliced together in the finished mRNA molecule?

a)

introns

b)

exons

c)

operons

d)

ribozymes

10.

The human genome appears to have only about as many genes as the simple nematode worm, C. elegans. Which of the following best explains how the more complex humans can have relatively few genes?

a)

Human genes have unusually long introns involved in the regulation of gene expression

b)

More than one polypeptide can be produced from a gene by alternative gene splicing

c)

The human genome has a high proportion of noncoding DNA

d)

The human genome has a large number of SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms) which increases genetic variability

11.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine and cytosine

b)

adenine and guanine

c)

adenine and thymine

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

cytosine and thymine

12.

A nucleic acid contains 35% adenine, 36% thymine, 14% guanine, and 15% cytosine. This nucleic acid is

a)

single-stranded RNA

b)

single-stranded DNA

c)

double-stranded RNA

d)

double-stranded DNA

13.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

14.

Eukaryotic DNA is located in

a)

the nucleus

b)

the cytoplasm

c)

anywhere in the cell

15.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

c)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 3' -> 5' direction

d)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 5' -> 3' direction

16.

What is the sequence of nucleotides on mRNA read in triplets called?

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

triplet box

d)

wobble

17.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

18.

How does the DNA in a prokaryote differ from a eukaryote?

a)

Prokaryote has circular DNA, Eukaryotes has linear DNA

b)

Prokaryote has single stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has double stranded DNA

c)

Prokaryote has linear DNA, Eukaryotes has circular DNA

d)

Prokaryote has double stranded DNA, Eukaryotes has single stranded DNA

19.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

c)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

20.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'?

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

21.

Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be:

a)

in the genome.

b)

transcribed.

c)

non-coding.

d)

a dominant allele.

22.

Translation is a process where:

a)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of rRNA codons.

b)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of tRNA codons.

c)

a polypeptide sequence is produced from a sequence of mRNA codons.

d)

a DNA nucleotide sequence is used to produce mRNA codon sequence.

23.

What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosomes

d)

Amino Acids

24.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
25.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines.

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

c)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

26.

Which enzyme is responsible for relaxing supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

27.

Which enzyme is responsible for unzipping the DNA strands?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

28.

Which enzyme is responsible for joining the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

helicase

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

topoisomerase

d)

ligase

29.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

c)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

30.

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus

b)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol

c)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER

d)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol

31.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
32.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
33.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
34.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
35.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
36.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
37.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
38.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
39.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
40.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
41.
Which process is shown?
a)
diffusion
b)
repiration
c)
recombination
d)
translation
42.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
43.

Which of the following are pyrimidines?

a)

adenine and cytosine

b)

adenine and guanine

c)

adenine and thymine

d)

cytosine and guanine

e)

cytosine and thymine

44.

Which is not a component of DNA nucleotides?

a)

Ribose sugar

b)

Phosphate

c)

Nitrogenous base

d)

Deoxyribose sugar

45.

During transcription, what is the relationship between DNA and RNA?

a)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 3' -> 5' direction

b)

DNA is the template, RNA reads DNA in 5' -> 3' direction

c)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 3' -> 5' direction

d)

RNA is the template, DNA reads RNA in 5' -> 3' direction

46.

Identify which molecules bind to the promoter region

a)

Ligase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA polymerase

d)

RNA polymerase

47.

Gene expression is the ability for a gene to be:

a)

in the genome.

b)

transcribed.

c)

non-coding.

d)

a dominant allele.

48.

Which is NOT correct according to base pair rules?

a)

Adenine - Thymine

b)

Cytosine - Guanine

c)

Adenine - Guanine

d)

Adenine - Uracil

49.

Adenine and Guanine have a double ring structure, so they are called what?

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Purines

c)

Puritans

50.

What type of bond holds nitrogen bases to one another forming the "rungs" of the DNA ladder?

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ionic

d)

Phosphodiester

51.

What famous scientists built the first double helix model of DNA?

a)

Hershey & Chase

b)

Avery & MacLeod

c)

Watson & Crick

d)

Wilkins & Franklin

52.

In DNA Replication, which enzyme helps synthesize new strands of DNA?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

53.

In DNA Replication, relaxes supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

54.

In DNA Replication, which strand is formed in Okazaki fragments?

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

55.

DNA is synthesized in the _________________ direction

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

56.

Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil have a single ring structure, so they are called what?

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Purines

c)

Puritans

57.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase begins transcription

a)

Repressor

b)

Inducer

c)

Structurel Gene

d)

Promoter

58.

DNA wrapped around histone proteins

a)

nucleosome

b)

Barr body

c)

helicase

d)

primase

59.

The pink ribbon-like structure is

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

60.

In the diagram, what is structure #1?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

ssBP

61.

In the diagram what is #4?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

62.

In DNA replication, which occurs first?

a)

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides

b)

DNA polymerase replaces RNA with DNA

c)

DNA ligase binds segments together

d)

Primase creates a primer

63.

What is the orientation of DNA strands?

a)

Single strand, 5'-3'

b)

Double strand, both 5'-3'

c)

Double strand, antiparallel

d)

Double strand, semiconservative

64.

Which strand of these DNA molecule would be the lagging strand?

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

65.

A ribosome has three binding sites for tRNA. Match the site with the correct function.

a)

P site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

b)

A site is where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome

c)

A site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

d)

E site holds tRNA that carries the growing amino acid chain

66.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is...

a)

complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

b)

complementary to the rRNA triplet

c)

part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid

d)

changeable, depends on the amino acid that bonds to the tRNA

67.

Using the picture what polypeptide does CAA-CGG-GUA code for?

a)

His, Arg, Stop

b)

Gln, Arg, Val

c)

Gln, His, Met

d)

Met, Gln, Arg

68.

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

a)

a base pair substitution

b)

a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene

c)

a nucleotide deletion at the end of the gene

d)

single nucleotide inserted close to start of coding sequence

69.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

c)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

70.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

TATA box

c)

poly-A tail

d)

intron removal

71.

Which kitten is most likely the offspring of this cat?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

72.

During gel electrophoresis, the _______ pieces of DNA move farthest down the gel

a)

lightest

b)

heaviest

c)

ugliest

d)

deadliest

73.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

74.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

75.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE BAT WAS FUN

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

76.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE CAT AWA SFU N...

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

77.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
78.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
79.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
80.

Where does translation take place in prokaryotes & eukaryotes?

a)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or nucleus

b)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or rough ER; Eukaryotes - cytosol

c)

Prokaryotes - cytosol; Eukaryotes - cytosol or rough ER

d)

Prokaryotes - cytosol or nucleus; Eukaryotes - cytosol

81.

The m in mRNA stands for (a)  

82.

What subunits comprise a ribosome?

a)

large and small

b)

big and little

c)

big and small

d)

large and little

83.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
84.

Match the following terms...

a)

1.

mRNA

b)

2.

tRNA

c)

3.

to make more proteins

85.

In Protein Synthesis,

​ ​ (a)   happens first.

​ (b)   happens last.

Choose from the below words
Transcription
Translation
86.

Match the following

a)

mRNA

1.

a message made from DNA

b)

tRNA

2.

carries an amino acid

c)

rRNA

3.

the ribsome where proteins are made

87.

the codon is on the ​ (a)  

the anti-codon is the ​ (b)  

Choose from the below words
mRNA
tRNA
88.

The mRNA reads CCA: what amino acid will the tRNA be carrying?

A
B
C
D
89.

The mRNA reads UAG, what will the tRNA carry?

(a)  

90.

Label this image:

1= ​ (a)  

2= ​ (b)  

4= ​ (c)  

7= ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
DNA
mRNA
tRNA
rRNA (ribosome)
91.

What are the transcription factors?

a)

Molecules that provide ATP to transcription unit

b)

Molecules that synthesize RNA during transcription 

c)

Molecules that bring amino acids to the transcription unit

d)

Molecules that bind to enhance/inhibit transcription. 

92.

What makes up the TATA box?

a)

Adenine & Cytosine

b)

Cytosine & Guanine

c)

Guanine & Thymine

d)

Thymine & Adenine

93.

Where is the TATA box located?

a)

Near the introns

b)

Near the exons

c)

Near the poly adenylation sequence

d)

Near the promoter

94.

About 250 adenines are added to the 3' end, called a (a)   .

95.

A special type of guanine is added to the 5' end, called a (a)   .

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