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WorksheetsRouting & Switching
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which switch management method competes with normal network traffic for bandwidth?
a)
In-band management
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
Both
d)
None
2.
Which switch management method uses a dedicated communication channel?
a)
In-band management
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
Both
d)
None
3.
For switch management methods, which must be encrypted to protect communications from sniffing?
a)
In-band management
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
Both
d)
None
4.
Which switch management method does not compete with normal network traffic for bandwidth?
a)
In-band management
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
Both
d)
None
5.
For switch management methods, which is affected by network outages?
a)
In-band management
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
Both
d)
None
6.
Which level of the OSI model does a Layer 2 switch operate at?
a)
Network layer
b)
Transportation layer
c)
Data Link layer
d)
Session layer
7.
Which of the following is a device that can send and receive data simultaneously?
a)
Unmanaged
b)
Full-duplex
c)
Honeypot
d)
Managed
8.
On your network, you have a VLAN for the sales staff and a VLAN for the production staff. Both need to be able to communicate over the network. Which of the following devices would work BEST for communication between VLANs?
a)
Layer 2 switch
b)
Repeater
c)
Load balancer
d)
Layer 3 switch
9.
As a network administrator, you have 10 VLANs on your network that need to communicate with each other. Which of the following network devices is the BEST choice for allowing communication between 10 VLANs?
a)
Load balancer
b)
Layer 2 switch
c)
Layer 3 switch
d)
Repeater
10.
Which type of switch is commonly sold at retail stores?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
11.
Which type of switch provides port security features?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
12.
Which type of switch supports VLANs?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
13.
Which type of switch provides very few configuration options?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
14.
Which type of switch can be configured over a network connection?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
15.
Which type of switch can be configured over a dedicated communication channel?
a)
Unmanaged switch
b)
Managed switch
c)
Both
d)
None
16.
Which of the following is required to establish a new network switch and configure its IP address for the first time?
a)
Site-to-site VPN
b)
Out-of-band management
c)
In-band management
d)
Client-to-site VPN
17.
Which of the following methods is best to have when a network goes down?
a)
Out-of-band management
b)
Client-to-site VPN
c)
In-band management
d)
Site-to-site VPN
18.
Which of the following is a communication device that connects other network devices through cables and receives and forwards data to a specified destination within a LAN?
a)
Hub
b)
Switch
c)
Router
d)
Access point
19.
Which of the following is true about an unmanaged switch?
a)
It supports link aggregation.
b)
It can connect to all devices in a small area.
c)
It allows port configuration.
d)
It is capable of VLAN creation.
20.
Which of the following is the open standard for tagging Layer 2 frames?
a)
NDP
b)
ARP
c)
802.1q
d)
RFC1918
21.
Which of the following protocols prescribes what to do when a data channel is in use on a half-duplex device?
a)
CSMA/CD
b)
ARP
c)
Auto-MDI-X
d)
NDP
22.
A switch receives a frame with a destination MAC address that is not found in its MAC address table. What happens next?
a)
The frame stops at the switch and is not forwarded until the destination MAC address is manually added to the MAC address table.
b)
The frame is replicated and sent to every active port on the switch except the source port.
c)
The frame is rejected and returned to the source host.
d)
The frame is replicated and sent to every active port on the switch.
23.
Which of the following is the protocol used for address resolution when you switch from IPv4 to IPv6?
a)
Auto-MDIX
b)
NDP
c)
CSMA/CD
d)
ARP
24.
In which type of device is a MAC address table stored?
a)
Repeater
b)
Hub
c)
Router
d)
Switch
25.
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive documents on a computer that you would like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still need to access the network through the computer. Which of the following should you use in this situation?
a)
VLAN
b)
Spanning Tree
c)
VPN
d)
Port security
26.
For which of the following devices does a voice VLAN prioritize traffic?
a)
Bridge
b)
Hub
c)
VoIP phone
d)
Layer 3 switch
27.
What does the ip address dhcp command allow you to do?
a)
Specify the DHCP relay server for forwarding DHCP packets.
b)
Send the DHCP server address for all connected devices.
c)
Configure a switch to act as a DHCP server.
d)
Configure a switch to obtain an IP address from a DHCP server.
28.
Which command would you use on a switch to enable management from a remote network?
a)
no shutdown
b)
ip default-gateway 192.168.10.185
c)
ip address 192.168.10.185 255.255.255.0
d)
ip address dhcp
29.
You are configuring a switch so that you can manage it using PuTTY from the same network segment. On the switch, you enter the following commands:switch#config terminal,switch(config)#interface vlan 1,switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.10 255.255.255.0. Will this configuration work?
a)
No. The no shutdown command needs to be entered.
b)
No. The switch needs to obtain an IP address from the DHCP server using the ip address dhcp command.
c)
Yes. The switch can now be accessed by PuTTY using the IP address 192.168.1.10.
d)
No. The ip default-gateway command needs to be set.
30.
Which statements accurately describe the port states of both bridges and switches? (Select two.)
a)
In the learning state, the MAC address table can be populated, but frames are not forwarded.
b)
In the learning state, all ports are in a forwarding state.
c)
Ports in a blocked state cannot receive BPDUs.
d)
Ports in a blocked state still receive BPDUs.
31.
You manage a single subnet with three switches. The switches are connected to provide redundant paths between themselves. Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures that there is only a single active path between any two switches?
a)
Spanning Tree
b)
802.1x
c)
PoE
d)
Trunking
32.
You manage a network with two switches. The switches are connected together through their Gigabit Ethernet uplink ports. You define VLAN 1 and VLAN 2 on each switch. A device on the first switch in VLAN 1 needs to communicate with a device on the second switch in VLAN 1. What should you configure to allow communication between these two devices through the switches?
a)
Trunking
b)
Spanning Tree
c)
Layer 3 switching
d)
Bonding
33.
Which of the following BEST describes port aggregation?
a)
A priority-based flow control that allows you to prioritize network traffic.
b)
Multiple ports linked together and used as a single logical port.
c)
IEEE network standard 802.3.
d)
Multiple VLANs traveling through a single port.
34.
Which of the following BEST describes Ethernet flow control?
a)
A protocol designed to prevent looping in network traffic.
b)
A configuration that allows frames larger than 1,500 bytes to pass through the port without fragmentation.
c)
A configuration that allows traffic from multiple VLANs on a single port.
d)
A configuration that sends a pause frame to the transmitting device when the receiving device cannot keep up with the volume of data being sent.
35.
Which of the following must each device's MTU be set to for jumbo frames to transverse the network without risk of fragmentation?
a)
6,000
b)
9,000
c)
3,000
d)
1,500
36.
Your organization's management wants to monitor all the customer services calls. The calls are taken on VoIP phones. Which of the following configurations would BEST help you set up a way to monitor the calls?
a)
Spanning Tree Protocol
b)
Priority-based flow control
c)
Port mirroring
d)
LACP
37.
You have a large Power over Ethernet flat screen that you are installing in a conference room that requires 70 watts of power. Which of the following IEEE standards does your PoE switch need to provide power for the flat screen?
a)
PoE++ Type 3
b)
PoE++ Type 4
c)
PoE
d)
PoE+
38.
Which of the following switch features allows you to configure how the switch's MAC address table is filled?
a)
Port security
b)
Spanning Tree Protocol
c)
Port mirroring
d)
Auto-negotiation
39.
Computers A and B are on the same VLAN and are separated by two switches as shown in the exhibit. Computer A sends a frame to Computer B.Which of the following BEST describes the frame's composition as it travels from A to B?
a)
Computer A appends a VLAN ID to the frame. It travels from switch to switch and arrives at Computer B, where it removes the VLAN ID.
b)
Computer A sends a normal frame. The first switch forwards the frame to the second switch, where the VLAN ID is appended to the frame and forwarded to Computer B.
c)
Computer A sends a normal frame. The first switch appends a VLAN ID to the frame. The second switch removes the VLAN ID before forwarding it to Computer B.
d)
Computer A sends a normal frame. The first switch appends a VLAN ID to the frame. The VLAN ID remains on the frame through the second switch up to Computer B.
40.
Incorrect Which of the following scenarios would typically utilize 802.1x authentication? Controlling access through a switch. Authenticating VPN users through the internet. Authenticating remote access clients. Controlling access through a router.
4 lines
41.
You are the network administrator for a city library. Throughout the library are several groups of computers that provide public access to the internet. Supervision of these computers has been difficult. You've had problems with patrons bringing personal laptops into the library and disconnecting the network cables from the library computers to connect their laptops to the internet. The library computers are in groups of four. Each group of four computers is connected to a hub that's connected to the library network through an access port on a switch. You want to restrict access to the network so that only library computers are permitted connectivity to the internet. What can you do? Create a VLAN for each group of four computers. Configure port security on the switch. Create static MAC addresses for each computer and associate each address with a VLAN. Remove the hub and place each library computer on its own access port.
4 lines
42.
Incorrect Which of the following BEST describes an ARP spoofing attack? An attack where a frame is manipulated to contain two tags. An attack in which a switch is flooded with packets, each containing a different source MAC address. An attack that changes the source MAC address on frames. An attack that associates an attacker's MAC address with the IP address of a victim's device.
4 lines
43.
Incorrect Which of the following is a method of VLAN hopping? MAC spoofing ARP spoofing Double tagging MAC flooding
4 lines
44.
An attacker hides his computer's identity by impersonating another device on a network. Which of the following attacks did the attacker MOST likely perform? MAC spoofing attack VLAN hopping attack DTP attack ARP spoofing attack
4 lines
45.
Question 9: Incorrect Which of the following switch attacks bypasses the normal functions of a router to communicate between VLANs and gain unauthorized access to traffic on another VLAN? Dynamic Trunking Protocol attack ARP spoofing Switch spoofing MAC spoofing
4 lines
46.
Question 10: Incorrect Which of the following attacks manipulates a switch's auto-negotiation setting to access a virtual local area network that's connected to the same switch as the attacker's virtual local area network? Dynamic Trunking Protocol attack VLAN spoofing ARP spoofing MAC spoofing
4 lines
47.
Which of the following is true about Network Address Translation?
a)
It allows external hosts to initiate communication with internal hosts.
b)
It supports up to 5,000 concurrent connections.
c)
It cannot forward DNS requests to the internet.
d)
It provides end-device to end-device traceability.
48.
Which of the following allows incoming traffic addressed to a specific port to move through the firewall and be transparently forwarded to a specific host on the private network?
a)
DNAT
b)
OSPF
c)
Dynamic NAT
d)
IP masquerade
49.
Which device is NAT typically implemented on?
a)
AD server
b)
ISP router
c)
Default gateway router
d)
RADIUS server
50.
Which of the following NAT implementations maps a single private IP address to a single public IP address on the NAT router?
a)
Static NAT
b)
Many-to-one NAT
c)
IP masquerade
d)
Dynamic NAT
51.
Which of the following do hosts on a private network share if the network utilizes a NAT router?
a)
A virtual MAC address
b)
A virtual IP address
c)
A physical MAC address
d)
A physical IP address
52.
Which of the following is a method that allows you to connect a private network to the internet without obtaining registered addresses for every host?
a)
BGP
b)
EIGRP
c)
NAT
d)
OSPF
53.
Kate, a network administrator, has been tasked with staying within the company budget. She has a large network and doesn't want to spend more than she needs to on purchasing and registering multiple public IP addresses for each of the hosts on her network. Which of the following methods could help her provide internet access but also keep costs low and limit the number of registered IP addresses her organization needs to purchase?
a)
Use Network Address Translation.
b)
Use PoE devices.
c)
Use Layer 3 switches.
d)
Use Layer 2 switches.
54.
Which of the following is NOT one of the IP address ranges defined in RFC 1918 that are commonly used behind a NAT server?
a)
192.168.0.1 to 192.168.255.254
b)
172.16.0.1 to 172.31.255.254
c)
10.0.0.1 to 10.255.255.254
d)
169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254
55.
You are the network administrator for a small company that implements NAT to access the internet. However, you recently acquired five servers that must be accessible from outside your network. Your ISP has provided you with five additional registered IP addresses to support these new servers, but you don't want the public to access these servers directly. You want to place these servers behind your firewall on the inside network, yet still allow them to be accessible to the public from the outside. Which method of NAT translation should you implement for these servers?
a)
Dynamic
b)
Restricted
c)
Overloading
d)
Static
56.
In which of the following tables does a NAT router store port numbers and their associated private IP addresses?
a)
ARP table
b)
Routing table
c)
Translation table
d)
MAC address table
57.
Which of the following best describes DHCP scope exhaustion?
a)
When a DHCP snooping technique is used to drop packets from untrusted DHCP servers.
b)
When IP address lease times on a DHCP server are shortened.
c)
A denial of service from a lack of IP addresses in a DHCP server's pool.
d)
When an attacker adds a second DHCP server to a network and offers IP addresses to clients wanting to join the network.
58.
You have just connected a new computer to your network. The network uses static IP addressing. You find that the computer can communicate with hosts on the same subnet, but not with hosts on a different subnet. No other computers are having issues. Which of the following configuration values would you MOST likely need to change?
a)
Subnet mask
b)
IP address
c)
Default gateway
d)
DNS server
59.
A workstation's network board is currently configured as follows: Network Speed = Auto Duplexing = Auto The workstation is experiencing poor network performance, and you suspect that the network board is incorrectly detecting the network speed and duplex settings. Upon investigation, you find that it's running at 10 Mbps half-duplex. You know that your network switch is capable of much faster throughput. To fix this issue, you decide to manually configure these settings on the workstation. Before you do so, you need to verify the switch port configuration for the connected workstation. Given that it's a Cisco switch, which commands can you use on the switch to show a list of all switch ports and their current settings? (Select two.)
a)
show interface ethernet counters
b)
show interface capabilities
c)
show running-config interface
d)
show interface
e)
show interface switchport
60.
Which of the following utilities would you use to view the routing table?
a)
traceroute
b)
mtr
c)
tracert
d)
route
e)
dig
61.
You are unsure if the gateway address is correct for one of your subnetworks because traffic is not leaving the network. Which of the following tables could you look at to check if the gateway address is correct?
a)
Routing table
b)
MAC address table
c)
ARP table
d)
State table
62.
Which of the following scenarios would cause a problem in asymmetric routing?
a)
Using two routers in the traffic flow.
b)
Using two switches in the traffic flow.
c)
Using two stateful firewalls in the traffic flow.
d)
Using a hub in the traffic flow.
63.
You manage a network with multiple switches. You find that your switches are experiencing heavy broadcast storms. Which of the following will help reduce the effects of these broadcast storms?
a)
Enable Spanning Tree on the switches.
b)
Disable auto-duplex detection.
c)
Configure each switch with a single trunk port.
d)
Manually set the speed for each switch port.
64.
Which of the following can cause broadcast storms?
a)
Duplicate MAC addresses
b)
Duplicate IP addresses
c)
Routing loops
d)
Switching loops
65.
You run a small network for your business that has a single router connected to the internet and a single switch. You keep sensitive documents on a computer that you would like to keep isolated from other computers on the network. Other hosts on the network should not be able to communicate with this computer through the switch, but you still need to access the network through the computer. What should you use for this situation?
a)
Port security
b)
VLAN
c)
Spanning Tree
d)
VPN
66.
Which of the following BEST describes dynamic routing?
a)
Routing entries are manually added to routing tables.
b)
Routing is done within an autonomous system.
c)
Routing is done between autonomous systems.
d)
Routers learn about networks by sharing routing information with each other.
67.
Jake is a network administrator for a hospital. There is medical equipment that relies on having uninterrupted internet connectivity. Which of the following types of routing protocols should Jake focus on to ensure that the hospital's network connectivity remains reliable?
a)
Exterior dynamic routing protocols
b)
Link state routing protocols
c)
Distance vector routing protocols
d)
Interior dynamic routing protocols
68.
Which of the following has the least default administrative distance?
a)
OSPF
b)
Static route to an IP address
c)
External BGP
d)
RIP
69.
Under which of the following circumstances might you implement BGP on your company network and share routes with internet routers?
a)
If the network is connected to the internet using multiple ISPs.
b)
If the network has over 15 areas and uses IPv6.
c)
If the network has over 15 hops.
d)
If the network is connected to the internet using public addressing.
70.
A router is connected to network 192.168.1.0/24 and network 192.168.2.0/24. The router is configured to use RIP and has learned both networks. The next hop router for network 192.168.3.0 has changed. You need to make the change with the least amount of effort possible. What should you do?
a)
Wait for convergence to take place.
b)
Force RIP to perform an immediate update.
c)
Stop and restart the RIP protocol on the router.
d)
Manually reconfigure the default route to point to the new next hop router.
71.
Which of the following routing protocols is a hybrid that uses a composite number for its metric based on bandwidth and delay?
a)
BGP
b)
RIP
c)
EIGRP
d)
OSPF
72.
Which of the following are true of the IS-IS routing protocol? (Select two.)
a)
It uses bandwidth and delay for the metric.
b)
A router is the boundary between one area and another.
c)
It is best suited for small networks.
d)
It supports IPv6 routing.
e)
It divides large networks into areas.
73.
What are the main differences between the OSPF and IS-IS routing protocols?
a)
OSPF requires an area 0, while IS-IS does not.
b)
OSPF is an IGP routing protocol, while IS-IS is a BGP routing protocol.
c)
OSPF is a link state protocol, while IS-IS is not.
d)
OSPF is a classful protocol, while IS-IS is a classless protocol.
74.
What is the main difference between RIP and RIPv2?
a)
RIP is a classful protocol, while RIPv2 is a classless protocol.
b)
RIP is a distance vector protocol, while RIPv2 is a link state protocol.
c)
RIP has a limit of 15 hops, while RIPv2 increases the hop count limit.
d)
RIP use hop count for the metric, while RIPv2 uses a relative link cost.
75.
You have only one physical interface but want to connect two IP networks. Which of the following would allow you to do so?
a)
Subinterfaces
b)
A loopback address
c)
The sticky feature
d)
Virtual IPs
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