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Worksheetsmidterm
Total questions: 144
Worksheet time: 1hrs 24mins
1. Which of the following designations would refer to the AWS US West (Oregon) region?
A. us-east-1
B. us-west-2
C. us-west-2a
D. us-west-2b
2. Which of the following is an AWS Region for which customer access is restricted?
A. AWS Admin
B. US-DOD
C. Asia Pacific (Tokyo)
D. AWS GovCloud
3. When you request a new virtual machine instance in EC2, your instance will automatically launch into the currently selected value of which of the following?
A. Service
D. Region
B. Subnet
C. Availability Zone
D. Region
4. Which of the following are not globally based AWS services? (Select TWO.)
A. RDS
B. Route 53
C. EC2
D. CloudFront
5. Which of the following would be a valid endpoint your developers could use to access a particular Relational Database Service instance you’re running in the Northern Virginia region?
A. us-east-1.amazonaws.com.rds
D. rds.amazonaws.com.us-east-1
6. What are the most significant architectural benefits of the way AWS designed its regions? (Select TWO.)
A. It can make infrastructure more fault tolerant.
B. It can make applications available to end users with lower latency.
C. It can make applications more compliant with local regulations.
D. It can bring down the price of running.
a
b
c
d
7. Why is it that most AWS resources are tied to a single region?
A. Because those resources are run on a physical device, and that device must live somewhere
B. Because security considerations are best served by restricting access to a single physical location
C. Because access to any one digital resource must always occur through a single physical gateway
D. Because spreading them too far afield would introduce latency issues
a
b
c
d
9. Which of the following is the most accurate description of an AWS Availability Zone?
A. One or more independently powered data centers running a wide range of hardware host types
B. One or more independently powered data centers running a uniform hardware host type
C. All the data centers located within a broad geographic area
D. The infrastructure running within a single physical data center
a
b
c
d
8. You want to improve the resilience of your EC2 web server. Which of the following is the
most effective and efficient approach?
A. Launch parallel, load-balanced instances in multiple AWS Regions.
B. Launch parallel, load-balanced instances in multiple Availability Zones within a single AWS Region.
C. Launch parallel, autoscaled instances in multiple AWS Regions.
D. Launch parallel, autoscaled instances in multiple Availability Zones within a single
AWS Region.
10. Which of the following most accurately describes a subnet within the AWS ecosystem?
A. The virtual limits imposed on the network access permitted to a resource instance
B. The block of IP addresses assigned for use within a single region
C. The block of IP addresses assigned for use within a single Availability Zone
D. The networking hardware used within a single Availability Zone
11. What determines the order by which subnets/AZ options are displayed in EC2 configuration dialogs?
A. Alphabetical order
B. They (appear) to be displayed in random order.
C. Numerical order
D. By order of capacity, with largest capacity first
a
b
c
d
12. What is the primary goal of autoscaling?
A. To ensure the long-term reliability of a particular physical resource
B. To ensure the long-term reliability of a particular virtual resource
C. To orchestrate the use of multiple parallel resources to direct incoming user requests
D. To ensure that a predefined service level is maintained regardless of external demand or instance failures
a
b
c
d
13. Which of the following design strategies is most effective for maintaining the reliability of a cloud application?
A. Resource isolation
B. Resource automation
C. Resource redundancy
D. Resource geolocation
14. Which of the following AWS services are not likely to benefit from Amazon edge locations? (Select TWO.)
A. RDS
B. EC2 load balancers
C. Elastic Block Store (EBS)
D. CloudFront
15. Which of the following is the primary benefit of using CloudFront distributions?
A. Automated protection from mass email campaigns
B. Greater availability through redundancy
C. Greater security through data encryption
D. Reduced latency access to your content no matter where your end users live
16. What is the main purpose of Amazon Route 53?
A. Countering the threat of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks
B. Managing domain name registration and traffic routing
C. Protecting web applications from web-based threats
D. Using the serverless power of Lambda to customize CloudFront behavior
a
b
c
d
17. According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following are responsi- bilities of AWS? (Select TWO.)
A. The security of the cloud
B. Patching underlying virtualization software running in AWS data centers
C. Security of what’s in the cloud
D. Patching OSs running on EC2 instances
a
b
c
d
18. According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, what’s the best way to define the status of the software driving an AWS managed service?
A. Everything associated with an AWS managed service is the responsibility of AWS.
B. Whatever is added by the customer (like application code) is the customer’s responsibility.
C. Whatever the customer can control (application code and/or configuration settings) is the customer’s responsibility.
D. Everything associated with an AWS managed service is the responsibility of the customer.
19. Which of the following is one of the first places you should look when troubleshooting a failing application?
A. AWS Acceptable Use Monitor
B. Service Status Dashboard
C. AWS Billing Dashboard
D. Service Health Dashboard
20. Where will you find information on the limits AWS imposes on the ways you can use your account resources?
A. AWS User Agreement Policy
B. AWS Acceptable Use Policy
C. AWS Acceptable Use Monitor
D. AWS Acceptable Use Dashboard
1. What is the primary function of the AWS IAM service?
A. Identity and access management
B. Access key management
C. SSH key pair management
D. Federated access management
2. Which of the following are requirements you can include in an IAM password policy?
(Select THREE.)
A. Require at least one uppercase letter.
B. Require at least one number.
C. Require at least one space or null character.
D. Require at least one nonalphanumeric character.
a
b
c
d
3. Which of the following should you do to secure your AWS root user? (Select TWO.)
A. Assign the root user to the “admins” IAM group.
B. Use the root user for day-to-day administration tasks.
C. Enable MFA.
D. Create a strong password.
4. How does multi-factor authentication work?
A. Instead of an access password, users authenticate via a physical MFA device.
B. In addition to an access password, users also authenticate via a physical MFA device.
C. Users authenticate using tokens sent to at least two MFA devices.
D. Users authenticate using a password and also either a physical or virtual MFA device.
a
b
c
d
5. Which of the following SSH commands will successfully connect to an EC2 Amazon Linux instance with an IP address of 54.7.35.103 using a key named mykey.pem?
A. echo "mykey.pem ubuntu@54.7.35.103" | ssh -i
B. ssh -i mykey.pem ec2-user@54.7.35.103
C. ssh -i mykey.pem@54.7.35.103
D. ssh ec2-user@mykey.pem:54.7.35.103 -i
6. What’s the most efficient method for managing permissions for multiple IAM users?
A. Assign users requiring similar permissions to IAM roles.
B. Assign users requiring similar permissions to IAM groups.
C. Assign IAM users permissions common to others with similar administration responsibilities.
D. Create roles based on IAM policies, and assign them to IAM users.
a
b
c
d
7. What is an IAM role?
A. A set of permissions allowing access to specified AWS resources
B. A set of IAM users given permission to access specified AWS resources
C. Permissions granted a trusted entity over specified AWS resources
D. Permissions granted an IAM user over specified AWS resources
a
b
c
d
8. How can federated identities be incorporated into AWS workflows? (Select TWO.)
A. You can provide users authenticated through a third-party identity provider access to
backend resources used by your mobile app.
B. You can use identities to guide your infrastructure design decisions.
C. You can use authenticated identities to import external data (like email records from Gmail) into AWS databases.
D. You can provide admins authenticated through AWS Microsoft AD with access to a Microsoft SharePoint farm running on AWS.
9. Which of the following are valid third-party federated identity standards? (Select TWO.)
A. Secure Shell
B. SSO
C. SAML 2.0
D. Active Directory
a
b
c
d
10. What information does the IAM credential report provide?
A. A record of API requests against your account resources
B. A record of failed password account login attempts
C. The current state of your account security settings
D. The current state of security of your IAM users’ access credentials
a
b
c
d
11. What text format does the credential report use?
A. JSON
B. CSV
C. ASCII
D. XML
a
b
c
d
12. Which of the following IAM policies is the best choice for the admin user you create in order to replace the root user for day-to-day administration tasks?
A. AdministratorAccess
B. AmazonS3FullAccess
C. AmazonEC2FullAccess
D. AdminAccess
a
b
c
d
13. What will you need to provide for a new IAM user you’re creating who will use “program-
matic access” to AWS resources?
A. A password
B. A password and MFA
C. An access key ID
D. An access key ID and secret access key
a
b
c
d
14. What will IAM users with AWS Management Console access need to successfully log in?
A. Their username, account_number, and a password
B. Their username and password
C. Their account number and secret access key
D. Their username, password, and secret access key
a
b
c
d
15. Which of the following will encrypt your data while in transit between your office and
Amazon S3?
A. DynamoDB
B. SSE-S3
C. A client-side master key
D. SSE-KMS
a
b
c
d
16. Which of the following AWS resources cannot be encrypted using KMS?
A. Existing AWS Elastic Block Store volumes
B. RDS databases
C. S3 buckets
D. DynamoDB databases
a
b
c
d
17. What does KMS use to encrypt objects stored on your AWS account?
A. SSH master key
B. KMS master key
C. Client-side master key
D. Customer master key
a
b
c
d
18. Which of the following standards governs AWS-based applications processing credit card
transactions?
A. SSE-KMS
B. FedRAMP
C. PCI DSS
D. ARPA
a
b
c
d
19. What is the purpose of the Service Organization Controls (SOC) reports found on AWS
Artifact?
A. They can be used to help you design secure and reliable credit card transaction applications.
B. They attest to AWS infrastructure compliance with data accountability standards like Sarbanes–Oxley.
C. They guarantee that all AWS-based applications are, by default, compliant with Sarbanes–Oxley standards.
D. They’re an official, ongoing risk-assessment profiler for AWS-based deployments.
20. What role can the documents provided by AWS Artifact play in your application planning?
(Select TWO.)
A. They can help you confirm that your deployment infrastructure is compliant with regulatory standards.
B. They can provide insight into various regulatory and industry standards that represent best practices.
C. They can provide insight into the networking and storage design patterns your AWS applications use.
D. They represent AWS infrastructure design policy.
1. What is the function of an EC2 AMI?
A. To define the hardware profile used by an EC2 instance
B. To serve as an instance storage volume for high-volume data processing operations
C. To serve as a source image from which an instance’s primary storage volume is built
D. To define the way data streams are managed by EC2 instances
2. Where can you find a wide range of verified AMIs from both AWS and third-party vendors?
A. AWS Marketplace
B. Quick Start
C. Community AMIs
D. My AMIs
a
b
c
d
3. Which of the following could be included in an EC2 AMI? (Select TWO.)
A. A networking configuration
B. A software application stack
C. An operating system
D. An instance type definition
a
b
c
d
4. Which of the following are EC2 instance type families? (Select TWO.)
A. c5d.18xlarge
B. Compute optimized
C. t2.micro
D. Accelerated computing
a
b
c
d
5. When describing EC2 instance types, what is the role played by the vCPU metric?
A. vCPUs represent an instance’s potential resilience against external network demands.
B. vCPUs represent an instance type’s system memory compared to the class of memory modules on a physical machine.
C. vCPUs represent an AMI’s processing power compared to the number of processors on a physical machine.
D. vCPUs represent an instance type’s compute power compared to the number of processors on a physical machine.
6. Which of the following describes an EC2 dedicated instance?
A. An EC2 instance running on a physical host reserved for the exclusive use of a single
AWS account
B. An EC2 instance running on a physical host reserved for and controlled by a single AWS account
C. An EC2 AMI that can be launched only on an instance within a single AWS account
D. An EC2 instance optimized for a particular compute role
7. Which of the following describes an EBS volume?
A. A software stack archive packaged to make it easy to copy and deploy to an EC2
instance
B. A virtualized partition of a physical storage drive that’s directly connected to the EC2 instance it’s associated with
C. A virtualized partition of a physical storage drive that’s not directly connected to the EC2 instance it’s associated with
D. A storage volume that’s encrypted for greater security
8. Why might you want to use an instance store volume with your EC2 instance rather than a volume from the more common EBS service? (Select TWO.)
A. Instance store volumes can be encrypted.
B. Instance store volumes, data will survive an instance shutdown.
C. Instance store volumes provide faster data read/write performance.
D. Instance store volumes are connected directly to your EC2 instance.
a
b
c
d
9. Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for those extra instances?
A. Spot
B. On-demand
C. Reserved
D. Dedicated
a
b
c
d
10. Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for the “base” instances that will run constantly?
A. Spot
B. On-demand
C. Spot fleet
D. Reserved
a
b
c
d
11. Which of the following best describes what happens when you purchase an EC2 reserved instance?
A. Charges for any instances you run matching the reserved instance type will be covered by the reservation.
B. Capacity matching the reserved definition will be guaranteed to be available whenever you request it.
C. Your account will immediately and automatically be billed for the full reservation amount.
D. An EC2 instance matching your reservation will automatically be launched in the selected AWS Region.
12. Which of the following use cases are good candidates for spot instances? (Select TWO.)
A. Big data processing workloads
B. Ecommerce websites
C. Continuous integration development environments
D. Long-term, highly available, content-rich websites
a
b
c
d
13. Which AWS services simplify the process of bringing web applications to deployment?
(Select TWO.)
A. Elastic Block Store
B. Elastic Compute Cloud
C. Elastic Beanstalk
D. Lightsail
a
b
c
d
14. Which of the following services bills at a flat rate regardless of how it’s consumed?
A. Lightsail
B. Elastic Beanstalk
C. Elastic Compute Cloud
D. Relational Database Service
a
b
c
d
15. Which of these stacks are available from Lightsail blueprints? (Select TWO.)
A. Ubuntu
B. Gitlab
C. WordPress
D. LAMP
a
b
c
d
16. Which of these AWS services use primarily EC2 resources under the hood? (Select TWO.)
A. Elastic Block Store
B. Lightsail
C. Elastic Beanstalk
D. Relational Database Service
a
b
c
d
17. Which of the following AWS services are designed to let you deploy Docker containers?
(Select TWO.)
A. Elastic Container Service
B. Lightsail
C. Elastic Beanstalk
D. Elastic Compute Cloud
a
b
c
d
18. Which of the following use container technologies? (Select TWO.)
A. Docker
B. Kubernetes
C. Lambda
D. Lightsail
a
b
c
d
19. What role can the Python programming language play in AWS Lambda?
A. Python cannot be used for Lambda.
B. It is the primary language for API calls to administrate Lambda remotely.
C. It is used as the underlying code driving the service.
D. It can be set as the runtime environment for a function.
20. What is the maximum time a Lambda function may run before timing out?
A. 15 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. 1 minute
D. 1 hour
a
b
c
d
1. When trying to create an S3 bucket named documents, AWS informs you that the bucket name is already in use. What should you do in order to create a bucket?
A. Use a different region.
B. Use a globally unique bucket name.
C. Use a different storage class.
D. Use a longer name.
E. Use a shorter name.
a
b
c
d
2. Which S3 storage classes are most cost-effective for infrequently accessed data that can’t be easily replaced? (Select TWO.)
A. STANDARD_IA
B. ONEZONE_IA
C. GLACIER
D. STANDARD
E. INTELLIGENT_TIERING
a
b
c
d
e
3. What are the major differences between Simple Storage Service (S3) and Elastic Block Store
(EBS)? (Select TWO.)
A. EBS stores volumes.
B. EBS stores snapshots.
C. S3 stores volumes.
D. S3 stores objects.
E. EBS stores objects.
a
b
c
d
e
4. Which tasks can S3 object life cycle configurations perform automatically? (Select THREE.)
A. Deleting old object versions
B. Moving objects to Glacier
C. Deleting old buckets
D. Deleting old objects
E. Moving objects to an EBS volume
a
b
c
d
e
5. What methods can be used to grant anonymous access to an object in S3? (Select TWO.)
A. Bucket policies
B. Access control lists
C. User policies
D. Security groups
a
b
c
d
6. Your budget-conscious organization has a 5 TB database file it needs to retain off-site for at least 5 years. In the event the organization needs to access the database, it must be accessible within 8 hours. Which cloud storage option should you recommend, and why? (Select TWO.)
F. S3 doesn’t support object sizes greater than 4 TB.
A. S3 has the most durable storage.
B. S3.
C. S3 Glacier.
D. Glacier is the most cost effective.
E. S3 has the fastest retrieval times.
7. Which of the following actions can you perform from the S3 Glacier service console?
A. Delete an archive
B. Create a vault
C. Create an archive
D. Delete a bucket
E. Retrieve an archive
a
b
c
d
e
8. Which Glacier retrieval option generally takes 3 to 5 hours to complete?
A. Provisioned
B. Expedited
C. Bulk
D. Standard
a
b
c
d
9. What’s the minimum size for a Glacier archive?
A. 1 byte
B. 40 TB
C. 5 TB
D. 0 bytes
a
b
c
d
10. Which types of AWS Storage Gateway let you connect your servers to block storage using the iSCSI protocol? (Select TWO.)
A. Cached gateway
B. Tape gateway
C. File gateway
D. Volume gateway
a
b
c
d
11. Where does AWS Storage Gateway primarily store data?
A. Glacier vaults
B. S3 buckets
C. EBS volumes
D. EBS snapshots
a
b
c
d
12. You need an easy way to transfer files from a server in your data center to S3 without having to install any third-party software. Which of the following services and storage protocols could you use? (Select FOUR.)
A. AWS Storage Gateway—file gateway
B. iSCSI
C. AWS Snowball
D. SMB
E. AWS Storage Gateway—volume gateway
F. The AWS CLI
a
b
c
d
e
13. Which of the following are true regarding the AWS Storage Gateway—volume gateway configuration? (Select THREE.)
A. Stored volumes asynchronously back up data to S3 as EBS snapshots.
B. Stored volumes can be up to 32 TB in size.
C. Cached volumes locally store only a frequently used subset of data.
D. Cached volumes asynchronously back up data to S3 as EBS snapshots.
E. Cached volumes can be up to 32 TB in size.
14. What’s the most data you can store on a single Snowball device?
A. 42TB
B. 50TB
C. 72 TB
D. 80 TB
a
b
c
d
15. Which of the following are security features of AWS Snowball? (Select TWO.)
A. It enforces encryption at rest.
B. It uses a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
C. It enforces NFS encryption.
D. It has tamper-resistant network ports.
a
b
c
d
16. Which of the following might AWS do after receiving a damaged Snowball device from a
customer?
A. Copy the customer’s data to Glacier
B. Replace the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip
C. Securely erase the customer’s data from the device
D. Copy the customer’s data to S3
a
b
c
d
17. Which of the following can you use to transfer data to AWS Snowball from a Windows
machine without writing any code?
A. NFS
B. The Snowball Client
C. iSCSI
D. SMB
E. The S3 SDK Adapter for Snowball
a
b
c
d
18. How do the AWS Snowball and Snowball Edge devices differ? (Select TWO.)
A. Snowball Edge supports copying files using NFS.
B. Snowball devices can be clustered together for storage.
C. Snowball’s QSFP+ network interface supports speeds up to 40 Gbps.
D. Snowball Edge can run EC2 instances.
a
b
c
d
19. Which of the following Snowball Edge device options is the best for running machine
learning applications?
A. Compute Optimized
B. Compute Optimized with GPU
C. Storage Optimized
D. Network Optimized
a
b
c
d
20. Which of the following hardware devices offers a network interface speed that supports up to 100 Gbps?
A. Snowball Edge with the Storage Optimized configuration
B. Snowball Edge with the Compute Optimized configuration
C. Storage Gateway
D. 80 TB Snowball
a
b
c
d
1. Which type of database stores data in columns and rows?
A. Nonrelational
B. Relational
C. Key-value store
D. Document
a
b
c
d
2. Which of the following Structured Query Language (SQL) statements can you use to write
data to a relational database table?
A. CREATE
B. INSERT
C. QUERY
D. WRITE
a
b
c
d
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding nonrelational databases?
A. You can create only one table.
B. No primary key is required.
C. You can’t store data with a fixed structure.
D. You don’t have to define all the types of data that a table can store before adding data to it.
a
b
c
d
4. What is a no-SQL database?
A. A nonrelational database without primary keys
B. A schemaless relational database
C. A schemaless nonrelational database
D. A relational database with primary keys
a
b
c
c
5. What do new Relational Database Service (RDS) instances use for database storage?
A. Instance volumes
B. Elastic Block Store (EBS) volumes
C. Snapshots
D. Magnetic storage
a
b
c
d
6. Which of the following are database engine options for Amazon Relational Database
Service (RDS)? (Select TWO.)
A. IBM dBase
B. PostgreSQL
C. DynamoDB
D. Amazon Aurora
E. Redis
a
b
c
d
e
7. What two databases is Amazon Aurora compatible with? (Select TWO.)
A. MySQL
B. PostgreSQL
C. MariaDB
D. Oracle
E. Microsoft SQL Server
a
b
c
d
e
8. Which of the following features of Relational Database Service (RDS) can prevent data loss in the event of an Availability Zone failure? (Select TWO.)
A. Read replicas
B. Multi-AZ
C. Snapshots
D. IOPS
E. Vertical scaling
a
b
c
d
e
9. Which RDS database engine offers automatically expanding database storage up to 64 TB?
A. Microsoft SQL Server
B. Amazon Aurora
C. Oracle
D. Amazon Athena
a
b
c
e
10. Which of the following Relational Database Service (RDS) features can help you achieve a
monthly availability of 99.95 percent?
A. Multi-AZ
B. Read replicas
C. Point-in-time recovery
D. Horizontal scaling
a
b
c
d
11. What is true regarding a DynamoDB partition? (Select TWO.)
A. It’s stored within a table.
B. It’s backed by solid-state drives.
C. It’s a way to uniquely identify an item in a table.
D. It’s replicated across multiple Availability Zones.
a
b
c
d
12. What is the minimum monthly availability for DynamoDB in a single region?
A. 99.99 percent
B. 99.95 percent
C. 99.9 percent
D. 99.0 percent
a
b
c
d
13. Which of the following statements is true regarding a DynamoDB table?
A. It can store only one data type.
B. When you create a table, you must define the maximum number of items that it can store.
C. Items in a table can have duplicate values for the primary key.
D. Items in a table don’t have to have all the same attributes.
a
b
c
d
14. Which configuration parameters can you adjust to improve write performance against a DynamoDB table? (Select TWO.)
A. Decrease read capacity units (RCU)
B. Increase read capacity units
C. Increase write capacity units (WCU)
D. Decrease write capacity units
E. Enable DynamoDB Auto Scaling
a
b
c
d
e
15. Which DynamoDB operation is the most read-intensive?
A. Write
B. Query
C. Scan
D. Update
a
b
c
d
16. Which of the following would be appropriate to use for a primary key in a DynamoDB table that stores a customer list?
A. The customer’s full name
B. The customer’s phone number
C. The customer’s city
D. A randomly generated customer ID number
a
b
c
d
17. Which type of Redshift node uses magnetic storage?
A. Cost-optimized
B. Dense compute
C. Dense storage
D. Dense memory
a
b
c
d
18. Which Redshift feature can analyze structured data stored in S3?
A. Redshift Spectrum
B. Redshift S3
C. Amazon Athena
D. Amazon RDS
a
b
c
d
19. What is the term for a relational database that stores large amounts of structured data from
a variety of sources for reporting and analysis?
A. Data storehouse
B. Data warehouse
C. Report cluster
D. Dense storage node
a
b
c
d
20. What’s the maximum amount of data you can store in a Redshift cluster when using dense storage nodes?
A. 2 PB
B. 326 TB
C. 2 TB
D. 326 PB
E. 236 TB
a
b
c
d
1. Which of the following are true of a default VPC? (Select TWO.)
A. A default VPC spans multiple regions.
B. AWS creates a default VPC in each region.
C. AWS creates a default VPC in each Availability Zone.
D. By default, each default VPC is available to one AWS account.
a
b
c
d
2. Which of the following is a valid CIDR for a VPC or subnet?
A. 10.0.0.0/28
B. 10.0.0.0/29
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.0.0.0/15
a
b
c
d
3. Which of the following are true regarding subnets? (Select TWO.)
A. A VPC must have at least two subnets.
B. A subnet must have a CIDR that’s a subset of the CIDR of the VPC in which it resides.
C. A subnet spans one Availability Zone.
D. A subnet spans multiple Availability Zones.
a
b
c
d
4. Which of the following is true of a new security group?
A. It contains an inbound rule denying access from public IP addresses.
B. It contains an outbound rule denying access to public IP addresses.
C. It contains an outbound rule allowing access to any IP address.
D. It contains an inbound rule allowing access from any IP address.
5. What’s the difference between a security group and a network access control list (NACL)? (Select TWO.)
A. A network access control list operates at the instance level.
B. A security group operates at the instance level.
C. A security group operates at the subnet level.
D. A network access control list operates at the subnet level.
6. Which of the following is true of a VPC peering connection?
A. It’s a private connection that connects more than three VPCs.
B. It’s a private connection between two VPCs.
C. It’s a public connection between two VPCs.
D. It’s a virtual private network (VPN) connection between two VPCs.
a
b
c
d
7. What are two differences between a virtual private network (VPN) connection and a Direct Connect connection? (Select TWO.)
A. A Direct Connect connection offers predictable latency because it doesn’t traverse the internet.
B. A VPN connection uses the internet for transport.
C. A Direct Connect connection uses AES 128- or 256-bit encryption.
D. A VPN connection requires proprietary hardware.
a
b
c
d
8. Which of the following are true about registering a domain name with Route 53? (Select TWO.)
A. The registrar you use to register a domain name determines who will host DNS for that domain.
B. You can register a domain name for a term of up to 10 years.
C. Route 53 creates a private hosted zone for the domain.
D. Route 53 creates a public hosted zone for the domain.
a
b
c
d
9. Which of the following Route 53 routing policies can return set of randomly ordered values?
A. Simple
B. Multivalue Answer
C. Failover
D. Latency
a
b
c
d
10. Which of the following Route 53 routing policies doesn’t use health checks?
A. Latency
B. Multivalue Answer
C. Simple
D. Geolocation
a
b
c
d
11. Which of the following types of Route 53 health checks works by making a test connection to a TCP port?
A. Simple
B. CloudWatch alarm
C. Endpoint
D. Calculated
a
b
c
d
12. You have two EC2 instances hosting a web application. You want to distribute 20 percent of traffic to one instance and 80 percent to the other. Which of the following Route 53 routing policies should you use?
A. Weighted
B. Failover
C. Multivalue Answer
D. Simple
a
b
c
d
13. Resources in a VPC need to be able to resolve internal IP addresses for other resources in the VPC. No one outside of the VPC should be able to resolve these addresses. Which of the following Route 53 resources can help you achieve this?
A. A public hosted zone
B. A private hosted zone
C. Domain name registration
D. Health checks
a
b
c
d
14. You want to provide private name resolution for two VPCs using the domain name company.pri. How many private hosted zones do you need to create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
a
b
c
d
15. On how many continents are CloudFront edge locations distributed?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
a
b
c
d
16. From where does CloudFront retrieve content to store for caching?
A. Regions
B. Origins
C. Distributions
D. Edge locations
a
b
c
d
17. Which CloudFront distribution type requires you to provide a media player?
A. Streaming
B. RTMP
C. Web
D. Edge
a
b
c
d
18. You need to deliver content to users in the United States and Canada. Which of the following edge location options will be the most cost effective for your CloudFront distribution?
A. United States, Canada, and Europe
B. United States, Canada, Europe, and Asia
C. United States, Canada, Europe, Asia, and Africa
D. All edge locations
a
b
c
d
19. Approximately how many different CloudFront edge locations are there?
A. About 50
B. More than 150
C. More than 300
D. More than 500
a
b
c
d
20. Which of the following are valid origins for a CloudFront distribution? (Select TWO.)
A. EC2 instance
B. A public S3 bucket
C. A private S3 bucket that you don’t have access to
D. A private S3 bucket that you own
a
b
c
d
Which of the following credentials can you use to log into the AWS Management Console?
Access key ID
Account alias
Account ID
Identity and Access Management (IAM) username
How long will your session with the AWS Management Console remain active?
6 hours
12 hours
8 hours
24 hours
While looking at the EC2 service console in the AWS Management Console while logged in as the root user, you notice all of your instances are missing. What could be the reason?
You’ve selected the wrong region in the navigation bar.
You don’t have view access.
You’ve selected the wrong Availability Zone in the navigation bar.
You don’t have an access key.
Which of the following is true regarding a resource tag?
It must be unique within an account.
It’s case insensitive.
It must have a key.
It must have a value.
Which of the following is required to use the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)?
A secret key
An IAM user
Outbound network access to TCP port 80
Linux
Which of the following are options for installing the AWS CLI on Windows 10? (Select TWO.)
The MSI installer
An AWS software development kit (SDK)
The Yum or Aptitude package manager
Using Python and pip
After installing the AWS Command Line Interface, what should you do before using it to
securely manage your AWS resources?
Issue the aws --version command.
Issue the aws configure command.
Reboot.
Generate a new access key ID and secret access key for the root user.
Which output format does the AWS CLI support?
Tab-separated values (TSV)
Comma-separated values (CSV)
JavaScript object notation (JSON)
None of these
Which of the following programming languages are AWS software development kits avail-
able for? (Select THREE.)
A. Fortran
B. JavaScript
C. JSON
D. Java
E. PHP
Which of the following software development kits (SDKs) enable developers to write mobile applications that run on both Apple and Android devices? (Select TWO.)
AWS Mobile SDK for Unity
AWS Mobile SDK for .NET and Xamarin
AWS SDK for Go
AWS Mobile SDK for iOS
Which of the following programming languages are AWS Internet of Things (IoT) device software development kits available for? (Select TWO.)
A. JavaScript
B. C++
C. Swift
D. Ruby
What’s the difference between the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) and the AWS soft- ware development kits (SDK)? (Select TWO.)
The AWS SDKs allow you to use popular programming languages to write applications that interact with AWS services.
The AWS CLI allows you to interact with AWS services from a terminal.
The AWS SDKs allow you to interact with AWS services from a terminal.
The AWS CLI allows you to use popular programming languages to write applications that interact with AWS services.
Which of the following CloudWatch features store performance data from AWS services?
Logs
Metrics
Events
Metric filters
Alarms
For which of the following scenarios can you create a CloudWatch alarm to send a notification?
A metric that doesn’t change for 24 hours
Termination of an EC2 instance
The presence of a specific IP address in a web server log
A metric that exceeds a given threshold
Which of the following Simple Notification Service (SNS) protocols can you use to send a notification? (Select TWO.)
Short Message Service (SMS) text message
CloudWatch Events
Simple Queue Service (SQS)
Mobile pull notification
Which of the following are true regarding CloudWatch Events? (Select TWO.)
It can reboot an EC2 instance when an error appears in a log file.
It can send an SNS notification when an EC2 instance’s CPU utilization exceeds 90%.
It can send an SNS notification when an IAM user logs in to the AWS Management Console.
It can shut down an EC2 instance at a specific time.
Which of the following trigger an API action? (Select TWO.)
Configuring the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)
Viewing an S3 bucket from the AWS Management Console
Logging into the AWS Management Console
Listing IAM users from the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI)
What’s the most cost-effective way to view and search only the last 60 days of management API events on your AWS account?
Use CloudTrail event history.
Create a trail.
Stream CloudTrail logs to CloudWatch.
Use CloudWatch Events.
You want to log every object downloaded from an S3 bucket in a specific region. You want to retain these logs indefinitely and search them easily. What’s the most cost-effective way to do this? (Select TWO.)
Stream CloudTrail logs to CloudWatch Logs.
Use CloudTrail event history.
Enable CloudTrail logging of global service events.
Create a trail to log S3 data events.
What is a benefit of using CloudTrail log file integrity validation?
It lets you assert that no CloudTrail log files have been deleted from CloudWatch.
It lets you assert that no CloudTrail log files have been deleted from S3.
It prevents unauthorized users from deleting CloudTrail log files.
It tells you how a CloudTrail log file has been tampered with.
Which of the following Cost Explorer report types can show you the monthly costs for your reserved EC2 instances?
Reserved instance recommendations
Reserved Instances (RI) Coverage reports
Reserved Instances (RI) Utilization reports
Costs and usage reports
Which of the following services allow you to purchase reserved instances to save money?
Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)
Lambda
S3
AWS Fargate
Which Cost Explorer report shows the amount of money you’ve saved using reserved
instances?
Daily costs
Reservation Utilization
Reservation Coverage
Monthly EC2 running hours costs and usage
You’ve been running several Elasticsearch instances continuously for the past three months. You check the reserved instance recommendations in Cost Explorer but see no recommen- dations. What could be a reason for this?
The recommendation parameters are based on the past seven days.
You haven’t selected the Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) service.
Cost Explorer doesn’t make reservation recommendations for Elasticsearch.
Your instances are already covered by reservations.
You haven’t selected the ElastiCache service.
