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Aviation Quiz

Total questions: 77

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a sling load is being hooked up, where should the ground crew stand?

a)

Behind the load

b)

Between the helicopter and the load

c)

In front of the helicopter, in plain view of the pilot

d)

Beside the helicopter, in plain view of the pilot

2.

For operations with a sling load, select the correct statement:

a)

Ground crew should stand between the load and the helicopter when hooking the load

b)

The pilot should constantly monitor the sling mirror when the load is being attached

c)

A gated hook should be used to prevent the attached load from excessive movement

d)

A drag line should be attached to the load to help with stability

3.

The altimeter setting is 30.22"Hg, and it indicated 1000ft. What is the pressure altitude?

a)

700

b)

1300

c)

930

d)

1030

4.

A pilot selects a VOR frequency, and the needle moves, but there is no sound. What could be the reason?

a)

The VOR is unserviceable

b)

The pilot selected the wrong frequency

c)

The signal is interrupted

d)

The NAV radio should be checked for serviceability

5.

Flying through a warm front a pilot experiences showery rain and it became heavy. What is happening?

a)

Warm front is steep

b)

Warm front is moving fast

c)

Warm front is shallow

d)

Warm front is moving slow

6.

What kind of fog is not affected by (diurnal fluctuations) change from night to day?

a)

Radiation fog in depressions and valleys

b)

Upslope fog with strong surface winds

c)

Advection fog over lake or ocean

d)

Ice fog

7.

The ADF shows your relative bearing to the NDB is 235 degrees. Your GPS shows that the NDB is at 140 degrees True. What is your true heading?

a)

000 degrees

b)

266 degrees

c)

94 degrees

d)

138 degrees

8.

Which of the following is a main factor in ALL types of fog?

a)

Clear skies

b)

High relative humidity

c)

Almost calm like wind conditions

d)

Wind above 8kts but less than 10kts

9.

How many infants can a passenger be responsible for during a flight?

a)

No limit

b)

1

c)

It depends on the passenger

d)

2

10.

Aerodynamic forces applied to the blades during the hover in calm or no wind conditions are:

a)

Lift & drag

b)

Lift & thrust

c)

Trust & drag

d)

Thrust & weight

11.

You are on the 270 VOR radial. You want to intercept the 330 radial inbound at 90 degrees. You should set your OBS to ________ and change your heading to ________.

a)

150, 60 degrees M

b)

000, 30 degrees M

c)

330, 60 degrees M

d)

090, 60 degrees M

12.

What is the performance of decreased all-up-weight helicopter during autorotation in calm winds?

a)

Increased RPM and rate of descent

b)

Increased RPM, decreased rate of descent

c)

Decreased RPM and rate of descent

d)

Decreased RPM, increased rate of descent

13.

In regards to a running helicopter, passengers should be briefed to:

a)

Approach and leave from the side of front of helicopter, in crouched position

b)

Approach uphill, leave downhill on a slope

c)

Wait for a signal or instruction to approach/leave the helicopter

d)

Do all of the above

14.

No one shall operate a commercial night flight unless authorized in accordance to the procedures of the air operator's:

a)

Standard operations procedures

b)

Company operations manual

c)

License

d)

CARs

15.

Vertical distance between 2 pressure levels is:

a)

Larger in cold weather than warm weather

b)

Larger in warm weather than cold weather

c)

The same in all weather conditions

d)

None of the above

16.

Vertical distance between 2 pressure levels is:

a)

larger in cold weather than warm weather

b)

closest in cold weather

c)

closer in warm weather than cold weather

d)

closest in warm weather

17.

The base of cumulous clouds will be determined by:

a)

Environmental lapse rate

b)

Temperature dew point spread

c)

Relative humidity

d)

Adiabatic lapse rate

18.

During daytime over the ocean, you observe a large area of fog. This is caused by:

a)

Cold & warm water mixing

b)

Radiation cooling

c)

Strong inversion

d)

Advection cooling

19.

One factor that is required for formation of all types of fog is:

a)

Clear skies

b)

High humidity

c)

Wind greater than 5kts but less than 15kts

d)

Convection & subsidence

20.

Once a pilot makes a decision to continue to his/her destination VFR in deteriorating weather, there is a tendency to:

a)

Experience mind-blanking

b)

Stop thinking about the decision

c)

Re-evaluate the decision

d)

Overlook new information and justify the decision even if new information contradicts

21.

A squall line is forecasted 50NM ahead, the pilot in flight will see:

a)

A band of cumulous and towering cumulous clouds parallel to the front

b)

Low level wind shear at the surface

c)

Stratus layer clouds with rain

d)

Cirrus, cirrocumulus, altostratus, and nimbostratus clouds

22.

GFA shows “Virga” in the northwest corner of the map. It indicates:

a)

Microburst

b)

Wind shear due to inversion

c)

Convective heating

d)

Warm front overriding cold front

23.

What are the fuel requirements for night VFR commercial flights?

a)

Enough to destination plus 40 minutes at cruise speed

b)

Enough to destination plus 30 minutes at cruise speed

c)

Enough to destination plus 20 minutes at cruise speed

d)

Enough to destination and to an alternate destination

24.

What are the fuel requirements for night VFR commercial flights?

a)

Enough to destination plus 40 minutes at cruise speed

b)

Enough to destination plus 30 minutes at cruise speed

c)

Enough to destination plus 20 minutes at cruise speed

d)

Enough to destination and to an alternate destination

25.

Which rotor system integrates Flap and Drag hinges?

a)

Fully articulated

b)

Semi articulated

c)

Semi rigid

d)

Rigid

26.

How are clouds formed when warm air is overtaking cold air?

a)

The warm air is cooled from below

b)

The cold air is warmed from above

c)

It forms fog

d)

Expansion heating

27.

The primary factor affecting stability is:

a)

Closeness of horizontal isobars

b)

Closeness of vertical isobars

c)

Relative humidity

d)

Heating from below

28.

Once closed, Class C airspace turns into:

a)

Class G uncontrolled airspace

b)

Class G controlled airspace

c)

Class E uncontrolled airspace

d)

Class E controlled airspace

29.

Your pitot tube and drain are plugged, your ASI will show?

a)

Underread in a climb

b)

Show no change with large changes in power

c)

Overread in a descent

d)

No indication

30.

Pressure changes more with altitude in:

a)

Cold air

b)

Warm air

c)

Temperature does not affect changes in pressure

d)

At the standard rate of change

31.

What limitation are you most likely to exceed on a turbine engine if you quickly pull up the collective?

a)

TOT if temp is above ISA temp

b)

TOT if temp is below ISA temp

c)

Torque/TOT depending on how fast you pull the collective

d)

Torque

32.

What is the SVFR visibility minimum?

a)

1/2 SM visibility

b)

1/2 SM visibility and 1/2 SM ground visibility

c)

1/2 SM visibility and 500 AGL

d)

1/2 SM visibility, clear of cloud

33.

What is the illusion caused by rain on the window? The ground will appear ________.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Closer

d)

Farther

34.

Your aircraft does not have a MEL and the ELT has been taken out of service. You can:

a)

Only fly within 25nm of departure aerodrome

b)

Fly without an ELT while it is being serviced

c)

Cannot fly the aircraft

d)

All of the above

35.

What is the validity period of a GFA?

a)

1 hour

b)

6 hour

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

36.

Your aircraft has a VOR and DME receiver onboard. What information can you receive?

a)

Azimuth and distance information from a TACAN

b)

Distance only from a VORTAC

c)

Azimuth only from a TACAN

d)

Azimuth and distance from a VORTAC

37.

Compared with a fixed-wing aircraft, wake turbulence produced by a helicopter is:

a)

Greater than fixed-wing aircraft

b)

Similar to that produced by fixed-wing aircraft

c)

Less than fixed-wing aircraft in landing configuration

d)

Less than fixed-wing aircraft in take-off configuration

38.

Surface contamination training shall be done:

a)

Upon initial hire

b)

Annually

c)

Before PPC

d)

Every 2 years

39.

*** GANDER MAP *** Your heading is 320 degrees. What will your relative bearing be on centreline R13?

a)

296

b)

116

c)

076

d)

036

40.

You execute a level 180 degree turn in a white-out condition. What will it feel like when you level out?

a)

Like you are turning the opposite direction

b)

Like you are continuing your turn

c)

Like you are descending

d)

Like you are ascending

41.

On your way from Clarenville to Deer Lake if you tuned your CDI to the 200 radial of the Gander VOR. What would your instrument indicate right before the intersection of the radial and your track?

a)

Right / TO

b)

Right / FROM

c)

Left / TO

d)

Left / FROM

42.

Float type style carburetors can be prone to icing more than fuel injection because:

a)

The butterfly is upstream of the venturi and collects ice

b)

Fuel injected fuel is heated before going in combustion chamber

c)

The vaporization of fuel in the carb throat

d)

Fuel injector nozzles are high pressure and will shed any ice buildup

43.

Recall the validity period of a PPC renewal

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

Doesn’t expire

44.

During flight your pitot tube and entire static system become blocked. What is the effect on your airspeed indicator?

a)

Over reads in climb, under reads in descent

b)

Under reads in climb, over reads in descent

c)

Reads zero

d)

Remains constant regardless of change in airspeed

45.

Which situation is most conducive to carburetor icing?

a)

-10 degrees, low power, high humidity

b)

-10 degrees, high power, high humidity

c)

-10 degrees high power, high humidity

d)

+10 degrees, low power, high humidity

46.

Class C airspace becomes ________ when tower is not under hours of operation?

a)

Class D controlled

b)

Class D uncontrolled

c)

Class E controlled

d)

Class E uncontrolled

47.

A Mode C mode Transponder

a)

Transmits distance, altitude and reinforces a surveillance radar

b)

Transmits distance, altitude and reinforces a GPS signal

c)

Transmits distance, altitude and intercepts a VOR signal

d)

Transmits distance, altitude and communication with a TACAN

48.

What are the night VFR fuel requirements for commercial aircraft?

a)

20 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

45 minutes

d)

50 minutes

49.

A warm air mass is moving slowly over very cold ground. Which type of cloud formation is likely to form?

a)

Cumulus

b)

Towering cumulus

c)

Stratus

d)

Fog

50.

Applying carb heat lowers manifold pressure because:

a)

It leans the mixture

b)

The fuel-air mixture is less dense

c)

The fuel-air mixture is more dense

d)

Hot air does not burn as well as cold air

51.

Considering temperature only, when is indicated altitude less than true altitude?

a)

When it is warmer than standard atmosphere

b)

When pressure is less than standard atmosphere

c)

When it is colder than standard atmosphere

d)

When pressure is equal to standard atmosphere

52.

Which of the following is true about pressure systems?

a)

High pressure systems are areas of rising air

b)

Low pressure systems are areas of sinking air

c)

Low pressure systems and troughs are areas of rising air

d)

High and low pressure systems are characterized by convergence

53.

An air operator who will operate farther than gliding distance from shore and takeoff / land at a water aerodrome must carry:

a)

Water type ELT

b)

Life rafts to fit everyone on board

c)

Life preservers for everyone on board

d)

All of the above and additional equipment listed in the CARs

54.

Aircraft A is on an IFR flight. Aircraft B is flying VFR climbing to an altitude where they will converge with Aircraft A. Which aircraft has the right of way?

a)

VFR aircraft

b)

Climbing aircraft

c)

IFR aircraft

d)

The aircraft that has the other on its left

55.

The factor that influences how much water air can hold is:

a)

Relative humidity

b)

Density

c)

Dew point

d)

Temperature

56.

ATC may authorize you to fly SVFR to transit a Class C control zone if:

a)

Visibility is greater than ½ mile

b)

Visibility is greater than ¾ mile and you remain above 500ft AGL

c)

Visibility is greater than 1 mile

d)

Visibility is greater than 1 mile and you remain above 500ft AGL

57.

Fatigued crew member, whose responsibility is it to make sure they don’t fly?

a)

Crew member and operator

b)

Flight operations manager

c)

Concerned crew member if they have flown more than 8 hours in 24 hours

d)

Flight supervisor if crew member has flown over 100 hrs in 30 days

58.

What is the limiting factor in a turbine engine when pulling the collective?

a)

Torque when OAT is less than ISA

b)

Torque when OAT is more than ISA

c)

TOT or torque depending on how much collective was pulled

d)

TOT when OAT is more than ISA

59.

An air operator requires surface contamination training and an examination on the procedures:

4 lines
60.

An air operator requires surface contamination training and an examination on the procedures

a)

During a PPC check

b)

Every 6 months

c)

Annually

d)

When initially hired

61.

When conducting a flight within the Standard Pressure Region, you should set your altimeter to the nearest aerodrome setting:

a)

Just before you descend to land

b)

When you reach cruising altitude

c)

When you cross into the Altimeter Setting Region

d)

After you have been cleared for an approach

62.

Immediately after takeoff you realize there is a strong inversion. What is the hazard?

a)

Strong updrafts

b)

Cold air driving up warm air

c)

Strong surface winds

d)

Poor visibility

63.

The basic dimensions of a low level airway are:

a)

It depends how far you are from the VOR

b)

5 NM

c)

8 NM

d)

9 NM

64.

The transponder receives altitude information from:

a)

The pressure sensitive altimeter

b)

The barometric altimeter

c)

The encoding altimeter

d)

Radar interrogation

65.

You are testing your VOR Receiver with a VOT and receive a FR flag with the needle centered at 004.

a)

The VOR receiver is serviceable

b)

The OBS will need to be corrected for +4 degrees deviation while flying

c)

The OBS will need to be corrected for -4 degrees deviation while flying

d)

The VOR receiver cannot be used

66.

The main characteristic to identify a mature thunderstorm is:

a)

Updrafts only

b)

Precipitation

c)

Anvil cloud

d)

Downdrafts through the entire cell except the top

67.

You are scheduled to take off and realize there is an icing concern. How should you proceed?

a)

You de-ice all critical surfaces when there are snow conditions

b)

You can not take off with ice on any critical surfaces

c)

You can take off if you are confident the ice will shed during takeoff

d)

You can take off if you believe the de-icing equipment on board can handle the icing

68.

The correct way to recover from dynamic rollover is:

a)

Raise the collective gently with lateral cyclic

b)

Slowly lower the collective so the landing gear is in firm contact with the ground

c)

Quickly apply opposite cyclic input

d)

Dump the collective and apply lateral cyclic

69.

When the pitot system is blocked, the ASI will:

a)

Under read in a climb and overread in a descent

b)

Act like an altimeter

c)

Read zero

d)

Remain unchanged

70.

When turning from into wind to downwind, a pilot may experience an illusion of:

a)

Slipping and decreasing airspeed

b)

Skidding and decreasing airspeed

c)

Slipping and increasing airspeed

d)

Skidding and increasing airspeed

71.

How does a gyroscopic heading indicator operate?

a)

Precession

b)

Rigidity in space

c)

Magnetic attraction

d)

Inertial movements

72.

Why do magnetic compasses have northerly turning error and acceleration error?

a)

CoG below pivot point

b)

Density of compass fluid

c)

Variation between magnetic pole and true pole

d)

Magnetic inertia

73.

Why do magnetic compasses have northerly turning error and acceleration error?

a)

C of G below pivot point

b)

Density of compass fluid

c)

Variation between magnetic pole and true pole

d)

Magnetic inertia

74.

When is nightly error at its worst regarding your fixed card ADF?

a)

Dusk and Dawn

b)

Dusk to Dawn

c)

Depends on altitude

d)

Approaching dusk

75.

You are in a warm air mass and ahead of you is a line of thunderstorms. What does this say about the front ahead?

a)

The cold front is overtaking the warm air rapidly

b)

The cold front is slowly undercutting the warm air

c)

The warm front is steep and retreating quickly

d)

The warm front is shallow

76.

How do you recover from retreating blade stall?

a)

Lower collective to reduce AoA

b)

Forward cyclic to lower collective

c)

Forward cyclic keep collective the same

d)

Increase RPM to install the blade

77.

CYBW 231400Z AUTO 30003KT 6SM SCT015 SCT075 SCT220 M06/M07 A3033 RMK SLP339. What is the current ceiling at Springbank?

a)

1,500

b)

7,500

c)

22,000

d)

Unlimited