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h446 y12 PPE revision quiz

Total questions: 198

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


You will see the answer line by line - you need to fill in the blanks


The address (a)   is copied...

2.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the (a)   .

3.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the _______ ___ ...

(a)  

4.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the (a)   ...

5.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the _______ ___ ...

(a)  

6.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the control bus to tell the RAM to (a)   the data from address 11.

7.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the control bus to tell the RAM to read the data from address 11. The value _ is sent...

(a)  

8.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the control bus to tell the RAM to read the data from address 11. The value 3 is sent down the ____ ___ ...

(a)  

9.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the control bus to tell the RAM to read the data from address 11. The value 3 is sent down the data bus and to the (a)   .

10.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction LDA 11 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in 11 is '3'.


The address 11 is copied into the MAR. This is sent from the CPU down the address bus to the RAM. At the same time, a signal is sent down the control bus to tell the RAM to read the data from address 11. The value 3 is sent down the data bus and to the MDR. Finally, it is copied into the (a)   .

11.

Explain the process of what happens within the CPU when the instruction STA 17 is executed (it has already been fetched and decoded). You can assume that the value held in the accumulator is 5. [6 marks]

4 lines
12.

Several CISC instructions may be equivalent to a single RISC instruction

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

CISC aims to improve processing time by increasing the number of instructions understood by the CPU in the instruction set.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

CISC aims to use as few lines of assembly code as possible, even if more clock cycles are needed as a result.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

RISC aims to improve processing speed by simplifying instructions so that one line takes one clock cycle.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

RISC code may have fewer lines of code, but will take more processor time.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

CISC code may have fewer lines of code, but will take more processor time.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

RISC code may have more lines of code than the CISC equivalent

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

CISC code can better utilise pipe-lining as the time needed for each operation can be predicted.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

RISC code can better utilise pipe-lining as the time needed for each operation can be predicted.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

CISC processors...

a)

Are physically larger

b)

Are better at complex tasks

c)

Use more electricity than RISC

d)

Expect more work from the compiler to generate more code

e)

Not as good at pipelining

22.

An example of where you would find CISC processors:

a)

Tablets

b)

Smartphones

c)

Laptops

d)

Desktop Computers

e)

Smartwatches

23.

An example of where you would find RISC processors:

a)

Tablets

b)

Smartphones

c)

Laptops

d)

Desktop Computers

e)

Smartwatches

24.

RISC Processors...

a)

Minimise the number of clock cycles per instruction

b)

Have a larger instruction set

c)

Tend to run at a lower clock speed

d)

Make use of pipelining

e)

Use less power and generate less heat

25.

Pipelining means...

a)

Running the fetch-decode-execute cycle more efficiently

b)

Waiting for a full fetch-decode-execute cycle to complete before starting the next

c)

Fetches the next instruction while the previous instruction is still decoding

d)

CISC processors can run more efficiently

e)

RISC processors can run more efficiently

26.

A dual core system is always twice as fast as a single core system.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

27.

Each core inside a multi-core processor has its own cache.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

Serial processing is...

a)

instructions which are done one after the other to complete a task

b)

instructions which are run concurrently to complete a task

c)

Always possible

d)

Not always possible

29.

Parallel processing is...

a)

instructions which are done one after the other to complete a task

b)

instructions which are run concurrently to complete a task

c)

Always possible

d)

Not always possible

30.

Distributed processing...

a)

Shares tasks to multiple processors through networked computers

b)

Uses the processor more efficiently by splitting up the task

c)

Is another name for parallel processing

31.
What are CPUs able to process?
a)
0-9
b)
0-F
c)
0 and 1
d)
0-8
e)
All Options are incorrect
32.
The CPU can only understand one type of code; which one?
a)
High-Level Code
b)
Source Code
c)
Hexadecimal
d)
Machine Code
e)
All Options are incorrect
33.
Would it be possible to write an entire program in binary?
a)
YES
b)
NO
34.
Would it be desirable to write an entire progarm in binary
a)
YES
b)
NO
35.
How is machine code stored?
a)
As a binary number
b)
As a decimal number
c)
As a number separated by dots
d)
As a series of letters
e)
All Options are incorrect
36.
An example of a low level language is…?
a)
Source Code
b)
High Level Code
c)
Assembly Language
d)
Java Scipt
e)
All Options are incorrect
37.
This language has a small set of commands which represent certain pieces of machine code
a)
Assembly Language
b)
Source Code
c)
High Level Code
d)
Java Scipt
e)
All Options are incorrect
38.
Assembly Language commands are known as ….?
a)
Instructions
b)
Data Flow
c)
Mnemonics
d)
Binary
e)
All Options are incorrect
39.
Assembly language can be processed by the CPU far more quickly than high level languages.
a)
True
b)
False
40.
Source code can be processed by the CPU more quickly that High Level Code
a)
True
b)
False
41.
High level code and source code are different
a)
True
b)
False
42.
To aid translation, high level code makes use of
a)
Registers
b)
Syntax
c)
Key Words
d)
CU
e)
All Options are incorrect
43.
What is the PRINT command known as?
a)
Reserved Word
b)
Key Command
c)
Key Syntax
d)
High Level command
e)
All Options are incorrect
44.
Are there any benefits to using Assmebly Language?
a)
YES
b)
NO
45.
Whch of these are benefits of using Assembly Language?
a)

Intuitive to write

b)

More precise CPU Control

c)

Avoid CPU running unnecesary commands

d)

Better control of how RAM is used

e)

All Options are incorrect

46.
Which of these are disadvantages of using High Level Language?
a)
Hard to learn compared to Low Level Code
b)
Difficult to control how RAM is used
c)
CPU may run instructions that are not required
d)
Program may run slower that it should
e)
All Options are incorrect
47.
Which of these are exmples of High Level Code
a)
Java
b)
C#
c)
Assembly Language
d)
Perl
e)
All Options are incorrect
48.

Which word describes an app that converts high level code into low level code

(a)  

49.
Which application takes the whole code and converts it into machine code before running it?
a)
Compiler
b)
Interpreter
c)
Javascript
d)
Perl
e)
All Options are incorrect
50.
Which program takes the code one instruction at a time, translates and runs the instruction, before translating the next instruction?
a)
Compiler
b)
Interpreter
c)
Javascript
d)
Perl
e)
All Options are incorrect
51.
What is the name of intermediate code that has been partially translated by an interpreter?
a)
Lexical Analysis
b)
Bytecode
c)
Compilation
d)
Assembly Language
e)
All Options are incorrect
52.
How quickly does Bytecode run?
a)
Faster than fully compiled code
b)
Slower than fully compiled code
c)
At the same speed as fully compiled code
d)
It cannot run and needs further compiling
e)
All Options are incorrect
53.
Can the same bytecode can be created from different languages?
a)
YES
b)
NO
54.
Can the same translator can be used to run bytecode, regardless of the original coding language?
a)
YES
b)
NO
55.

The bytecode translator can translate the bytecode at run-

(a)  

56.

If the translator runs the bytecode at run-time, this is known as a (a)   compiler?

57.

Bytecode is only (a)   translated before the code is run.

58.

When compiling bytecode the translator can first check the computer’s (a)   before deciding how to translate it,

59.
What is the process of translating source code into executable machine code?
a)
Lexical generation
b)
Syntactical generation
c)
Compilation
d)
Residual interpreting
e)
All Options are incorrect
60.
How many stages are there in compilation?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
e)
5
61.

Which stage of compilation is concerned with ‘cleaning the code’ of unnecessary characters and splitting the code up into chunks that the translator can understand?

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Alalysis

c)

Code generaton & Optimisation

d)

Bytecode generation

62.
In which stage of compilation are comments and whitespace removed from the source code?
a)
Lexical Analysis
b)
Syntax Alalysis
c)
Code generaton & Optimisation
d)
Bytecode generation
63.

In which stage of compilation is the high level code converted into “tokens”?

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Alalysis

c)

Code generaton & Optimisation

d)

Bytecode generation

64.
In which stage of compilation would a symbol table be produced?
a)
Lexical Analysis
b)
Syntax Alalysis
c)
Code generaton & Optimisation
d)
Bytecode generation
65.
What does a symbol table contain?
a)
Key Words
b)
Identifiers
c)
Memory locations
d)
Data types
66.
What are the variable names known as when written to a symbol table?
a)
Key words
b)
Identifiers
c)
Juxtapositions
d)
Bytecode nominals
67.
Syntax refers to the rules of a ________?
a)
Compiler
b)
Translators
c)
Analysis tool
d)
Language
68.

The compiler produces a list of syntax (a)   ?

69.

The AST represents the (a)   ?

70.
What are opcodes?
a)
Instructions
b)
Data
c)
Memory locations
d)
Syntax
71.
What are operands?
a)
Instructions
b)
Data
c)
Memory locations
d)
Syntax
72.
In which stage does the compiler converts the abstract syntax tree (AST) into object code?
a)
Lexical Analysis
b)
Syntax Alalysis
c)
Code generaton & Optimisation
d)
Bytecode generation
73.
During code generation and optimisataion, what is not converted to object code?
a)
Memory locations
b)
Variables
c)
Libraries
d)
Opcode
74.

Making the code as efficient as possible so that it minimises the amount of memory it requires to run is known as (a)   ?

75.
When does optimisation happen?
a)
Before code generation
b)
After code generation
c)
During code generation
d)
Not at this stage
76.
Are object code and machine code the same?
a)
YES
b)
NO
77.

What is used to link any references that the program has made to library code?

(a)  

78.
What is object code?
a)
Completed machine code
b)
Incomplete machine code
c)
Complete source code
d)
Incomplete source code
79.

What does DLL stand for?

(a)  

80.
What is the issue with static linkers?
a)
Result in larger programs
b)
Result in slower programs
c)
Take longer to compile
d)
Inefficient use of memory
81.
What is the issue with dynamic linkers?
a)
Libraries must be relatively small in size
b)
CPUs process DLLs independently
c)
Libraries must be available at runtime
d)
Code may not run
82.

Main reason why an ​ (a)   is used is at the ​ (b)   or development ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
interpreter
testing
stage
83.

An ​ (a)   converts ​ (b)   ​ (c)   ​ (d)   instructions into ​ (e)   code.

Choose from the below words
Assembler
mnemonic
assembly
language
machine
84.

A ​ (a)   can take a ​ (b)   to compile ​ (c)   as the translator will often have to convert the ​ (d)   into various sets of ​ (e)   as different CPUs will understand instructions with different machine code from one another.

Choose from the below words
compiler
long time
source code
instructions
machine code
85.

Which translator must be present on the computer for the program is to be run

(a)  

86.

Type of translator not used for high level languages

(a)  

87.

This type of translator allows programmers to quickly detect errors

(a)  

88.

What is used to associate additional library code to the object code?

(a)  

89.

Reorder the following

a)

Source Code

b)

Library Code

c)

Object Code

d)

Linker

e)

Executable code

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
90.

All ​ (a)   have to be written in accordance to the ​ (b)   otherwise a ​ (c)   would be ​ (d)   to translate the code

Choose from the below words
programs
language's rules
translator
unable
91.

In the code generation and optimisation stage the compiler links to any libraries and other (a)   that the program has made use of

92.

Bytecode is highly....

a)

Reliable

b)

Adaptable

c)

CPU Dependent

d)

Portable

93.

A database is...

a)

a structured system for holding records

b)

a spreadsheet of information

c)

reliant on good design, as poor structure can cause many problems

d)

simple and easy to create

94.

An entity is...

a)

A thing, about which data is stored in the database such as Student

b)

A property such as Name or Age

95.

An attribute is...

a)

A thing, about which data is stored in the database such as Student

b)

A property such as Name or Age

96.

Entity relationships can be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

Many-to-Many

c)

Many-to-One

d)

One-to-Many

97.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a consultant to a patient would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

98.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a nurse to a ward would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

99.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a patient to a surgeon would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

100.

In a hospital system, the relationship between a consultant to a student would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

101.

In a school system, the relationship between a teacher to a pupil would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

102.

In a school system, the relationship between a teacher to a department would be:

a)

One-to-One

b)

One-to-Many

c)

Many-to-Many

d)

Many-to-One

103.

A primary key is...

a)

A unique identifier for each record

b)

An identifier which can be shared between multiple records

c)

The first number in the record

d)

A way of looking up data in related tables

104.

A foreign key is...

a)

A unique identifier which links a record to a related record in another table

b)

A unique identifier for each record in a table

c)

A shared identifier for all records in one table

105.

What is the primary key?

a)

Sales ID

b)

Item ID

c)

Item Name

d)

Address

e)

Payment Complete?

106.

Which field is likely to be a foreign key?

a)

Sales ID

b)

Item ID

c)

Item Name

d)

Address

e)

Payment Complete?

107.

What will be returned by the SQL query:

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Sales ID = "00113"

a)

00112 1151213215 Keyring 123 Example Ln 1

b)

00112 65465654688 Pencil 123 Example Ln 1

c)

00112 87954121321 Bag 123 Example Ln 1

d)

00113 65465654688 Pencil 77 Bay St 0

e)

00114 65465654688 Pencil 999 Letsbey Ave 1

108.

Which of the following SQL statements will return the Sales ID of all sales which involve a pencil?

a)

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

b)

SELECT * FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil

c)

SELECT Sales ID FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

d)

SELECT Sales ID FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil

e)

SELECT "Sales ID" FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil"

109.

Which of the following SQL statements will return the address of anyone who has ordered a pencil and has paid.

a)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" and Payment Complete? = TRUE

b)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" and Payment Complete? = "TRUE"

c)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = Pencil and Payment Complete? = TRUE

d)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE Item Name = "Pencil" or Payment Complete? = TRUE

e)

SELECT Address FROM Sales WHERE "Item Name" = "Pencil" and "Payment Complete?" = TRUE

110.

Is this table in first normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

111.

Is this table in first normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

112.

Is this table in second normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

113.

Is this table in second normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

114.

Is this table in third normal form?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Don't Know

115.

Select the things which are true for a database in 1NF:

a)

Each entity has a unique identifier

b)

Each attribute is atomic (divided as small as possible)

c)

Each attribute has a single value

d)

There is no repetition

e)

There are no transitive relationships

116.

Select the things which are true for a database in 2NF:

a)

The database is in 1NF

b)

All attributes depend on the primary key

c)

There is no dependence

d)

There is no repetition

e)

There are no transitive relationships

117.

Select the things which are true for a database in 3NF:

a)

The database is in 2NF

b)

There are at least 4 tables in the database

c)

There is no dependence

d)

All attributes have a separate table

e)

There are no transitive relationships

118.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

119.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

120.

What normal form is this table in?

a)

1NF

b)

2NF

c)

3NF

121.
Which of the following is a mechanism by which object acquires the properties of another object?
a)
Encapsulation
b)
 Abstraction
c)
Inheritance
d)
 Polymorphism
122.

Which of the these is the functionality of ‘Encapsulation’?

a)

Binds together code and data

b)

Using single interface for general class of actions

c)

Reduce Complexity

d)

All of the mentioned

123.
Which of the following supports the concept of hierarchical classification?
a)
Polymorphism
b)
Encapsulation
c)
Abstraction
d)
Inheritance
124.
What is the difference between a class and an object?
a)
A class is a blueprint to make an object
b)
An object is a blueprint to make a class
c)
A blueprint is an object to make a class
d)
Blueprint class is an object make a
125.
An object is an instance of a:
a)
parameter
b)
method
c)
class
d)
application
126.
The wrapping up of data and functions into a single unit is called
a)
overloading
b)
class
c)
object
d)
encapsulation 
127.

You can make changes to an object with

a)

methods

b)

attributes

c)

modifiers

d)

parameters

128.
___________ are special methods that can be used to create and initialize an object
a)
 Constructors
b)
classes
c)
Interfaces
d)
Objects
129.
Constructors are called just once when ______.
a)
an object is being created
b)
a class is being terminated
c)
class is being closed
d)
an object is being destroyed
130.
The super keyword is used to _______ the base class method.
a)
access
b)
overload
c)
convert
d)
change
131.

What is an object?

a)

Everything

b)

An instance of a class

c)

A detail of a class

d)

A class of details

132.

A method is...

a)

A way of calculating things in Java

b)

A strategy for programming

c)

A predefined set of instructions in a class

d)

A way to sore details in a class

133.

What does an object consist of?

a)

Methods

b)

Attributes

c)

Methods and Attributes

d)

Procedures

e)

Variables

134.

What is a transaction in a database system?

a)

A method to backup data

b)

A request to log into the database

c)

A type of database

d)

A single logical unit of work that may consist of multiple steps

135.

What is an example of a transaction with multiple steps?

a)

Deleting a record from the database

b)

Changing the database password

c)

Transferring money from a current account to a savings account

d)

Creating a new database

136.

What is a key principle of transaction processing?

a)

Transactions do not need to be logical units

b)

Either all of the steps must happen, or none of them must happen

c)

Transactions can be partially completed

d)

Only the first step of a transaction needs to be successful

137.

What makes managing transactions more complex?

a)

The use of older database technology

b)

Simple database queries

c)

Databases that only allow a single user

d)

Databases supporting multiple users making concurrent processing requests

138.

What is concurrent processing?

a)

Processing transactions one after another

b)

A type of database software

c)

A method to lock database records

d)

Handling multiple transactions at the same time

139.

What is serialisation in the context of databases?

a)

Deleting old transactions from the database

b)

Backing up the database

c)

Ensuring transactions are processed in a sequential order

d)

Converting data into a series of bytes

140.

What is record locking?

a)

Preventing a record from being changed while it is being used by a transaction

b)

A security measure to protect records from unauthorized access

c)

Permanently deleting a record

d)

Copying records to another location

141.

What does timestamp ordering help with?

a)

Organizing records alphabetically

b)

Speeding up database queries

c)

Determining the age of the database

d)

Resolving conflicts in concurrent transactions

142.

What is the purpose of SQL in transaction processing?

a)

To create graphical interfaces for databases

b)

To manage database security

c)

To define and manipulate data within transactions

d)

To network multiple databases together

143.

What does the ACID test ensure in transaction processing?

a)

That the database can handle large amounts of data

b)

That transactions are processed reliably and safely

c)

That transactions are processed at high speed

d)

That the database is free of viruses

144.

Select the true statements about operating systems:

a)

A computer can only have one OS

b)

The OS manages memory, storage, security, printing and other useful functions of the system

c)

The OS provides a user interface

d)

All OSes allow you to use multiple programs at once

145.

This image shows...

a)

Memory paging

b)

Memory segmentation

c)

Distributed processing

d)

Virtual memory

146.

This image shows...

a)

Memory paging

b)

Memory segmentation

c)

Distributed processing

d)

Virtual memory

147.

Select the true statements about memory paging:

a)

Processes are split into equal sized frames

b)

A page table is used to record all the pages

c)

Unused pages are swapped out of main memory and into virtual memory

d)

Processes are split into variable sized frames

148.

Segmentation:

a)

Splits processes into variable sized pieces

b)

Splits processes into set sized pieces

c)

Keeps processes together in RAM

d)

Places processes wherever there is space in RAM

e)

Can cause stack overflows

149.

The role of scheduling is...

a)

To make sure tasks get as much time as they need on the CPU

b)

To make sure that all tasks get time on the processor and respond in a reasonable time

c)

To make sure that the user does not have to wait for processes to run

d)

To prevent the user from crashing the computer

150.

An OS which you would use in day-to-day life on a normal school computer is a...

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

151.

For a very large and complex system which needs multiple processors, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

152.

For a system which needs a guaranteed response rate, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

153.

For a simple system with very limited processing power, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

154.

To share one processor's power between multiple people, you would use a _______________ OS:

a)

Embedded

b)

Real Time

c)

Distributed

d)

Multi-Tasking

e)

Multi-User

155.

The BIOS allows you to:

a)

Change the computer's time/date settings

b)

Change the order in which drives are booted from

c)

Change the computer's operating system

d)

Change the user's login details

156.

Device drivers...

a)

allow peripherals to communicate with the OS

b)

allow users to communicate with the OS

c)

allow peripherals to work directly with the CPU

d)

allow users to change settings of their peripherals

157.

A virtual machine...

a)

uses secondary storage instead of RAM when the computer runs out of space on the main memory

b)

allows software to act as hardware, running code or an operating system within another OS.

c)

can only be used through the internet

d)

relies on cloud storage

158.

In this, the process that comes first will be executed first and next process starts only after the previous gets fully executed.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job-first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

e)

Multilevel Queue scheduling

159.

This is scheduling policy that selects for execution the waiting process with the smallest execution time.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

e)

Multilevel queue scheduling

160.

It is a CPU Scheduling algorithm where each process is assigned a fixed time slot in a cyclic way.

a)

First-come, first-serve

b)

Shortest-job-first scheduling

c)

Round-robin scheduling

d)

Priority scheduling

e)

Multilevel queue scheduling

161.
Allocating time on the processor to individual processes is known as...
a)
CPU Scheduling
b)
CPU Timing
c)
CPU Clocking
d)
CPU Sorting
162.

The problem with round robin, SJF and STR is what?

a)

They don't take into account priority

b)

They all take too long

c)

Short jobs will not be completed

163.

Which of these is NOT an aim of the CPU scheduler

a)

To maximise CPU time

b)

Process as many jobs as possible

c)

To complete jobs in at least 30 seconds

164.

Which of these is a benefit of FCFS

a)

Simple to implement

b)

It considers priority

c)

Long jobs will get completed eventually

165.

Which algorithm is being described.."Long jobs might never get completed as short processes will always ‘jump the queue"

a)

Round robin

b)

FCFS

c)

STR

166.

Which algorithm is complicated to implement and might not look at small jobs

a)

Multi-level feedback

b)

Round robin

c)

FCFS

167.

If a CPU has the following:

Process A = 3 cycles

Process B = 2 cycles

Process C = 5 cycles


Which would implement 'B' the quickest?

a)

Round robin (1 cycle time slice)

b)

FCFS

c)

STR

168.

If a CPU has the following:

Process A = 3 cycles

Process B = 2 cycles

Process C = 5 cycles


Which would implement 'A' the quickest?

a)

Round robin (2 cycles per timeslice)

b)

FCFS

c)

STR

d)

SJF

169.

Where does process management occur in a computer system?

a)

Utilities

b)

Operating system

170.

What isn't an example of Utility Software

a)

Encryption

b)

Task Manager

c)

Kernel

d)

Anti-Virus

171.

What isn't an example of Utility Software

a)

Firewall

b)

Drivers

c)

Auto Updates

d)

Defragmentation

172.

What happens during Defragmentation and what is one of the purposes?

a)

Information is rearranged on a USB

b)

To make the retrieval of data quicker

c)

Information is rearranged on a Hard Drive

d)

To make the retrieval of data slower

173.
_____________is a type of system software allows that allow a user to perform  maintenance-type tasks
a)
Operating system
b)
System Software
c)
Application software
d)
Utility program
174.
_________________are programs that designed to help users to be more productive with their personal tasks.
a)
Software
b)
System Software
c)
Application software
d)
Utility program
175.

What is the purpose of Anti-Virus software?

a)

To keep the computer safe from malicious software

b)

To keep people safe from other people

c)

To keep the computer safe from defragmantation

d)

To keep data safe

176.

What does a Firewall do?

a)

Creates a wall around the computer

b)

Blocks everything entering the computer/network

c)

Creates a barrier to outside software threats

d)

Blocks potentially harmful sources to the network/computer

177.

What is the purpose of an Incremental Backup?

a)

Changes the files of everyone on the system

b)

Allows a user to see what is going on in the computer

c)

Backs up only the files that have been changed by users

d)

Backs up all the files that by all users

178.

What are the benefits of an Incremental Backup?

a)

It is quicker than a full back up

b)

It will incur less traffic on the system

c)

It will copy all the files in one go for every user

d)

It is slower than full backups

179.

What is an advantage of a Full Backup?

a)

It is expensive

b)

The access to the back up is quick

c)

The access to the back up is slow

d)

The entire process is very quick

180.
What is another name given to 'proprietary software'?
a)
Open source software
b)
Bespoke software
c)
Tailor Made software
d)
Closed source software
181.
Which of the following is not 'open source' software?
a)
Linux
b)
Ubuntu
c)
Open Office
d)
Windows 10
182.
Which of the following is not 'proprietary' software?
a)
Windows 10
b)
MAC OSX
c)
Audacity
d)
McAffee
183.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'open source' software?
a)
You can edit the source code to customise it
b)
You need to be an expert to edit code
c)
You have to pay
d)
Can sometimes be too generic for specialist purposes
184.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'open source' software?
a)
The software must be paid for.
b)
It’s often free.
c)
The produces provide regular updates.
d)
Not as customisable
185.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of 'open source' software?
a)
High quality software with lots of features
b)
Not as customisable
c)
May not have been tested as much as proprietary software, so might have bugs.
d)
You can edit the source code to customise it
186.
Which of the following is an advantage of 'proprietary' software?
a)
It is usually free.
b)
Thoroughly tested because people are paying to use it.
c)
Not as customisable
d)
Can sometimes be too generic for specialist purposes
187.

Must be installed for the code to run on another machine

a)

Interpreter

b)

Compiler

c)

Assembler

188.

The correct order of the stages of compilation is:

a)

Lexical Analysis, Syntax Analysis, Code Generation, Code Optimisation

b)

Lexical Analysis, Syntax Analysis, Code Optimisation, Code Generation

c)

Syntax Analysis, Lexical Analysis, Code Optimisation, Code Generation

d)

Syntax Analysis, Lexical Analysis, Code Generation, Code Optimisation

189.

Removing whitespace is in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

190.

Token creation is in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

191.

Symbol table is created in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

192.

The code is checked against the rules in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

193.

The user will first be alerted to errors found in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

194.

The syntax tree is converted into object code in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

195.

Redundant code is removed in:

a)

Lexical Analysis

b)

Syntax Analysis

c)

Code Generation

d)

Code Optimisation

196.

At the linking stage...

a)

Code from the linked library is copied into the program

b)

Code from the linked library is removed from the program

197.
Give two advantages of using compiled code over interpreted code
a)
Faster to execute
b)
Does not require compiler to run
c)
Is platform independent
d)
Runs instantly without time waiting for compilation
198.
Describe the function of a loader
a)
Provided by the operating system, a loader retrieves the library or subroutine from the given memory location
b)
Tokens are compared to the rules of the programming language
c)
Syntax errors are identified
d)
Symbol table updated with more details
e)
Semantic analysis (finding logic errors)