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DNA and Protein Synthesis Review

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 3hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does DNA Replication mean? When does it occur?

a)

DNA is made. During G1 phase

b)

DNA makes new cells. During S phase 

c)

DNA copies itself. During S phase

d)

DNA starts the cell cycle. During M phase

2.
During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
S phase
d)
G2 phase
3.
During what phase of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
Cytokinesis
4.
Put the following actions in order: DNA replicates, cell grows, cell divides, cell prepares for mitosis. 
a)
DNA replicates, cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
b)
cell grows, cell prepares for mitosis, DNA replicates, cell divides
c)
cell grows, DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell divides
d)
DNA replicates, cell prepares for mitosis, cell grows, cell divides
5.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
6.

What is the result of the cell cycle?

a)

Three cells

b)

Four daughter cells

c)

Two identical cells

d)

One clone cell

7.

Match the image to the correct answer

a)

1.

Prophase

b)

2.

Metaphase

c)

3.

Anaphase

d)

4.

Telophase

e)

5.

Cytokinesis

8.

Label the parts of the Cell Cycle

9.

During which phase of the cell cycle does the cell spend the most time?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase

10.

Mitosis is the division of the​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
nucleus
cytoplasm
11.

Cytokinesis is the division of the ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
cytoplasm
nucleus
12.

Match each phase with its correct description

a)

Cell grows rapidly while carrying out normal functions.

1.

G1 Phase

b)

Cells must replicate their DNA before cell division to ensure that identical genetic information is passed to  the next generation.

2.

S Phase

c)
  • FINISHES GROWING

  • Errors in DNA replication are checked- if something is wrong, cell needs to fix its errors before it divides!

3.

G2 Phase

13.

Put the Cell Cycle phases in order

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
14.

Label the picture

15.

Put the Cell Cycle events in order

a)

Cell grows

b)

DNA replicates

c)

Cell prepares for Mitosis

d)

Cell divides

1)
2)
3)
4)
16.

(a)   is the uncontrolled growth of cells, often resulting in a tumor or mass of abnormal cells

17.

Match the following pictures to their names:

a)
1.

Eukaryotic Cell

b)
2.

Prokaryotic Cell

c)
3.

Bacteriophage virus

d)
4.

Flu virus

18.

Why aren't viruses considered living things?

a)

They aren't made of cells

b)

They don't have DNA or RNA

c)

They make us sick

d)

They are made of protein

19.

Viruses can only reproduce with the help of a ​ (a)   cell. This is another reason that viruses are not considered ​ (b)   things.

Choose from the below words
host
living
dead
20.

When a virus takes over a cell, it can cause the cell to create many more copies of the virus until the cell bursts open and releases them. What part of the virus's lifecycle is this?

a)

Lytic

b)

Lysogenic

21.

Why do viruses have projections on the outside?

a)

To send signals to other viruses.

b)

To maintain their structure.

c)

To attach to the host cell.

d)

To reproduce.

22.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
23.
Which of the following is a trait that a virus shares with a living organism?
a)
They use oxygen
b)
They have genetic material
c)
They grow
d)
They digest food
24.
All viruses contain-
a)
nucleic acids
b)
ribosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
cytoplasm
25.
Which best describes the basic structure of a virus?
a)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a protein coat
b)
a tail surrounded by a protein coat
c)
a tail surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
d)
nucleic acid strand surrounded by a carbohydrate coat
26.
Viruses are cells. 
a)
True 
b)
False
27.

Which part of the virus contains/ holds genetic material?

28.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
29.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
30.

Which viral cycle kills its host cell by lysing (exploding)?

a)

lytic

b)

mitosis

c)

lysogenic

d)

S phase

31.
What happens in the lysogenic cycle? 
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus inject the nucleic acid into the host cell, and the nucleic acid integrates into the host cell DNA, and stay dormant for a long time
d)
Bacteria injects DNA into a host cell
32.

Which virus life cycle allows the virus to combine DNA producing half viral DNA and half host cell DNA?

a)

lytic

b)

lysogenic

33.

Viruses using the ​ (a)   cycle gives the host organism a quick onset of symptoms while viruses in the ​ (b)   cycle can not show symptoms for years.

Choose from the below words
Lytic
lysogenic
34.

Organize these options into the correct categories.

Categorize the following

have Organelles

protein capsid

DNA/RNA

Have Proteins

Reproduce independently

need a host to reproduce

Evolve

maintain homeostasis

sole purpose is to replicate

Cells
VIruses
Both
35.

Which of the following are a virus? (multiple answers)

a)

b)

c)

d)

e)

36.

Compare and contrast the functions of carbohydrates and lipids.

37.

Compare and contrast Proteins and Nucleic Acids

38.

Which nutrition label will provide more quick energy, but have the fewest amount of calories?

39.

An advertisement for a health supplement for dogs claims to build lean muscle and strengthen tendons and ligaments, as well as provide energy. Which two biomolecules must the supplement contain to provide these benefits?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Lipids

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

40.

One of the main functions of the semi-permeable cell membrane is to maintain homeostasis for the cell. Semi-permeable means that only some molecules are allowed to cross the membrane and others are not.

Which biomolecule molecule enables large molecules to cross the membrane?

(a)  

41.

Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have small, free-floating organelles. The cell makes these organelles from nucleic acids and amino acids found in food. Without these organelles, the cell could not make proteins.

These organelles are called ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
ribosomes
nucleus
cell membrane
mitochondria
chloroplast
42.

Match the cell structure with its primary function.

Move the correct answers to the correct boxes.

​ (a)   - controls cell activities

​ (b)   - protein synthesis

​ (c)   - controls what goes in and out of the cell

​ (d)   - support

​ (e)   - provides energy for the cell

Choose from the below words
nucleus
ribosome
cell membrane
cell wall
mitochondrion
43.

Which type of movement across a cell’s plasma membrane requires energy supplied by ATP?

a)

Passive Transport

b)

Simple Diffusion

c)

Active Transport

d)

Osmosis

44.

Passive transport is represented in three different forms. ​ (a)   is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane. ​ (b)   , like when someone sprays perfume, is the movement of molecules down or under a concentration gradient. ​ (c)   is the movement of molecules down a gradient with the help of special protein channels.

Choose from the below words
Osmosis
Diffusion
Facilitated Diffusion
Active Transport
45.

Correctly label the image

46.
The contractile vacuole is an organelle found in paramecia, a group of unicellular organisms. Contractile vacuoles pump out fresh water that accumulates in the organisms by osmosis. If the contractile vacuoles did not perform this function, could the paramecia maintain homeostasis?
a)

No, because the excess water would accumulate and burst the cell.

b)

Yes, because the paramecia would simply become bigger organisms.

c)

Yes, because just like all living things, paramecia need water to survive.

d)

No, because the excess water would create a balance between the inside and outside of the cell.

47.

What are the 3 functions of the cell membrane?

a)

Maintain Homeostasis

b)

Protect the inside of the cell from the external environment

c)

Allows specific things to enter or exit the cell (semi-permeable)

d)

Keep all solutes out of the cell, only allows water in

48.

Which statement best describes how a virus replicates?

a)

A virus divides into two identical virus particles before infecting the host cell.

b)

A virus enters a host cell and uses the materials from the host cell to produce new virus particles.

c)

Multiple virus particles fuse and form a large particle that breaks apart, releasing new virus particles.

d)

Multiple virus particles break down in component parts, which then reassemble into new copies of the virus.

49.

Which part of the virus will be used to attach to a host cell receptor?

50.

Match the following

a)

cell growth

1.

G1

b)

DNA Replicates

2.

S

c)

Interphase

3.

G1, S, G2

d)

M Phase

4.

Cell Division

e)

division of nucleus

5.

Mitosis

51.

Put the following phases into the correct order

a)

Interphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
52.

Which letter in the image represents metaphase?

53.

Cancer is a disease of uncontrolled cell division. Cancer cells behave differently than normal cells, and function incorrectly during the cell cycle. Which of these best describes how cell division irregularities might lead to cancer?

a)

Cancer cells become "stuck" in G1 of Interphase, which causes each cell to grow excessively large.

b)

Cancer cells keep dividing and do not stop when overcrowded, leading to tumor formation.

c)

Cancer cells remain too long in the DNA Replication part of Interphase, which creates excessive copies of new cells.

d)

Cancer cells divide far less than normal cells, allowing each individual cell to increase in size.

54.

Patients who have lymphoma, a cancer effecting blood cells,

are frequently prescribed a medication called Bleomycin.

This medication stops the growth of cancer cells in the body,

preventing them from dividing or growing.

What phase(s) of the cell cycle would likely be most heavily impacted by Bleomycin?

a)

G1 and Prophase

b)

Mitosis only

c)

S

(DNA Replication)

d)

G2 and Mitosis

55.

What do all living things have in common?

a)

have DNA

b)

maintain homeostasis

c)

able to reproduce

d)

have identical proteins

56.

Match the complementary nitrogen bases together

a)

Adenine

1.

Thymine

b)

Guanine

2.

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

3.

Adenine

d)

Cytosine

4.

Guanine

57.

Label the nucleotide

58.

Label the image

59.

DNA molecules contain the genetic information that determines the characteristics of a living organism. How do DNA molecules express the genetic information they contain?

a)

by breaking down proteins within the cell

b)

by directing the process of protein synthesis

c)

by regulating the storage of cellular proteins

d)

by controlling the movement of protein molecules

60.

In Texas Longhorn cattle, coat coloration is an inherited trait. What is the genetic basis of coat-color variation in Texas Longhorn cattle?

a)

Differences in the nucleotide sequences of genes

b)

Differences in the numbers of chromosomes in cells

c)

Differences in the diets of individual cattle

d)

Differences in the environmental conditions of different geographical areas 

61.

Label the diagram

62.

AUG codes for the amino acid Methionine and AAA codes for Lysine in cucumbers. What do those two codons code for in birds?

a)

Valine and Aspartic Acid

b)

Serine and Glutamic Acid

c)

Isoleucine and Histadine

d)

Methionine and Lysine

63.

Using the Codon chart attached, drag and drop the corresponding amino acid to its mRNA base

AAA : ​ (a)  

GUU : ​ (b)  

UAA : ​ (c)  

AGU : ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
lysine
valine
stop
serine
64.

Which type of mutation is represented in the image?

a)

a point mutation

b)

an inversion mutation

c)

a deletion mutation

d)

an insertion mutation

65.

Which type(s) of mutations will most likely change sequence of nitrogen bases in a codon?

a)

Insertion

b)

Substitution

c)

Deletion

d)

Translation

66.

Label the diagram

67.

Each cell in the human body, with the exception of gametes, contains the same number of chromosomes and the same genetic sequences. Which process determines cell differentiation or cell specialization?

a)

Gene Expression

b)

Mutation of the Genes

c)

Different methods of cell division

d)

the host chooses

68.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
69.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
70.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
71.

What are the steps in order of protein synthesis.

a)

Messenger RNA is produced using DNA as a template

b)

mRNA attaches to the ribosome

c)

a anti-codon on tRNA bonds to a specific codon on mRNA

d)

Amino acids bond together to create a peptide chain

e)

A protein is created

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
72.

What is the correct order to make a protein?

a)

Protein, DNA, RNA

b)

RNA, DNA, Protein

c)

DNA, RNA, Protein

d)

Protein, RNA, DNA

73.

What is the amino acid sequence for the following mRNA strand:


UGG-ACU-CGA-GUG

(a)  

74.

If the DNA sequence of a gene is TAC CCC GGA GAG, what mRNA sequence will be produced in transcription?

a)

RNA Polymerase

b)

AUG GGG CCU CUC

c)

ATG GGG GGT GTG

d)

AUG GGG CCU CUG

e)

AUG CCG GCA CGG

75.

What amino acid would be added to the protein being formed during translation if the mRNA codon reads "AUG?"

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Methionine

76.

If the DNA sequence of a gene is GAC CAA TAT GTA, what mRNA sequence will be produced in transcription?

a)

nucleus

b)

AUG GGG CCU CUC

c)

CUG GUU AUA CAU

d)

GAC CAA UAU GUA

e)

CUG CCG GCA CGG

77.

What amino acid would be added to the protein being formed during translation if the mRNA codon reads "CCU?"

a)

Isoleucine

b)

Stop

c)

Methionine

d)

Proline

78.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
79.

Circle the Mutation

80.

What type of mutation is this?

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

81.

What is it called when a mutation has no effect on the amino acid sequence in the final polypeptide?

a)

Substitution mutation

b)

No mutation

c)

Silent mutation

d)

Replication mutation

82.

What type of chromosomal mutation loses genes?

a)

Duplication

b)

Inversion

c)

Deletion

d)

Translocation

83.

What is the first step in protein synthesis?

(a)  

84.

Transcribe the following sequence of DNA into RNA:
AAG   CTT   TGC

(a)  

85.

What would be the complementary DNA strand for the following nucleotide sequence?
TCG ATA CGA

(a)  

86.

A (a)   mutation occurs at a single point in the DNA sequence.

87.

Which of the following images is a INSERTION?

a)
b)
c)
88.

Which of the following images is a DELETION?

a)
b)
c)
89.

Which of the following images is a SUBSTITUTION?

a)
b)
c)
90.

Which of the following statements is a TRANSLOCATION?

a)

Produces an extra copy of all or part of a chromosome.

b)

Reverses the direction of parts of a chromosome.

c)

Involves the loss of all or part of a chromosome.

d)

Occurs when part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another.

91.

During transcription, a sequence of ​ (a)   is copied onto a strand of ​ (b)   so that it can leave the ​ (c)   to find a ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
DNA
mRNA
nucleus
ribosome
92.

Determine the correct order of the amino acid sequence to be produced from the DNA template:

3' CCG TCT AAG GTG ACC CTT 5'

a)

Valine - Threonine - Lysine - Serine - Proline - Glutamic Acid

b)

Glycine - Valine - Lysine - Serine - Proline - Alanine

c)

Proline - Serine - Lysine - Threonine - Valine - Stop

d)

Glycine - Arginine - Phenylalanine - Histidine - Tryptophan - Glutamic Acid

93.

Determine the correct amino acid sequence from the mRNA strand:

5' AUG CAG UCU GCA CUG AGC 3'

a)

Met-His-Ser-Ala-Leu-Ser

b)

Met-Arg-Ser-Ala-Leu-Ser

c)

Met-His-Ser-Leu-Ala-Ser

d)

Met-Gln-Ser-Ala-Leu-Ser

94.

Which amino acid is coded for by the following mRNA codon CCU?

95.

Determine the correct amino acid sequence from the mRNA strand:

5' UAU GCC GUA CGC GAA CAC 3'

a)

Tyrosine - Glycine -Valine - Arginine -Glutamic Acid -Histidine

b)

Tyrosine - Alanine -Leucine - Arginine -Glutamic Acid -Histidine

c)

Tyrosine - Alanine -Valine - Arginine -Glutamic Acid -Histidine

d)

Tyrosine - Alanine -Valine - Arginine -Glutamic Acid - Asparagine

96.

Match the type of mutation with its definition:

a)

when one nucleotide is switched for a different one in the DNA sequence

1.
Substitution
b)

when one nucleotide is added into the DNA sequence

2.

Insertion

c)

when one nucleotide is removed from the DNA sequence

3.

Deletion

97.

Which type of mutation has occurred in this sequence of DNA?

Original DNA: 3' ATGCGCTAGATCGAT 5'

Mutated DNA: 3' ATGCCGCTAGATCGAT 5'

a)
substitution
b)
duplication
c)
deletion
d)
insertion
98.

Which type of mutation has occurred in this sequence of DNA?

Original DNA: 3' ATGCGCTAGATCGAT 5'

Mutated DNA: 3' ATGCGCAAGATCGAT 5'

a)
substitution
b)
duplication
c)
deletion
d)
insertion
99.

6C: The initial steps in gene expression are modeled above. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands. Which process and product are represented in Diagram 2?

a)

Process: transcription; product: mRNA

b)

Process: translation; product: protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

100.

6C Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence ′5 AUGGUUAAACGACAAUCC 3'?

a)

Val, Lys, Phe, Gly, Ser

b)

Met, Asp, Phe, Ala, Arg

c)

Met, Val, Lys, Arg, Gln, Ser

d)

Ile, Gln, Lys, Asp, Gly, Leu, Ser

101.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

102.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Insertion

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

103.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
104.

ATT-TGA-GCC- Original

ATT-GAG-CC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

105.

DNA molecule segment is : TTA-CGC-AAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTC-GCA-AG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

106.

Original DNA: CAT GAT CCA

New DNA: CAT TGA TCC A

What mutation occurred?

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

tranverse

d)

insertion

107.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
108.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
109.

What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-

AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG

Mutant-

AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G

a)

deletion frameshift

b)

insertion frameshift

c)

substitution

d)

nonsense

110.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Maybe?
111.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

112.
A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the sythesis of the segment shown. Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?
a)
methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
b)
methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
c)
Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine
d)
methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
113.
Which mutation will cause translation to stop? 
a)
Mutations 1 and 3 only
b)
Mutation 1 only
c)
Mutation 2 only
d)
Muations 1, 2, 3
114.

Which of the following is true regarding substitution mutations ...

a)

a missense mutation. This could affect the 3D structure of the protein. 

b)

a silent mutation. The mutation causes no effect as the first mRNA codon still codes for the same amino acid even though the base has been substituted.

c)

a nonsense mutation. The mutation causes the second mRNA codon to become a stop codon, which means it stops synthesis of the amino acid chain prematurely. This will likely result in a non-functional protein.

d)

frameshift mutation. This causes all of the amino acids shown to change. This will cause a non-functional protein. 

115.

Match the following

a)

have no effect on the amino acids produced during protein synthesis.

1.

silent mutation

b)

causes a stop codon instead of a normal amino acid codon. This causes translation to be terminated prematurely, causing a shorter protein. 

2.

nonsense mutation

c)

causes a codon to code for a different amino acid than the original one.

3.

missence mutation

d)

causes the “reading frame” of the codons to shift forwards or backwards. This can change the entire sequence of amino acids.

4.

frameshift mutation

e)

causes a change to one base and potentially one amino acid of the polypeptide chain

5.

point mutation

116.

Label each of the following chromosomal mutations

117.

Identify which of the following are true and which are false

118.

Match the following

a)

C

1.

cytosine

b)

T

2.

thymine

c)

G

3.

guanine

d)

A

4.

adenine

119.

Label the Structure of a Nucleotide

120.

Why do A and T bond together and G and C?

a)
Hydrogen bonding
b)
Van der Waals forces
c)
Covalent bonding
d)
Ionic bonding
121.

Match the following

a)

A-T forms

1.

two hydrogen bonds

b)

G-C forms

2.

three hydrogen bonds

c)

DNA structure

3.

Double helix

122.

Reorder the following enzymes from the order they occur in during DNA replication

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

RNA Primase

d)

DNA Polymerase

e)

Ligase

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
123.

Match the following

a)

Helicase

1.

Unwinds the DNA double helix

b)

Topoisomerase

2.

Prevents over-twisting of the DNA

c)

DNA polymerase

3.

Synthesizes new DNA strands

d)

RNA Primase

4.

Puts down the primer

e)

Ligase

5.

Joins Okazaki fragments (glue)

124.

Match the following

a)

DNA -> RNA

1.

Transcription

b)

RNA -> Polypeptides

2.

Translation

c)

Polypeptides -> DNA

3.

None

125.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Double Strand

Single Strand

Dexoyribose

Ribose

Thymine (T)

Uracil (U)

DNA
RNA
126.

What are the 3 forms of RNA?

a)
mRNA, tRNA, rRNA
b)
mRNA, tRNA, mRNA
c)
mRNA, rRNA, DNA
d)
mRNA, tRNA, DNA
127.

mRNA- ​ (a)   for ​ (b)   synthesis; travels from ​ (c)   to ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
blueprint
protein
nucleus
ribosome
128.

tRNA- ​ (a)   ​ (b)   code to ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
translates
mRNA
amino acids
rRNA
RNA
transcripts
129.

Transcription occurs in the ​ (a)   .​

Choose from the below words
nucleus
ribosome
ribose
cytoplasm
nucleolus
130.

Reorder the steps of Transcription

a)

RNA Polymerase binds to promoter

b)

RNA nucleotides bind with complementary nucleotides

c)

Keeps going until reaches terminator code

d)

mRNA processing

1)
2)
3)
4)
131.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

AUG-UAU-GCG-CCC-UAA

1.

Met-Tyr-Ala-Pro

b)

AUG-UUU-AAA-AAA-UAA

2.

Met-Phe-Lys-Lys

c)

AUG-UUU-UCA-CUU-UAA

3.

Met-Phe-Ser-Leu

d)

AUG-CAU-CAC-CGA-UAG

4.

Met-His-His-Arg

e)

AUG-UAG-GCU-AUU-UAG

5.

Met

132.

Translation occurs in the ​ (a)   at the ​ (b)   which forms a ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
cytoplasm
ribosome
polypeptide
133.

There are no anticodons for the codons UAG, UAA, and UGA because...

a)
Stop codons do not have anticodons.
b)
Anticodons are only found in RNA, not DNA.
c)
Anticodons are only needed for start codons.
d)
Anticodons are only present in prokaryotic cells.
134.

What are DNA mutations?

a)
Changes in the DNA sequence
b)
Changes in the RNA sequence
c)
Changes in the protein sequence
d)
Changes in the cell structure
135.

What are point mutations?

a)
Changes in the number of chromosomes
b)
Changes in multiple nucleotides of DNA
c)
Changes in a single nucleotide of DNA
d)
Changes in the structure of DNA
136.

Types of Point Mutations-

a)

Substitution

1.

affects only that one reading frame

b)

Frameshift

2.

addition or deletion of a single base

c)

Substitution Example-

3.

GCA VS. GTA

d)

Frameshift Insertion Example-

4.

TAC GCA TGG -> TAT CGC ATG G

e)

Frameshift Deletion Example-

5.

TAC GCA TGG -> TAG CAT GG

137.

Frameshift Mutation... (two answers)

a)

affects that reading frame and all after it

b)

could possibly affect all amino acids

c)

affects reading frame and all before it

138.

Match the following Causes and affects of Mutations

a)

Causes- Spontaneous Mutations

1.

occur at random

b)

Causes- Environmental causes of mutations

2.

x ray, ultraviolet light

c)

Effects- Mutations can be...

3.

harmful, helpful, or no effect at all

d)

Effects- Adds variety to...

4.

species and opportunities for evolution