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Electrical Activity of the Heart Quiz

Total questions: 216

Worksheet time: 3hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the ECG Lead I represent in terms of electrical activity of the heart?

a)

Electrical activity from the left arm to the right arm

b)

Electrical activity from the right arm to the left leg

c)

Electrical activity from the left leg to the left arm

d)

Electrical activity from the right leg to the right arm

2.

During a marathon, a runner's heart rate increases significantly. Which part of the heart is responsible for initiating the electrical impulse that is represented in an ECG, thus controlling the heart rate?

a)

AV node

b)

SA node

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Bundle of His

3.

What does the ECG Lead III trace represent?

a)

Electrical activity from the left arm to the left leg

b)

Electrical activity from the right arm to the left leg

c)

Electrical activity from the left leg to the right arm

d)

Electrical activity from the right arm to the left arm

4.

During a routine health check-up, a doctor is analyzing a patient's ECG. What does the 'P' wave observed in the ECG represent?

a)

Ventricular repolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

5.

Which segment of the ECG represents the isoelectric line where there is no electrical activity?

a)

PR Interval

b)

ST Segment

c)

QRS Interval

d)

TP Interval

6.

During a routine health check-up, a doctor is explaining to a patient how the heart's electrical activity is represented on an ECG. What is the correct sequence of depolarization as shown on the ECG?

a)

P wave, QRS complex, T wave

b)

T wave, P wave, QRS complex

c)

QRS complex, T wave, P wave

d)

QRS complex, P wave, T wave

7.

What does the 'QRS' complex represent in an ECG?

a)

Atrial repolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

8.

What does the term "Sinus" refer to in medical terminology?

a)

No electrical activity

b)

Fast heart rate

c)

Originates from the SA Node

d)

Slow heart rate

9.

What is the meaning of "Atrial" in the context of this medical terminology?

a)

Originates in and around the AV Junction

b)

Originates from the Atria but not specifically the SA Node

c)

Above the Ventricles

d)

Originates in the Ventricles

10.

What does "Junctional" mean in this medical context?

a)

Originates from the SA Node

b)

No electrical activity

c)

Originates in and around the AV Junction

d)

Fast heart rate

11.

What does "Ventricular" refer to in this terminology?

a)

Slow heart rate

b)

Originates from the Atria

c)

Originates in the Ventricles

d)

Above the Ventricles

12.

Match the following definitions with the correct term.

a)

Fast heart rate

1.

Definition of a condition characterized by a rapid heartbeat

b)

Originates from the SA Node

2.

Definition of a rhythm that starts in the sinoatrial node

c)

No electrical activity

3.

Definition of Asystole

d)

Originates in and around the AV Junction

4.

Definition of a rhythm originating near the atrioventricular junction

13.

Match the following descriptions with the correct heart condition.

a)

Slow heart rate

1.

Condition that describes a heart rate that is below the normal range

b)

Originates from the Atria

2.

Condition that indicates the origin of the heart rhythm

c)

Fast heart rate

3.

Condition that describes a heart rate that is above the normal range

d)

No electrical activity

4.

Condition indicating the heart has ceased its electrical activity

14.

What is the meaning of "Bradycardia"?

a)

Above the Ventricles

b)

Originates in the Ventricles

c)

Fast heart rate

d)

Slow heart rate

15.

What does "Supraventricular" indicate in medical terms?

a)

Originates from the SA Node

b)

Slow heart rate

c)

No electrical activity

d)

Above the Ventricles

16.

What does a wave in an ECG represent?

a)

The time between two specific ECG events

b)

A positive or negative deflection from baseline that indicates a specific electrical event

c)

The length between two specific points on an ECG

d)

The combination of multiple waves grouped together

17.

Which of the following is NOT a type of interval commonly measured on an ECG?

a)

PR interval

b)

QRS interval

c)

TP interval

d)

QT interval

18.

What is a segment in the context of an ECG?

a)

The combination of multiple waves grouped together

b)

The time between two specific ECG events

c)

The length between two specific points on an ECG that are supposed to be at the baseline amplitude

d)

There is only one point on an ECG termed the J point

19.

What is the only main complex on an ECG?

a)

PR complex

b)

ST complex

c)

QRS complex

d)

TP complex

20.

Where is the J point located on an ECG?

a)

Where the P wave ends

b)

Where the QRS complex begins

c)

Where the QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins

d)

Where the T wave ends

21.

What does the abbreviation AV stand for?

a)

Atrioventricular

b)

Atrial Velocity

c)

Aortic Valve

d)

Arteriovenous

22.

What is the full form of PAC as used in medical terminology? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Premature Atrial Contraction
Posterior Atrial Contraction
Prolonged Atrial Contraction
Premature Aortic Closure
23.

ECG is a common abbreviation in the medical field. What does it stand for?

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

Electrocerebralgram

c)

Electrochemogram

d)

Electrocutaneous Graph

24.

PJC is an abbreviation for which of the following?

a)

Premature Junctional Contraction

b)

Posterior Junctional Contraction

c)

Peripheral Junctional Contraction

d)

Premature Joint Closure

25.

What does PVC represent in medical terminology?

a)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

b)

Posterior Ventricular Contraction

c)

Peripheral Vascular Closure

d)

Premature Vascular Contraction

26.

NSR is an acronym for which of the following terms?

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Non-Specific Reaction

c)

Nodal System Regulation

d)

Neurological Stress Response

27.

SVT stands for which condition?

a)

Supraventricular Tachycardia

b)

Subventricular Tremor

c)

Systemic Vascular Tension

d)

Sinusoidal Vibration Therapy

28.

What does PAT refer to in the context of cardiology?

a)

Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

b)

Peripheral Arterial Thrombosis

c)

Posterior Atrial Tension

d)

Prolonged Aortic Tract

29.

SA is an abbreviation for which term?

a)

Sinusoidal Activity

b)

Subarachnoid

c)

Sinoatrial

d)

Subacute Angina

30.

During a routine check-up, a nurse is preparing to use the EASI Lead system for a patient's ECG. What color code corresponds to the lead placement at the lower sternum (5th intercostal space)?

a)

Red

b)

Black

c)

Brown

d)

White

31.

Where should the black lead be placed in EASI Leads?

a)

Right mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

b)

Left mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

c)

Upper sternum (just below sternal angle)

d)

Anywhere (right lower)

32.

Match the following lead placements with their associated colors in EASI Leads.

a)

Right mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

1.

Anywhere (right lower)

b)

Left mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

2.

Right mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

c)

Lower sternum (5th intercostal space)

3.

Left mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

d)

Anywhere (right lower)

4.

Lower sternum (5th intercostal space)

33.

In the EASI Leads system, where is the red lead placed?

a)

Right mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

b)

Left mid-axillary line (5th intercostal space)

c)

Upper sternum (just below sternal angle)

d)

Lower sternum (5th intercostal space)

34.

What is the mnemonic to remember the lead placement in EASI Leads?

a)

Smoke over fire, clouds over grass, chocolate on the right

b)

Smoke over fire, grass over clouds, chocolate on the left

c)

Fire over smoke, grass over clouds, chocolate on the right

d)

Fire over smoke, clouds over grass, chocolate on the left

35.

What does the EKG/ECG graph paper allow for visual measurement of in terms of time?

a)

Distance

b)

Rate

c)

Temperature

d)

Frequency

36.

On an EKG/ECG graph paper, what is measured on the horizontal line?

a)

Amplitude (voltage)

b)

Time (rate)

c)

Pressure

d)

Heart rate

37.

What is measured on the vertical line of an EKG/ECG graph paper?

a)

Time (rate)

b)

Distance

c)

Amplitude (voltage)

d)

Heart rate

38.

Each small square on the EKG/ECG graph paper is (a)   wide.

Choose from the below words
0.02 seconds
1 millimeter (mm)
0.04 seconds
5 millimeters (mm)
39.

What does each small square on the EKG/ECG graph paper represent in terms of time?

a)

0.02 seconds

b)

1 millimeter (mm)

c)

0.04 seconds

d)

5 millimeters (mm)

40.

What is the time interval represented by a width of 5 mm on the EKG/ECG graph paper?

a)

0.02 seconds

b)

1 millimeter (mm)

c)

0.04 seconds

d)

0.20 seconds

41.

What do the darker lines on EKG/ECG graph paper represent?

a)

They divide the paper into every 10th square vertically and horizontally.

b)

They indicate the electrical activity of the heart.

c)

They divide the paper into every 5th square vertically and horizontally.

d)

They represent the time interval of 1 second.

42.

How large are the large squares on EKG/ECG graph paper? (a)  

Choose from the below words
10 mm in height and width
5 mm in height and width
1 mm in height and width
2.5 mm in height and width
43.

What does one large square on the EKG/ECG graph paper represent in terms of time?

a)

0.04 seconds

b)

0.10 seconds

c)

0.20 seconds

d)

1.00 second

44.

How many small squares are there in each large square on EKG/ECG graph paper?

a)

10 small squares

b)

20 small squares

c)

25 small squares

d)

50 small squares

45.

What is the time interval represented by a 1 mm square on the EKG/ECG graph paper?

a)

0.02 seconds

b)

0.04 seconds

c)

0.10 seconds

d)

0.20 seconds

46.

What does one complete cardiac cycle consist of?

a)

P, Q, R, S, T, U waves

b)

P, Q, R, S, (QRS complex), and T wave

c)

P, R, S, T, U waves

d)

Q, R, S, (QRS complex), T, U waves

47.

What does the P wave in an EKG represent?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization (contraction)

d)

Ventricular repolarization (resting phase)

48.

The QRS Complex in an EKG represents (a)   .

Choose from the below words

Atrial depolarization

Ventricular repolarization

Ventricular depolarization

Atrial repolarization only

49.

What does the T wave in an EKG indicate?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization (resting phase)

50.

What does the P wave on an EKG represent?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

51.

Which complex on the EKG represents ventricular depolarization?

a)

T wave

b)

P wave

c)

ST segment

d)

QRS complex

52.

What is represented by the ST segment and T wave on the EKG?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization

c)

Atrial repolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization

53.

Where does the impulse travel after leaving the SA node?

a)

Directly to the ventricles

b)

Through the AV node only

c)

Across the atrial muscle and then through Bachman's Bundle to the left atrium

d)

Outside the heart

54.

What causes the right and left atria to contract at the same time?

a)

The impulse traveling from the AV node to the SA node

b)

The impulse traveling from the SA node to the AV node

c)

The QRS complex on the EKG

d)

The T wave on the EKG

55.

What does the P wave in an EKG represent?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization (contraction)

d)

Ventricular repolarization

56.

What does the QRS Complex in an EKG represent?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Ventricular depolarization, atrial repolarization

c)

Ventricular repolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

57.

What does the T wave in an EKG represent?

a)

Atrial depolarization

b)

Atrial repolarization

c)

Ventricular depolarization

d)

Ventricular repolarization (resting phase)

58.

What is rhythm classified as when the interval between the R waves is regular?

a)

Irregular pattern

b)

Regular pattern

c)

Sequential pattern

d)

Random pattern

59.

What does rhythm refer to in the context of heart function?

a)

The color of the heart

b)

The size of the heart

c)

The sequential beating of the heart as a result of the generation of electrical impulses

d)

The sound of the heart

60.

How is rhythm classified when the interval between the R waves is not regular?

a)

Regular pattern

b)

Sequential pattern

c)

Irregular pattern

d)

Constant pattern

61.

What does the 'P' wave in an ECG complex represent?

a)

Ventricular depolarization

b)

Ventricular repolarization

c)

Atrial depolarization

d)

Atrial repolarization

62.

Which interval on an ECG represents the time from the onset of atrial depolarization to the onset of ventricular depolarization?

a)

ST interval

b)

QT interval

c)

PR interval

d)

TP interval

63.

What does the 'QRS' complex in an ECG signify? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Atrial repolarization
Ventricular depolarization
Atrial depolarization
Ventricular repolarization
64.
Question Image

Match the following descriptions with the correct phase of the heart cycle they represent.

a)

Ventricular depolarization

1.

Phase corresponding to the start of the QRS complex

b)

Atrial depolarization

2.

Phase not typically visible in an ECG

c)

Ventricular repolarization

3.

Phase represented by the 'T' wave in an ECG

d)

Atrial repolarization

4.

Phase occurring just before the P wave

65.

The atrial rate is determined by (a)   when interpreting EKG rhythm strips.

Choose from the below words
The number of QRS complexes
The number of P waves
The number of T waves
The number of electrical impulses i
66.

How is the ventricular rate determined when interpreting EKG rhythm strips?

a)

By counting the number of P waves

b)

By counting the number of T waves

c)

By counting the number of QRS complexes

d)

By counting the number of electrical impulses in 30 seconds

67.

What does the 6 second method denote in EKG rhythm strip interpretation?

a)

A 10 second interval on EKG strip

b)

A 6 minute interval on EKG strip

c)

A 6 second interval on EKG strip

d)

A 3 second interval on EKG strip

68.

How do you calculate the heart rate using the 6 second method on an EKG strip?

a)

Count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and divide by 10

b)

Count the number of P waves in 6 seconds and multiply by 10

c)

Count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10

d)

Count the number of T waves in 6 seconds and multiply by 10

69.

How many seconds are represented by the time marks in the ECG strip shown in Figure 2? (a)  

Choose from the below words
3 seconds
6 seconds
12 seconds
60 seconds
70.

Based on the ECG strip provided, what is the heart rate?

a)

60 beats per minute

b)

70 beats per minute

c)

80 beats per minute

d)

90 beats per minute

71.

Are P waves present in a normal ECG cycle?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only in abnormal ECG

d)

Present only in tachycardia

72.

How should P waves appear in a normal ECG? (a)  

Choose from the below words
Inverted
Absent
Smooth, rounded, and upright
Irregular
73.

What is the normal duration of a P-wave? (a)  

Choose from the below words
0.06 – 0.12 seconds
0.12 – 0.20 seconds
0.20 – 0.30 seconds
0.01 – 0.05 seconds
74.

How many P waves should be present for each QRS complex in a normal ECG?

a)

One P wave for each QRS complex

b)

Two P waves for each QRS complex

c)

No P wave for each QRS complex

d)

Variable number of P waves for each QRS complex

75.

Are P waves supposed to look similar across the ECG?

a)

Yes, they should look similar

b)

No, each P wave is unique

c)

They look similar only in abnormal ECGs

d)

They look similar only in bradycardia

76.

What does the QT interval on an EKG represent?

a)

Time from ventricular depolarization to repolarization

b)

Time from atrial depolarization to atrial repolarization

c)

Time for the entire electrical conduction of the heart

d)

Time from the start of the Q wave to the end of the T wave, indicating ventricular activity

77.

What is the significance of an elevated ST segment on an ECG?

a)

Indicates a normal heart function

b)

May suggest myocardial infarction

c)

Signifies atrial fibrillation

d)

Indicates low potassium levels

78.

How is the heart rate calculated using an ECG?

a)

Counting the number of QRS complexes in a 10 second strip and multiplying by 6

b)

Measuring the distance between two P waves

c)

Counting the number of T waves in a 6 second strip

d)

Measuring the PR interval

79.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
80.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
81.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
82.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
83.
Which rhythm has random squiggly lines instead of a P wave?
a)
Atrial Fibrillation
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
PAC
d)
SVT
84.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
85.

Heart rate over 100 beats per minutes is

a)

tachycardia

b)

bradycardia

c)

depolarization

d)

repolarization

86.

Which of these is not considered when making a diagnosis?

a)

P-R interval

b)

rate

c)

rhythm

d)

T wave

87.

When making a diagnosis in the classroom, we are looking at which view?

a)

Lead I

b)

Lead II

c)

Lead III

d)

V1

88.

The outstanding characteristic of sinus arrest is

a)

fast heart rate

b)

a long pause with no heart beat

c)

a long P-R interval

d)

everything is normal

89.

With sinus dysrhythmia

a)

the rate is abnormal

b)

the rhythm is abnormal

c)

the p wave is abnormal

d)

the t wave is abnormal

90.

In wandering atrial pacemaker, the outstanding characteristic is

a)

the P wave will have 3 or more shapes

b)

the T wave is absent

c)

the QRS repolarizes

d)

the baseline shifts

91.

What is the heart rate for multifocal atrial tachycardia?

a)

60-100 bpm

b)

over 100 bpm

c)

below 60 bpm

d)

20-40 bpm

92.

In atrial flutter the atria will

a)

not beat at all

b)

beat as often as the ventricles beat

c)

beat 3 or 4 more times than the ventricles

d)

be normal

93.

We see capital F waves in which dysrhythmia?

a)

atrial fibrillation

b)

premature atrial complexes

c)

normal sinus rhythm

d)

atrial flutter

94.

Which of these is NOT true of atrial fibrillation?

a)

the atria are quivering like a bowl of jello

b)

the rhythm is irregular

c)

p waves are not present

d)

atrial rate is 60-100 bpm

95.

MI stands for

a)

myocardial infarction

b)

muscle infarction

c)

mycocordial infarction

d)

muscle infraction

96.

With premature atrial complexes, what is coming early?

a)

P wave

b)

ORS complex

c)

U wave

d)

T wave

97.

If our patient's heart rate is 75bpm, rhythm is regular, P-R interval is normal, QRS is normal, then our diagnosis is

a)

Sinus tachycardia

b)

Sinus dysrhythmia

c)

normal sinus rhythm

d)

Sinus arrest

98.

A common cardiac dysrhythmia characterized by premature heartbeats originating in the atria.

a)

A-Fib

b)

A-Flutter

c)

PAC's

d)

SA Block

99.

Occurs when the natural pacemaker site shifts between SA node, the atria, and/or the AV node.

a)

1st Degree AV Block

b)

SA Block

c)

Sinus Pause

d)

Wandering Atrial Pacemaker

100.

Pattern in which every third complex is a premature (PVC).

(a)  

101.

A cardiac cell or group of cells that produces an ectopic beat; cells that are notably different or abnormal in some manner

(a)  

102.

The extra blood that can be ejected into the ventricles by the atria as a result of the electrical impulse slowing as it enters the AV node.

(a)  

103.

A blood clot that forms on the wall in a diseased area of the endocardium or on the wall of an injured blood vessel

(a)  

104.
Which of the following has zigzag looking waves, rather than P waves?
a)
PACs
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
SVT
105.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
106.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
107.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
108.
What rhythm is this?
a)
Sinus Rhythm with PAC
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
Atrial Fibrillation
d)
Supraventricular Tachycardia
109.
Which rhythm has random squiggly lines instead of a P wave?
a)
Atrial Fibrillation
b)
Atrial Flutter
c)
PAC
d)
SVT
110.

Determine which of the following electrocardiogram (ECG) tracings is missing P waves but is otherwise regular.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

111.

What causes heart sounds?

a)

opening of heart valves

b)

heart valve closure

c)

pressure of blood in the ventricles

d)

blood flowing from the atria into the ventricles

112.

 Increasing end-diastolic volume (EDV) and end-systolic volume (ESV) will increase stroke volume.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

113.

What does the QRS wave of the electrocardiogram (ECG) represent?

a)

atrial depolarization

b)

atrial repolarization

c)

ventricular depolarization

d)

ventricular repolarization

114.

As soon as ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure, the atrioventricular valve will open and ventricular filling will begin.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

115.

Which of the following terms is correctly matched to its description?

a)

ventricular diastole: period of ventricular contraction

b)

atrial systole: period of atrial relaxation

c)

quiescent period: period of total heart relaxation

d)

stroke volume: amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in one minute

116.

What separates the parietal and visceral pericardium?

a)

epicardium

b)

fibrous pericardium

c)

myocardium

d)

pericardial cavity

117.

Which of the following descriptions of cardiac pacemaker cells is INCORRECT?

a)

The rapid depolarization phase of the pacemaker cell action potential is due to Na+ influx through Na+ channels.

b)

The pacemaker cells of the sinoatrial (SA) node exhibit the fastest rate of spontaneous depolarization.

c)

The pacemaker cells of the atrioventricular (AV) node are smaller and have fewer gap junctions compared to the rest of the conduction system.

d)

Cutting the vagus nerve would allow the pacemaker cells of the sinoatrial (SA) node to generate action potentials at a faster rate.

118.

Electrical impulses pass through the conduction system of the heart in the following sequence:

a)

SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

b)

SA node, bundle branches, AV node, bundle of His, and Purkin

c)

SA node, bundle of His, AV node, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers

d)

SA node, bundle branches, bundle of His, AV node, and Purkinje fibers

119.

Which portion of the electrocardiogram represents the wave-like change in charge in the positive direction received by the atria from the sinoatrial (SA) node?

a)

T wave

b)

S-T segment

c)

P wave

d)

QRS complex

120.

Which of the following INCREASES stroke volume?

a)

exercise

b)

decrease in preload

c)

decrease in end diastolic volume

d)

severe blood loss

121.

Which of the following would increase cardiac output?

a)

parasympathetic stimulation

b)

high blood pressure

c)

decreased cytoplasmic calcium concentration during contraction

d)

epinephrine

122.

The right side of the heart is considered the systemic circuit pump.

a)

true

b)

false

123.

Which heart chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

a)

left ventricle

b)

left atrium

c)

right atrium

d)

right ventricle

124.

Why are gap junctions a vital part of the intercellular connection of cardiac muscles?

a)

Gap junctions form strong intercellular connections

b)

Gap junctions allow calcium to enter the cell, triggering calcium release from the SR.

c)

Gap junctions contract when stimulated, strengthening the force of cardiac cell contraction.

d)

Gap junctions allow action potentials to spread to connected cells

125.

Which statement is correct regarding the ventricles?

a)

The right ventricle empties into the pulmonary trunk.

b)

The left ventricle empties into the pulmonary circuit.

c)

The left ventricle has a thinner wall than the right ventricle.

d)

The right ventricle forms a complete circle in cross section.

126.

What heart problem would be experienced by an individual whose ECG is seen at C?

a)

The heart would pump with too much pressure (hypertension).

b)

The heart is not pumping any blood at all

c)

The atria are not pumping blood.

d)

The ventricles are not reaching systole in every cardiac cycle.

127.

Which of the following structures receives the depolarization wave from the atria and passes impulses onto the ventricles?

a)

SA node

b)

atrioventricular bundle

c)

bundle branches

d)

AV node

128.

Part A

Part complete

During which of these stages are the aortic and pulmonary valves open?

a)

phase 1

b)

phase 2a

c)

phase 2b

d)

phase 3

129.

Which of these muscles is particularly associated with anchoring the right and left atrioventricular valves?

a)

papillary muscles

b)

pectinate muscles

c)

trabeculae carneae

d)

myocardium

130.

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right side of the heart to the lungs in (a)   circulation.

131.

(a)   circulation begins with blood being pumped out of the left side of the heart to the body.

132.

The alternative name for the visceral pericardium is the

(a)  

133.

The condition when BP is decreased within three minutes of standing up is (a)   hypotension

134.

The area of the chest wall anterior to the heart and lower thorax is the (a)   .

135.

(a)   are the upper chambers of the heart

136.

(a)   are the lower chambers of the heart.

137.

Deoxygenated blood travels to the lungs through the (a)   .

138.

The heart muscle's dedicated system of blood supply are the (a)   arteries.

139.

The bicuspid valve is also called the (a)   valve

140.

The inner lining of the heart is called the (a)   .

141.

Blood return from the body through the inferior and superior

(a)  

142.

an abnormally slow heartbeat is called (a)   .

143.

Arteries carry blood ___ ___ the heart

(a)  

144.

Veins carry blood (a)   the heart

145.

The valve between the right atrium and right ventricle of the heart is the (a)   valve

146.

An unusually fast heartbeat is called (a)   .

147.

fainting is also called

a)

diaphoresis

b)

vertigo

c)

cynosis

d)

syncope

148.

Profuse sweating is also called

a)

diaphoresis

b)

vertigo

c)

cynosis

d)

syncope

149.

The condition of bluish skin is called

a)

diaphoresis

b)

vertigo

c)

cynosis

d)

syncope

150.

_______ assessments can be done with an initial assessment. They identify new or overlooked problems. They are important because they can "flag" existing problems.

a)

Initial

b)

Focused

c)

On-going

d)

Emergency

151.

Time lapsed assessments compare current status to the ______data

a)

Subjective

b)

Projected

c)

Objective

d)

Baseline

152.

The E in the HELP mnemonic ensure systematic person-centered observation stand for

a)

Environmental equipment

b)

Essential equipment

c)

Environmental essentials

153.

_______ data is observable and measurable data that can be seen, heard, felt or measured by someone other than the person experiencing them

a)

Objective

b)

Subjective

154.

_______ is the conscious and deliberate use of the five senses to gather data

a)

Assessment

b)

Interview

c)

Observation

155.

The act of confirming or verifying data is__________

a)

Interview

b)

Inference

c)

Validation

156.

The four methods used to collect data during an assessment (select all that apply)

a)

Inspection

b)

Palpitation

c)

Percussion

d)

Clarify

e)

Auscultation

157.

The _____ step of the nursing process interprets and analyzes data gathered

a)

Assessment

b)

Diagnosis

c)

Implementation

d)

Evaluation

158.

Alfaro-LaFevre in her book identifies the shift from diagnose and treat to _______, prevent, manage and promote (PPMP)

a)

Preside

b)

Propose

c)

Pattern

d)

Predict

159.

The formulation of nursing diagnosis statements include

(select all that apply)

a)

Problem

b)

Defining characteristics

c)

Related factors

d)

Medical diagnosis

e)

Etiology

160.

Caring for a patient who presents with labored respirations, productive cough, and fever. What would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? (select all that apply)

a)

Bronchial pneumonia

b)

Impaired gas exchange

c)

Ineffective airway clearance

d)

Potential complications: sepsis

e)

Risk for septic shock

161.

Select The best description of the tricuspid valve.

a)

left semilunar valve

b)

right atrioventricular valve

c)

left atrioventricular valve

d)

right semilunar valve

162.

The function of the pulmonic valve is to:

a)

divide the left atrium and left ventricle

b)

guard the opening between the right atrium and right ventricle

c)

protect the orifice between the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery

d)

guard the entrance to the aorta from the left ventricle

163.

The second heart sound is the result of:

a)

opening of the mitral and tricuspid valves

b)

closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves

c)

opening of the aortic and pulmonic valves

d)

closing of the aortic and pulmonic valves

164.

The student nurse wishes to listen in the pulmonic valve area. To do this, the stethescope would be placed at the:

a)

second right interspace

b)

second left interspace

c)

left lower sternal border

d)

fifth interspace, left midclavicular line

165.

When auscultating the heart, your first step is to:

a)

identify s1 and s2

b)

listen for s3 and s4

c)

listen for murmurs

d)

identify all four sounds on the first round

166.

The stethoscope bell should be pressed lightly against the skin so that:

a)

chest hair doesn't simulate crackles

b)

high-pitched sounds can be heard better

c)

it does not act as a diaphragm

d)

it does not interfere with amplification of heart sounds

167.

While reviewing a medical record, a notation of 4+ edema of the right leg was noted. The best description of this type of edema is:

a)

mild pitting, no perceptible swelling of the leg

b)

moderate pitting, indentation subsides rapidly

c)

deep pitting, leg looks swollen

d)

deep pitting, indentation lasts lover than 3 seconds

168.

The function of the venous system is:

a)

to hold more blood when blood volume increases

b)

to conserve fluid and plasma proteins that leak out of the capillaries

c)

to form a major part of the immune system that dfends the body against disease

d)

to absorb lipids from the intestinal tract

169.

During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse finds a bluish tinge on the client's lips, fingers, and toes. Wheat is the appropriate documentation for this finding.

a)

Central cyanosis

b)

Peripheral cyanosis

c)

Central and peripheral cyanosis

d)

cyanosis

170.

When performing a dietary history on a client with a cardiovascular history, the nurse should obtain information related to which items?

a)

Dairy consumption

b)

Sodium intake

c)

Whole grain intake

d)

Vitamin supplements

171.

When palpating the carotid arteries, it is essential that the nurse do which of the following?

a)

Palpate the carotids while the client is supine

b)

Avoid palpating the carotids simultaneously

c)

Determine if there is a heave

d)

Palpate for an enlarged heart

172.

In preparing to perform a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse should initially place the client in which position?

a)

Supine

b)

Lithotomy

c)

Sitting upright

d)

Prone

173.

The nurse is performing a cardiovascular assessment. To evaluate the client of pulmonary edema, the nurse would assess the client for which manifestation?

a)

Edema in the lower extremities

b)

Shortness of breath

c)

A thrill

d)

Splinter hemorrhages

174.

During inspection of the carotid arteries, the nurse assessed a bounding pulse. The nurse should evaluate the client for which additional finding?

a)

Fever

b)

Bruits

c)

Chest pain

d)

Cyanosis

175.

These are the smallest blood vessels in the cardiovascular system

a)

veins

b)

capillaries

c)

arteries

d)

atrium

176.

These prevent blood from flowing back into the atria when the ventricles contract

a)

semilunar valves

b)

capillaries

c)

tricuspid & bicuspid valves

d)

arteries

177.

This blood vessel splits in two and sends oxygen-poor blood to the lungs

a)

pulmonary veins

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

pulmonary trunk

d)

superior vena cava

178.

This area of the heart initiates the action potential that causes the heart beat

a)

SA node

b)

Right Atrium

c)

AV node

d)

Left Atrium

179.

One of the largest blood vessels that transports blood from the body region below the diaphragm to the heart

a)

Pulmonary veins

b)

Superior Vena Cava

c)

Aorta

d)

Inferior Vena Cava

180.

Chamber of the heart that receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

a)

right ventricle

b)

left atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

right atrium

181.

These carry blood away from the heart

a)

veins

b)

capillaries

c)

arteries

182.

When blood leaves this chamber of the heart, it heads back to the lungs

a)

right atrium

b)

left atrium

c)

right ventricle

d)

left ventricle

183.

Stops blood from flowing back into the ventricles each time the contract

a)

tricuspid valve

b)

semilunar valve

c)

bicuspid valve

d)

none of these

184.

When blood leaves this chamber of the heart, it heads out to the body

a)

Left Ventricle

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Left Ventricle

185.

When this chamber contracts it pushes blood through the tricuspid valve

a)

Left Ventricle

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Left Atrium

d)

Right Ventricle

186.

These carry blood towards the heart

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arteries

187.

These allow the heart to make its own electrical impulses

a)

Veins

b)

Arteries

c)

Pacemaker cells

188.

Pulmonary circuit blood travels through the _______ side of the heart and out to the _________.

a)

left

body

b)

right

body

c)

left

lungs

d)

right

lungs

189.

This is responsible for distributing electical impulses throughout the heart

a)

AV node

b)

Arteries

c)

SA node

d)

Capillaries

190.

Coronary circulation provides nourishment to

a)

lungs

b)

body

c)

heart

d)

none

191.

Blood traveling in the systemic circuit goes through the _______ side of the heart and out to the _________

a)

right

body

b)

left

body

c)

right

lungs

d)

left

lungs

192.

These small blood vessels have the thinnest walls in order maximize diffusion of nutrients in and out of interstitial fluid

a)

arteries

b)

capillaries

c)

veins

d)

none

193.

Which of the following best describes this strip?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Asystole

194.

Which of the following best describes this strip?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Asystole

195.

Which of the following best describes this strip?

a)

Tachycardia

b)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

c)

Bradycardia

d)

Asystole

196.

How many cardiac cycle shown in the diagram

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

197.

What is the ECG showing (Red Arrow)

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

Asystole

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

198.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

Asystole

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

199.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

200.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

201.

What is the ECG showing

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

202.

What is the ECG showing (arrow)

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

203.

Identify the ECG tracing.

a)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

b)

Atrial Fibrillation

c)

Atrial Flutter

d)

Ventricular tachycardia

204.

Identify the ECG tracing.

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Torsades de pointes

d)

Asystole

205.

What is the heart rate in this ECG tracing?

a)

60 bpm

b)

75 bpm

c)

90 bpm

d)

130 bpm

206.

Identify the heart block, if any.

a)

First-degree AV block

b)

Second-degree AV block (type I)

c)

Second-degree AV block (type II)

d)

Third-degree AV block

e)

Normal Sinus Rhythm

207.

What is the hear rate of this ECG rhytm?

a)

40

b)

70

c)

100

d)

130

208.

This ECG strip illustrates ____________.

a)

Premature Atrial Contraction

b)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

c)

Atrial Fibrulation

d)

Tachycardia

209.

This ECG wave illustrates ____________.

a)

An MI that occurred years ago

b)

ST segment depression

c)

An acute MI

d)

Normal ECG wave

210.

This ECG illustrates _______________.

a)

Premature Atrial Contraction

b)

Atrial Flutter

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

211.

What is the HR of this ECG?

a)

105pbm

b)

135bpm

c)

75bpm

d)

165bpm

212.

What is the ECG showing?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

213.

What is the ECG showing?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

214.

What is the ECG showing?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

215.

What is the ECG showing ?

a)

Atrial Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular Fibrillation

c)

normal

d)

Premature Ventricular Contraction

e)

Heart Block

216.

your correct diagnosis is

a)

Atrila Fibrillation

b)

Ventricular fibriilation

c)

Sinus Tacchycardia

d)

Abnormal ECG