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AIMs 3-4 to 6-3-1

Total questions: 52

Worksheet time: 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You are planning a cross-country flight that will take you through Class A airspace. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following requirements must you meet to legally operate in Class A airspace?

a)

You must be flying a glider or balloon.

b)

You must be flying VFR only.

c)

You must have a Mode C transponder and an altitude encoding altimeter.

d)

You must maintain visual contact with the ground at all times.

2.

Which of the following statements is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace according to AIM 3-2?

a)

Pilots are required to establish two-way radio communication with ATC before entering Class A airspace.

b)

Visual flight rules (VFR) are permitted in Class A airspace as long as the pilot maintains visual contact with the ground.

c)

Aircraft operating in Class A airspace are not required to be equipped with an altimeter.

d)

Class A airspace extends from the surface up to 10,000 feet MSL.

3.

You are planning to fly into a Class B airspace. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following requirements must you meet before entering Class B airspace?

a)

Your aircraft must be equipped with a Mode S transponder.

b)

You must obtain a clearance from ATC to enter Class B airspace.

c)

You must file an IFR flight plan regardless of weather conditions.

d)

You must maintain a minimum altitude of 10,000 feet MSL within Class B airspace.

4.

You are flying VFR near a Class B airspace and wish to transition through it. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following is true regarding VFR flight in Class B airspace?

a)

You do not need ATC clearance if you remain clear of the cloud layers.

b)

You are required to maintain a speed of at least 180 knots.

c)

You must have a Mode C transponder and two-way radio communication.

d)

VFR flights are not allowed in Class B airspace under any circumstances.

5.

You are planning a VFR flight that will take you through Class C airspace. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following is required for VFR flight in Class C airspace?

a)

You must file an IFR flight plan.

b)

You must establish two-way radio communication with ATC before entering the airspace.

c)

You must have a Mode S transponder.

d)

You must maintain an altitude of at least 5,000 feet above the surface.

6.

You are flying VFR near a Class C airspace and intend to pass through it. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following is NOT a requirement for operating in Class C airspace?

a)

You must receive an explicit clearance from ATC to enter.

b)

Your aircraft must be equipped with a Mode C transponder.

c)

You must establish two-way radio communication with ATC before entering.

d)

You must maintain an altitude that ensures you remain clear of clouds.

7.

You are planning to fly VFR into a Class D airspace. According to AIM 3-2, which of the following is required for operating in Class D airspace?

a)

You must maintain a minimum altitude of 3,000 feet AGL within the airspace.

b)

You must establish two-way radio communication with the control tower before entering the airspace.

c)

Your aircraft must be equipped with a Mode S transponder.

d)

You must obtain a special VFR clearance to enter the airspace during daylight hours.

8.

Do some class E airspace have non-towered airports

(YES/NO)

a)

No

b)

Yes

9.

You are planning a cross-country VFR flight and notice that your planned route passes through a prohibited area. According to AIM 3-4-2, which of the following actions should you take?

a)

Fly directly over the prohibited area at an altitude above 10,000 feet MSL to ensure separation.

b)

Contact the controlling agency for permission to enter the prohibited area.

c)

Alter your flight plan to avoid the prohibited area entirely.

d)

Maintain radio silence while transiting the prohibited area to avoid detection.

10.

You are planning a VFR flight along the coast and notice that your route skirts the edge of a warning area. According to AIM 3-4-4, which of the following statements is true regarding warning areas?

a)

Warning areas are only active during daylight hours, so no action is required if flying at night.

b)

You must obtain a clearance from the controlling agency before entering a warning area.

c)

Warning areas extend from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States.

d)

Warning areas are established for the purpose of containing activities that could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

11.

You are flying VFR near a warning area that is active according to the NOTAMs you checked before your flight. According to AIM 3-4-4, which of the following is the best course of action?

a)

Continue your flight as planned; warning areas do not apply to VFR flights.

b)

Contact the controlling agency for real-time information on the activities within the warning area.

c)

Fly through the warning area at a high altitude to minimize the risk of encountering hazardous activities.

d)

Land at the nearest airport and wait until the warning area is no longer active.

12.

You are planning a VFR flight and notice that your route will take you through a restricted area. According to AIM 3-4-3, which of the following actions should you take?

a)

Fly directly over the restricted area at an altitude above FL600 to ensure separation.

b)

Contact the controlling agency to determine if the restricted area is active and if permission to transit is available.

c)

Assume the restricted area is inactive and proceed with your flight as planned.

d)

Maintain radio silence while transiting the restricted area to avoid interference with on going activities.

13.

You are planning a VFR flight that will take you near a Military Operation Area (MOA). According to AIM 3-4-5, which of the following is true regarding flight operations near or within a MOA?

a)

VFR flights are prohibited within MOAs at all times.

b)

You must obtain ATC clearance before entering an active MOA.

c)

Pilots are encouraged to contact the controlling agency for real-time information on MOA activity.

d)

MOAs are only active during weekdays, so no special considerations are needed for weekend flights.

14.

You are planning a VFR flight and notice that your route will take you over a National Security Area (NSA). According to AIM 3-4-8, which of the following actions should you take?

a)

Fly directly over the NSA at the highest possible altitude to minimize impact.

b)

Contact the controlling agency to obtain permission before entering the NSA.

c)

Avoid flying over the NSA, especially when it is active, unless absolutely necessary.

d)

Maintain radio silence while flying over the NSA to avoid interference with security operations.

15.

You are planning a VFR flight and notice that your route intersects with an Alert Area. According to AIM 3-4-6, which of the following is true regarding flight operations within an Alert Area?

a)

You must obtain prior authorization from the controlling agency to enter the Alert Area.

b)

Alert Areas are permanently restricted airspace, and entry is prohibited at all times.

c)

Pilots are encouraged to exercise caution and be aware of high volumes of pilot training or unusual aerial activity.

d)

All flights within an Alert Area must be conducted under instrument flight rules (IFR) only.

16.


You are planning a VFR flight and notice that your route will take you through a Controlled Firing Area (CFA). According to AIM 3-4-7, which of the following is true regarding flight operations within a CFA?

a)

You must obtain a special clearance from the controlling agency before entering the CFA.

b)

CFAs are not charted, and activities within them are suspended when aircraft are detected.

c)

All flights within a CFA must maintain an altitude above 10,000 feet MSL to avoid hazards.

d)

Pilots are required to establish two-way radio communication with the controlling agency while in the CFA.

17.

An ATC clearance must be obtained prior to operating within a class (?) surface area when the weather is less than that required for VFR flight. (4-4-6)

(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)

B

b)

C

c)

D

d)

E

e)

A

18.

All special VFR flights must remain (?)

a)
inside of clouds
b)
clear of clouds
c)
above clouds
d)
below clouds
19.

The visibility requirements for special VFR must remain at least (?) sm for operations within class b, c, d, and e surface areas

a)
1 statute mile
b)
4 statute miles
c)
2 statute miles
d)
3 statute miles
20.

The visibility requirements for special VFR aircraft must remain at least (?) sm if taking off or landing.

a)
2 sm
b)
3 sm
c)
5 sm
d)
1
21.

Do you have to file a flight plan with the request for clearance for special vfr?

a)
Yes
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
No
22.

In what airspaces are special vfr clearances effective?

a)
Class B, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas
b)
Class C, Class D, Class E, and Class F
c)
Class B, Class D, Class E, and Class G
d)
Class A, Class C, Class D, and Class E surface areas
23.

Special VFR operations by fixed-wing aircraft are prohibited between (?)

a)
dusk and dawn
b)
midnight and noon
c)
morning and evening
d)
sunset and sunrise
24.

Who is responsible for canceling their flight plan under VFR/DVFR?
(5-1-14)

a)
The weather service
b)
The air traffic controller
c)
The aircraft manufacturer
d)

The pic

25.

Who can cancel flight plans?
(5-1-14)

a)

FSS, OR you can request ATC to relay your cancellation request to the FSS

b)
Flight attendant
c)
Air traffic controller
d)
Airport security
26.

What happens if you fail to report or cancel your flight plan within a half hour after your ETA?
(5-1-14)

a)
You will receive a refund for your ticket
b)
Search and rescue procedures will be initiated.
c)
You will be given a free meal voucher
d)
You will be upgraded to first class
27.

What is a STAR?
(5-4-1)

a)
A STAR is a shape with five points, three straight sides, and two points at the top.
b)
A STAR is a shape with four points, four straight sides, and one point at the top.
c)
A STAR is a shape with six points, four straight sides, and two points at the top.
d)

An ATC coded IFR arrival route established for application to arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain airports. (Standard Terminal Arrival Procedures)

28.

What procedures might be mandatory on a STAR?
(5-4-1)

a)
5-3-1
b)
4-4-1
c)
5-4-2
d)

Mandatory speeds and/or crossing altitudes

29.

Are "expect" altitudes considered STAR procedures?
(5-4-1)


a)

They are not considered crossing procedures UNLESS verbally issued by ATC

b)
Yes
c)
Maybe
d)
Sometimes
30.

Pilots navigating on or navigating a published route inbound to a STAR procedure must maintain what until receiving authorization?
(5-4-1)

a)

Maintain last assigned altitude until receiving authorization to descend

b)
Last assigned route
c)
Last assigned speed
d)
Last assigned heading
31.

When a landing cannot be accomplished, advise ATC and upon reaching the missed approach point defined on the approach procedure chart, the pilot must?
(5-4-21)

a)

Comply with the missed approach instructions for the procedure being used OR with an alternate missed approach procedure specified by ATC

b)
Initiate a go-around without notifying ATC
c)
Circle the airport until cleared to land
d)
Continue descending below MDA
32.

Does a clearance for a specific type of approach to an aircraft operating on an IFR give landing priority over other air traffic?
(5-4-26)

a)
No
b)
Only during daytime
c)
Sometimes
d)
Yes
33.

When might ATC provide a different landing sequence?
(5-4-26)

a)
Change in pilot's mood
b)
Birds on the runway
c)
ATC staff on a lunch break
d)
Change in weather conditions, runway availability, traffic volume, or emergencies
34.

When must a pilot advise ATC of their fuel status?
(5-5-15)

a)
When they have just refueled.
b)
When they have less than 15 minutes of fuel remaining.
c)
When they have more than 30 minutes of fuel remaining.
d)

When their fuel supply has reached a state where upon reaching destination, they cannot accept any undue delay.

35.

When a pilot informs ATC about minimum fuel, is this an emergency?
(5-5-15)

a)
Maybe
b)
No
c)
Yes
d)
Sometimes
36.

Does a minimum fuel advisory give you landing priority?
(5-5-15)

a)
Only on weekends
b)
Sometimes
c)
Yes
d)
No
37.

What should you do if the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority?
(5-5-15)

a)

Declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes

b)
Switch off all communication devices
c)
Land at the nearest airport without notifying air traffic control
d)
Ignore the situation and continue as planned
38.

What does a radar controller due to an aircraft during an radar approach?
(5-4-11)

a)
Provides instructions for meal service to passengers
b)
Sings a lullaby to help the aircraft sleep
c)
Gives a weather forecast for the destination city
d)
Provides instructions for altitude, heading, and speed adjustments to align the aircraft with the runway.
39.

When might a pilot get a radar approach?
(5-4-11)

(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)

a)
During clear skies
b)
Only during nighttime flights
c)

Upon request, or can be offered to pilots of aircraft in distress or to expedite traffic

d)
Poor weather conditions or upon request for assistance
40.

When might a surveillance approach not be approved?
(5-4-11)

a)

If there is not ATC operational requirement, or in an unusual or emergency situation

b)
Minimal impact on privacy
c)
Low cost of implementation
d)
Approval from all stakeholders
41.

What is a precision approach?
(5-4-11)

a)
A precision approach is a type of approach to landing that provides lateral and vertical guidance to the pilot, allowing for a more accurate and safe landing in low visibility conditions.
b)
A precision approach is a type of approach that is only used during clear weather conditions.
c)
A precision approach is a type of approach that relies solely on the pilot's instincts and experience for landing.
d)
A precision approach is a type of approach that involves flying close to the ground to get a better view of the landing area.
42.

When will the published decision height be given to a pilot on a precision approach?
(5-4-11)

a)
At the missed approach point (MAP)
b)
At the initial approach fix (IAF)
c)
At the decision level (DL)
d)

When the pilot requests it

43.

What is a surveillance approach?
(5-4-11)

a)
A surveillance approach is a random and haphazard way of monitoring and observing a situation or individual.
b)
A surveillance approach involves physical confrontation and aggression to gather information.
c)
A surveillance approach is a passive and indifferent way of monitoring and observing a situation or individual.
d)

An approach where the controller provides navigational guidance in azimuth only. The pilot is given furnished headings to fly to align the aircraft with the extended centerline of the landing runway

44.

Is guidance in elevation possible on an surveillance approach?
(5-4-11)

a)
Yes
b)
Maybe
c)
Sometimes
d)
No
45.

What does a pilot need to do to obtain assistance in a distress or emergency situation?

a)
Ignore the situation and continue flying
b)

Contact the air traffic facility or other agency in whose area of responsibility the aircraft is operating, stating the nature of the difficulty, pilot's intentions and assistance desired

c)
Tweet about the emergency
d)
Send a text message to a friend
46.

What signal is used by pilots in distress situations?

a)

MAYDAY- preferably repeated 3x

b)
SUS
c)
SAS
d)
SIN
47.

What signal is used by pilots in urgency conditions?

a)
Squawk 7500
b)
Mayday Mayday Mayday
c)
Squawk 7700
d)

Pan Pan

48.

(?) communications have absolute priority over all other communications

a)

Distress

b)
Urgent
c)
Critical
d)
Important
49.

The word (?) commands radio silence on the frequency in use.

a)
down
b)
out
c)
up
d)

MAYDAY

50.

(?) communications have priority over all other communications except distress.

a)
Urgency
b)
Critical
c)
Emergency
d)
Important
51.

The word (?) warns other stations not to interfere with the transmissions

a)
unclear
b)

PAN PAN

c)
obscure
d)
ambiguous
52.

What emergency frequencies can be used for distress or urgency communications?

a)
121.5 MHz and 243.0 MHz
b)
149.5 MHz and 211.2 MHz
c)
135.0 MHz and 278.3 MHz
d)
118.0 MHz and 156.8 MHz