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SA Chapter 10

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main focus of Domain 2 in the AWS Certified Solutions Architect Associate Exam as covered in Chapter 10?

a)

Design cost-effective architectures

b)

Design resilient architectures

c)

Design secure applications

d)

Design high-performance databases

2.

Which of the following is a characteristic of resilient architectures as mentioned in Chapter 10?

a)

Design monolithic and tightly coupled architectures

b)

Design scalable and loosely coupled architectures

c)

Design single-point-of-failure architectures

d)

Design architectures that are not fault-tolerant

3.

What is another characteristic of resilient architectures that should be designed according to Chapter 10?

a)

Design architectures that rely on a single data center

b)

Design architectures that cannot scale

c)

Design highly available and/or fault-tolerant architectures

d)

Design architectures with manual recovery processes

4.

What is the definition of resiliency in the context of an application as described in the introduction?

a)

The ability of an application to perform well under high traffic

b)

The ability of an application to avoid failure and recover from it quickly

c)

The ability of an application to handle large amounts of data

d)

The ability of an application to be user-friendly

5.

What does the term 'availability' refer to in the context of this document?

a)

The percentage of time an application is not working

b)

The percentage of time an application is working as expected

c)

The total uptime of an application in hours

d)

The speed at which an application responds to requests

6.

According to the document, AWS resources are expected to be available what percentage of the time?

a)

100 percent of the time

b)

90 percent of the time

c)

99 percent of the time

d)

Not guaranteed to be available 100 percent of the time

7.

What will you learn in this chapter according to the introduction?

a)

How to improve the user interface of AWS applications

b)

How to calculate the cost of AWS resources

c)

How to design an AWS environment to tolerate resource failures and recover from unavoidable failures

d)

How to ensure AWS resources are available 100 percent of the time

8.

What is the annual availability percentage if the application is unavailable for 3 days, 15 hours, and 39 minutes?

a)

99%

b)

99.9%

c)

99.99%

d)

99.999%

9.

How long can an application with 99.999% availability be unavailable during a year?

a)

5 minutes

b)

52 minutes

c)

4 hours, 22 minutes

d)

8 hours, 45 minutes

10.

What is the term used to describe the process of moving an application from the datacenter to the cloud without making any changes to the application's code?

a)

Cloud shifting

b)

Code refactoring

c)

Lift and shift

d)

Application redesigning

11.

Which AWS service can be used for a relational database?

a)

Amazon EC2

b)

Amazon RDS

c)

Amazon ElastiCache

d)

Amazon S3

12.

If an application is designed to run on traditional Linux or Windows servers and requires manual management of database software on an EC2 instance, it is considered a:

a)

Cloud-native application

b)

Traditional application

c)

Lifted and shifted application

d)

Decentralized application

13.

What is the total availability of an application if it is running on a single EC2 instance with an availability of 99.9 percent and using an RDS with an availability of 99.95 percent?

a)

99.85%

b)

99.95%

c)

99.9995%

d)

99.8995%

14.

How much downtime per year would an application likely experience with a total availability of 99.89 percent?

a)

About 36 days

b)

About 14 hours

c)

About 18 hours

d)

About 9 hours

15.

What is the improved availability when using three EC2 instances in different availability zones instead of one, assuming each instance has an availability of 90 percent?

a)

99.9%

b)

99.99%

c)

99.999%

d)

99.9%

16.

If an application uses three EC2 instances each with 99.9 percent availability and an ALB with 99.99 percent availability, what is the combined availability of the application?

a)

99.9999%

b)

99.999%

c)

99.99%

d)

99.9%

17.

What is the availability of an application that uses six EC2 instances with an availability of 99.9 percent each and an ALB with an availability of 99.99 percent?

a)

99.9999%

b)

99.99999%

c)

99.999999%

d)

99.999%

18.

What is the total application availability when you multiply 99.999 percent by the availability of DynamoDB (99.99 percent) and the availability of the ALB (99.99 percent)?

a)

99.977 percent

b)

99.999 percent

c)

99.98 percent

d)

99.95 percent

19.

If you have six instances in one region and replicate this setup in a different region using an ALB and Route 53, what is the starting point for calculating the total availability?

a)

The failure rate of the application in each region

b)

The availability of the ALB

c)

The number of instances in each region

d)

The availability of Route 53

20.

What is the failure rate of the application in each region if the total availability is 99.979%?

a)

0.021%

b)

0.001%

c)

0.02%

d)

0.2%

21.

After calculating the failure rate, what is the next step in finding the total availability?

a)

Multiply the failure rate by itself and subtract from 100%

b)

Add the failure rate to 100%

c)

Divide the failure rate by 100%

d)

Subtract the failure rate from 100%

22.

What is the approximate downtime per year when the total availability is about 99.999 percent?

a)

5 minutes

b)

10 minutes

c)

2 hours

d)

10 hours

23.

Which of the following languages can be used to create a function that runs on AWS Lambda?

a)

C#

b)

Go

c)

Ruby

d)

All of the above

24.

What is the primary benefit of using Lambda functions according to the text?

a)

Lambda functions can resize images.

b)

Lambda functions are useful for performing intermittent tasks without keeping a running EC2 instance.

c)

Lambda functions are billed based on the time the function runs.

d)

Lambda functions trigger the S3 bucket to upload images.

25.

What can be increased upon request to AWS to prevent hitting service limits?

a)

The number of Lambda functions you can create.

b)

The number of EC2 instances you can run simultaneously.

c)

Specific service limits such as network throughput, S3 PUT requests per second, and the number of instances per region.

d)

The availability of EC2 instances.

26.

What is a recommended strategy to maximize availability for an application?

a)

Upgrading to a more powerful instance class.

b)

Hosting a web application, having multiple smaller instances, and spreading them across different availability zones.

c)

Using a single powerful instance to handle all the work.

d)

Avoiding the use of distributed application design.

27.

What is a potential consequence of not distributing the work across multiple resources in a cloud application?

a)

Decreased costs due to lower resource usage.

b)

Improved performance due to centralized processing.

c)

Poor performance and likely instance crashing if too many instances fail.

d)

Easier management of the application due to simplicity.

28.

What is an advantage of using a distributed application design that is mentioned in the text?

a)

It allows for easier debugging of applications.

b)

It can handle increased load without causing service disruption.

c)

It simplifies the architecture of the application.

d)

It reduces the need for CloudWatch Alarms.

29.

What is the purpose of EC2 Auto Scaling?

a)

To automatically configure the instances that it launches

b)

To avoid application failure and recover from it when it happens by managing EC2 instances

c)

To provide a backup service for EC2 instances

d)

To reduce the cost of running EC2 instances

30.

What do both launch configurations and launch templates in EC2 Auto Scaling do?

a)

They define the security group settings for instances

b)

They specify the instance type and AMI for manual provisioning

c)

They define the basic configuration parameters of the instance and any startup scripts

d)

They create a new EC2 instance from scratch

31.

Can you modify a launch configuration after creating it in EC2 Auto Scaling?

a)

Yes, at any time

b)

Yes, but only within the first 24 hours

c)

No, you must create a new launch configuration to change settings

d)

No, but you can modify the launch template instead

32.

What additional capabilities do launch templates have over launch configurations?

a)

They can only be used with EC2 Auto Scaling

b)

They are less versatile and cannot be used for one-off EC2 instances

c)

They are more versatile and can be used for spinning up one-off EC2 instances or even a spot fleet

d)

They do not allow for the customization of settings

33.

What is the purpose of creating a launch template in AWS?

a)

To install and configure a simple web server

b)

To automatically scale the EC2 instances

c)

To monitor the performance of EC2 instances

d)

To reserve EC2 instances for future use

34.

What can you do with versions of a launch template in AWS?

a)

Delete old versions to save storage space

b)

Flip back and forth between versions as needed

c)

Merge multiple versions into a single template

d)

Encrypt versions for security purposes

35.

What instance type is specified in the exercise for the launch template?

a)

t2.large

b)

t2.micro

c)

m5.large

d)

m5.micro

36.

What script is entered in the User Data text field according to the exercise?

a)

A Python automation script

b)

A Bash script to install Apache and create a welcome page

c)

A JavaScript function for user interaction

d)

A PowerShell script for Windows configuration

37.

What is the final step in the exercise after configuring and launching an instance using a launch template?

a)

Scale the instance to handle more traffic

b)

Terminate the instance

c)

Backup the instance for recovery

d)

Upgrade the instance to a larger type

38.

What is the purpose of specifying the minimum and maximum size of an Auto Scaling group?

a)

To ensure the number of healthy instances never goes below or above a certain number

b)

To control the cost of running instances

c)

To distribute traffic evenly across instances

d)

To automate system and instance status checks

39.

If the desired capacity for an Auto Scaling group is not specified, what will Auto Scaling use as the default number of instances to maintain?

a)

The maximum value of the Auto Scaling group

b)

The minimum value of the Auto Scaling group

c)

Zero instances

d)

The number of instances based on the previous usage

40.

What happens if an instance in an Auto Scaling group becomes unhealthy?

a)

Auto Scaling will ignore the instance until it becomes healthy again

b)

Auto Scaling will terminate and replace the unhealthy instance

c)

Auto Scaling will distribute traffic to healthy instances only

d)

Auto Scaling will send an alert to the AWS administrator

41.

What is the group size of an Auto Scaling group if the minimum is set to 1, the maximum to 10, and the desired capacity to 4, and one instance becomes terminated?

a)

The group size will remain at 3

b)

The group size will decrease to 0

c)

The group size will increase back to 4

d)

The group size will stay at 10

42.

What will happen when a new instance is created by Auto Scaling and an Application Load Balancer (ALB) target group is specified?

a)

The new instance will be terminated immediately

b)

The new instance will be added to the specified ALB target group automatically

c)

The new instance will be isolated from the ALB target group

d)

The new instance will require manual addition to the ALB target group

43.

What HTTP response codes range is used by a load balancer's target group health checks to determine if an instance is healthy?

a)

100 to 199

b)

200 to 299

c)

200 to 499

d)

500 to 599

44.

What happens when an instance fails the load balancer health check?

a)

The instance is rebooted.

b)

Traffic is routed away from the failed instance, and it is replaced.

c)

The instance is isolated for further investigation.

d)

The load balancer shuts down.

45.

What is a good design practice mentioned for recovery actions in resilient architectures?

a)

To have a separate recovery action for each possible cause of failure.

b)

To have a complex set of recovery actions for different scenarios.

c)

To have a few recovery actions that work for a variety of circumstances.

d)

To ignore minor failures and focus only on major ones.

46.

What does Auto Scaling do when you change the minimum, desired, or maximum values for a group?

a)

It sends a notification to the administrator.

b)

It ignores the changes until the next scheduled maintenance.

c)

It automatically adjusts by adding or terminating instances.

d)

It requires manual intervention to apply the changes.

47.

What can running out of instance resources such as CPU utilization, memory, or disk space lead to?

a)

Temporary performance degradation

b)

Automatic resource scaling

c)

Failure of whatever you're running on it

d)

An automatic backup of data

48.

What does Auto Scaling do before instances hit the point of being overburdened?

a)

It removes some instances to balance the load.

b)

It automatically provisions more instances.

c)

It sends a notification to the administrator.

d)

It shuts down the system to prevent damage.

49.

Which of the following is NOT an aggregate metric generated by Auto Scaling?

a)

Aggregate CPU utilization

b)

Average request count per target

c)

Total memory usage

d)

Average network bytes in

50.

What are the three dynamic scaling policies available in Auto Scaling?

a)

Simple, Step, and Target Tracking

b)

Basic, Advanced, and Custom

c)

Immediate, Delayed, and Scheduled

d)

Linear, Exponential, and Logarithmic

51.

What happens when a ChangeInCapacity adjustment type is chosen and the current desired capacity is 4 with an increase of 2?

a)

The desired capacity decreases to 2.

b)

The desired capacity remains the same.

c)

The desired capacity increases to 6.

d)

The desired capacity increases to 8.

52.

What is the default cooldown period in Auto Scaling after it completes an adjustment?

a)

120 seconds

b)

300 seconds

c)

600 seconds

d)

900 seconds

53.

If a PercentChangeInCapacity adjustment is set to 50 percent and the current desired capacity is 4, what will the new desired capacity be after the adjustment?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

54.

What action does Auto Scaling take if an instance is unhealthy during the cooldown period after an adjustment?

a)

It waits for the cooldown period before replacing the unhealthy instance.

b)

It immediately replaces the unhealthy instance.

c)

It increases the cooldown period.

d)

It does nothing until the cooldown period ends.

55.

What type of policy allows you to add instances based on how much the aggregate metric exceeds the threshold?

a)

Simple scaling policy

b)

Step scaling policy

c)

Target tracking policy

d)

Aggregate tracking policy

56.

When using a step scaling policy, what is the default warm-up time for Auto Scaling to consider the metrics of newly added instances?

a)

60 seconds

b)

300 seconds

c)

600 seconds

d)

No warm-up time

57.

If the average CPU utilization increases to 62 percent and the ChangeInCapacity adjustment is set to 4, what action will Auto Scaling execute given a lower bound of 60 and an upper bound of infinity?

a)

No action will be taken.

b)

Decrease the desired capacity by 4.

c)

Increase the desired capacity by 4.

d)

Reset the CPU utilization to 60 percent.

58.

What happens if the metric falls within the lower bound of the second step in a step scaling policy?

a)

Auto Scaling will decrease the desired capacity.

b)

Auto Scaling will increase the desired capacity.

c)

Auto Scaling will execute the first step adjustment.

d)

No action will be taken by Auto Scaling.

59.

Which of the following is NOT a component of a step adjustment in a step scaling policy?

a)

A lower bound

b)

The adjustment type

c)

A cooldown period

d)

The amount by which to increase the desired capacity

60.

What must the metric you choose to adjust the number of instances in Auto Scaling change proportionally to?

a)

The time of day

b)

The instance load

c)

The number of users online

d)

The static value set by the user

61.

Which of the following is NOT an appropriate use for aggregate metrics like the total request count for the ALB when using a target tracking policy?

a)

Scaling out

b)

Scaling in by deleting instances

c)

Adjusting to the load on an individual instance

d)

Keeping the metric near the target

62.

When creating a scheduled action for Auto Scaling, which of the following do you NOT need to specify?

a)

A start date and time

b)

A minimum, maximum, or desired capacity value

c)

The color of the instances

d)

A recurrence pattern

63.

What can you optionally set in a scheduled action to ensure that you have enough instances before demand hits?

a)

A warm-up time

b)

A cool-down period

c)

A maximum cost limit

d)

A specific user request rate

64.

What is the purpose of setting a scheduled action in Auto Scaling?

a)

To adjust capacity reactively after demand has occurred

b)

To adjust capacity proactively, ensuring enough instances before demand hits

c)

To permanently set the number of instances to a fixed number

d)

To disable scaling in completely

65.

What is the purpose of creating a weekly recurring policy to set the desired capacity to 4 every Friday?

a)

To decrease the desired capacity due to lower expected traffic

b)

To handle an expected spike in traffic on Fridays

c)

To comply with regulatory requirements

d)

To perform routine maintenance on the system

66.

Which AWS service is mentioned as offering different data storage options to ensure the durability of your data?

a)

Amazon EC2

b)

Amazon S3

c)

Amazon RDS

d)

Amazon VPC

67.

According to the text, what should you do to avoid data loss from the failure of a single availability zone?

a)

Use One Zone-Infrequent Access storage class exclusively

b)

Store all data in a single, highly durable storage class

c)

Distribute objects across multiple availability zones

d)

Rely solely on dynamic scaling policies for data protection

68.

What is the start date for the scheduled action setting the desired capacity to 4 every Friday?

a)

January 4, 2019

b)

January 5, 2019

c)

The first Friday after creating the action

d)

The first Saturday after creating the action

69.

What is the recurrence interval for the scheduled action in the example provided?

a)

Every day

b)

Every week

c)

Once a month

d)

Once a year

70.

What is the purpose of enabling S3 versioning in AWS?

a)

To delete objects more efficiently

b)

To prevent data corruption and accidental deletion

c)

To increase the storage capacity of S3

d)

To replicate objects across multiple regions

71.

What does AWS Elastic File System (EFS) provide?

a)

A managed Relational Database Service

b)

A managed Network File System that can be shared among EC2 instances

c)

A service for monitoring application logs

d)

A data lifecycle management system

72.

What is the benefit of cross-region replication between S3 buckets?

a)

It decreases the cost of storage

b)

It allows for data analysis

c)

It synchronously copies every object from the source bucket to the destination

d)

It automatically deletes old versions of objects

73.

How does AWS Elastic Block Storage (EBS) handle availability zone failures?

a)

By deleting snapshots in affected zones

b)

By replicating volumes across multiple availability zones

c)

By creating log files for instances

d)

By using a Data Lifecycle Manager for databases

74.

What is one of the easiest ways to back up an EBS volume?

a)

Enabling S3 versioning

b)

Taking a snapshot of it

c)

Implementing cross-region replication

d)

Using CloudWatch Logs

75.

What does the Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager allow you to do with EBS snapshots?

a)

Increase the storage capacity of snapshots

b)

Collect and store application logs

c)

Create a Snapshot Lifecycle Policy and specify snapshot creation intervals and retention numbers

d)

Replicate snapshots across different AWS accounts

76.

What important piece of data often gets stored on EBS that is crucial for troubleshooting?

a)

Network configurations

b)

Application log files

c)

Snapshot lifecycle policies

d)

Versioning records

77.

What does Amazon RDS replicate for additional resiliency?

a)

It replicates data synchronously from the primary to a secondary instance in a different availability zone.

b)

It replicates data asynchronously to an S3 bucket.

c)

It replicates data to a standby RDS instance in the same availability zone.

d)

It replicates data to DynamoDB tables for backup purposes.

78.

What is the unique offering of Amazon Aurora compared to other RDS engines?

a)

It allows you to provision additional IP addresses.

b)

It stores your database across three different availability zones.

c)

It provides automatic failover to one of the Aurora replicas.

d)

It offers point-in-time recovery for database tables.

79.

How long can you restore your DynamoDB tables to any point in time using point-in-time recovery?

a)

From 24 hours until 1 minute before the current time.

b)

From 35 days until 5 minutes before the current time.

c)

From 30 days until 1 hour before the current time.

d)

From 7 days until 10 minutes before the current time.

80.

When designing a VPC, why is it important to leave enough unused address space within the CIDR?

a)

To allow for the creation of additional subnets later.

b)

To ensure data is replicated across availability zones.

c)

To provide space for DynamoDB global tables.

d)

To store backups of database instances.

81.

What is one reason AWS might add additional availability zones to a region?

a)

To reduce the cost of services.

b)

To provide additional IP addresses for new resources.

c)

To increase the storage capacity for Amazon S3.

d)

To improve network resiliency and scalability.

82.

What is the design principle often used by application developers to make their applications more scalable and reliable according to the text?

a)

Strong binding

b)

Tight integration

c)

Loose coupling

d)

Direct linking

83.

According to the text, what might be a reason to leave room in your availability zone planning?

a)

To accommodate future network issues

b)

To allow for additional EC2 instances as demand grows

c)

To ensure faster data transfer speeds

d)

To prevent overlapping of VPC addresses

84.

What should you take into account if your EC2 instances have multiple private IP addresses?

a)

The cost of additional IP addresses

b)

The speed of the network connection

c)

The consumption of IP address space

d)

The type of microservices used

85.

What is a potential benefit of using Direct Connect as a primary connection to AWS?

a)

It provides speeds of 1 or 10 Gbps with consistent latency

b)

It allows for unlimited data storage

c)

It automatically resolves network issues

d)

It offers free IP address allocation

86.

What term does SQS use to describe the component that places messages into the queue?

a)

Consumer

b)

Receiver

c)

Producer

d)

Messenger

87.

What is the maximum size of a message that can be placed in an SQS queue?

a)

64 KB

b)

128 KB

c)

256 KB

d)

512 KB

88.

What action does a consumer perform to read messages from an SQS queue?

a)

SendMessage

b)

DeleteMessage

c)

ReceiveMessage

d)

CheckMessage

89.

What is the purpose of the visibility timeout in SQS?

a)

To limit the number of messages sent to the queue

b)

To prevent duplication of effort by other consumers processing the same message

c)

To delete messages after they have been processed

d)

To batch messages for processing

90.

What is the default visibility timeout in SQS?

a)

0 seconds

b)

12 hours

c)

30 seconds

d)

1 hour

91.

What is the default retention period for messages in a queue according to the Simple Queue Service?

a)

1 minute

b)

14 days

c)

4 days

d)

15 minutes

92.

What is the maximum duration you can set for a delay for individual messages in a queue?

a)

0 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

15 minutes

d)

14 days

93.

Which type of queue is the default queue type in Simple Queue Service?

a)

FIFO Queue

b)

Standard Queue

c)

Delay Queue

d)

Message Timer Queue

94.

How many in-flight messages can standard queues handle?

a)

3,000 messages

b)

120,000 messages

c)

20,000 messages

d)

Unlimited messages

95.

What is a unique feature of FIFO queues compared to standard queues?

a)

They can handle up to about 120,000 in-flight messages.

b)

They deliver messages exactly once and in the order they were received.

c)

They allow messages to be delivered out-of-order.

d)

They are the default queue type.

96.

What is the purpose of using message groups in FIFO queues?

a)

To increase the number of in-flight messages

b)

To allow messages to be delivered out-of-order

c)

To maintain message ordering within a subset of messages

d)

To reduce the retention period of messages

97.

What is the default polling method when receiving messages from a queue?

a)

Long polling

b)

Short polling

c)

No polling

d)

Delayed polling

98.

What is the maximum amount of time long polling can take to check all the servers servicing your queue?

a)

5 seconds

b)

10 seconds

c)

20 seconds

d)

30 seconds