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Worksheets

MEGA GIANT QUIZIZZ OF 8TH GRADE SCIENCE

Total questions: 492

Worksheet time: 9hrs 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which process and type of resulting cell are represented in the diagram?

a)

Mitosis, which produces sex cells

b)

Meiosis, which produces sex cells

c)

Mitosis, which produces body cells

d)

Meiosis, which produces body cells

2.

Which of the following cell types is formed by meiosis?

a)

muscles cells

b)

sperm cells

c)

skin cells

d)

blood cells

3.

What process is necessary for the inherited traits of an organism to be passed along by sexual reproduction?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

c)

mutation

d)

fission

4.

Which of the following statements correctly describes meiosis?

a)

The cells produced at the end of meiosis are genetically identical to the parent cell.

b)

The cells produced at the end of meiosis contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

5.

Which of the following best describes meiosis?

a)

It is carried in all tissues that require cell replacement.

b)

It occurs only in cells in the reproductive structure of the organism.

6.

If an intestinal cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg cell would contain

a)

3 chromosomes

b)

6 chromosomes

c)

12 chromosomes

d)

24 chromosomes

7.

A scientist conducted a study of an organism and found that its body cells contained 40 chromosomes. These cells were cultured in the laboratory, and cell division was observed. What difference, if any, would a scientist expect to observe between body cell division and sex cell division in the organism?

a)

Body cells divide by mitosis, and sex cells divide by meiosis.

b)

Body cells divide by meiosis, and sex cells divide by mitosis.

8.

What is one advantage of sexual reproduction?

a)

The offspring are identical to the parents.

b)

All the offspring are resistant to viruses.

c)

All the offspring are live birth with no eggs.

d)

The offspring inherit a wider variety of genetic information.

9.

A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many chromosomes would be present in a normal body cell of s shark?

a)

20

b)

40

c)

80

d)

160

10.

Gametes, or sex cells, would be...

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

11.

Your skin cells would be...

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

12.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth’s layers?

a)

crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

b)

mantle, outer core, inner core, crust

c)

crust, mantle, outer core, inner core

d)

outer core, inner core, crust, mantle

13.

In sea-floor spreading, molten material rises from the mantle and erupts

a)

along the edges of all the continents.

b)

along mid-ocean ridges.

c)

in deep-ocean trenches.

d)

at the north and south poles.

14.

The process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle is known as _______

a)

convection.

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction.

d)

conduction.

15.

Most geologists think that the movement of Earth’s plates is caused by _______

a)

convection.

b)

continental drift.

c)

subduction.

d)

conduction.

16.

The geological theory of _______ states that pieces of Earth’s lithosphere are in constant, slow motion.

a)

subduction

b)

plate tectonics

c)

deep-ocean trenches

d)

sea-floor spreading

17.

A place where two plates slip past each other, moving in opposite directions, is known as a _______

a)

transform boundary

b)

divergent boundary.

c)

convergent boundary.

d)

rift valley.

18.

Scientists think that convection currents flow in Earth’s

a)

continents.

b)

mantle.

c)

lithosphere.

d)

inner core.

19.

The place where two plates come together is known as a _______

a)

transform boundary.

b)

divergent boundary.

c)

convergent boundary.

d)

rift valley.

20.

Below is a picture of sea-floor spreading. How are the ocean crusts moving?

a)

Converging

b)

Diverging

c)

Sliding

d)

No movement

21.

The San Andreas Fault in California is known as an active earthquake area. What type of

boundary is it?

a)

Converging

b)

Diverging

c)

Transform

d)

Sea Floor Spreading

22.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
N
d)
O
23.
How is it possible for new crust to be formed without increasing the surface area of the Earth?
a)
Crust is destroyed at the same time it is created
b)
New crust is underwater where it sinks
c)
New crust breaks more easily than old crust
24.
This layer of Earth is the thickest part
a)
crust
b)
outer core
c)
mantle
d)
inner core
25.
What are the two types of crust
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and upper
c)
lower and upper
d)
pizza and subway
26.
The Himalayas in Asia are an example of what type of plate boundary?
a)
divergent
b)
continent-to-continent convergent
c)
ocean-to-continent convergent
d)
transform
27.
What type of boundary is the SAN ANDREAS FAULT on?
a)
Covergent
b)
Transformers
c)
Divergent
d)
Transform
28.
What are Tectonic Plates?
a)
A continent 
b)
The Trees in Vietnam 
c)
ThE PlaTES That MoVE uNdERGRound :)
d)
The Plates that move the Continents
29.
What is Pangaea?
a)
the name of a German scientist
b)
the name of the super-continent that existed millions of years ago
c)
another name for continental drift
d)
the name of an ancient fossil
30.
What are the two types of crust?
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and basin
c)
lower and upper
d)
thick and thin
31.
Mountains form from ...
a)
plates sliding past one another
b)
collision of plates
c)
plates moving away from each other
32.

The supercontinent that broke up during the Mesozoic Era

a)

Pangaea

b)

North America

c)

Eurasia

d)

Antarctica

33.

The theory proposed by Alfred Wegener that the continents have moved over time

a)

Plate Tectonics

b)

Continental Drift

c)

Seafloor Spreading

34.

The reason why other scientists rejected Alfred Wegener's ideas

a)

He was not a geologist

b)

He had too much evidence to support his theory

c)

He could not prove how the continents moved

35.

The reason why there are the same fossils found on different continents in the same rock layers.

a)

The continents were once connected

b)

The continents have always been separated

36.

What evidence did Alfred Wegener used to support his theory of continental drift (choose all that apply)

a)

fossil evidence

b)

glacier scratches

c)

coal deposits

d)

rock layers in mountain ranges

37.

The top layer of the earth that floats above the mantle

a)

Crust or Lithosphere

b)

Mantle or Asthenosphere

38.

The layer below the crust where convection currents cause magma to flow

a)

Crust or Lithosphere

b)

Mantle or Asthenosphere

39.

Causes the tectonic plates to move

a)

Energy from the sun

b)

Convection currents in the mantle

40.

Harry Hess discovered rocks at the mid-ocean ridge are younger or older

a)

older

b)

younger

41.

Harry Hess discovered the Atlantic Ocean was separating by analyzing sonar. What was the name of Harry Hess' theory?

a)

Contiental Drift

b)

Seafloor Spreading

42.

A boundary where two plates collide and make mountains

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

43.

When two plates collide and the denser plate sinks, causing volcanoes and mountains.

a)

divergent

b)

transform

c)

subduction

44.

A mid-ocean ridge or a rift valley is where plates separate.  This is a ______ boundary

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

45.

A plate boundary where two plates slide past each other like the San Andreas fault in California

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

46.

If oceanic crust and continental crust collided, which plate would subduct and why?

a)

continental, it is less dense

b)

oceanic, it is more dense

47.

Most volcanoes and earthquakes are located where in the world?

a)

Around the Atlantic Ocean

b)

Around the Pacific Ocean (Ring of Fire)

c)

Around the Indian Ocean

48.

Most deaths in earthquakes are because of...

a)

Faults opening up and swallowing people

b)

Buildings collapsing

c)

Floods and Wildfires

49.

A tool used to measure the intensity of earthquakes

a)

seismograph

b)

doppler radar

c)

rain gauge

d)

forecast model

50.

The state that has the most earthquakes...

a)

Florida

b)

Mississippi

c)

California

d)

Texas

51.

If an earthquake happens underwater it can cause a...

a)

high tide

b)

tsunami

c)

hurricane

d)

tornado

52.

Which tool would be best for predicting and monitoring tornadoes?

a)

doppler radar, it can take images of storms

b)

rain gauge, it collects rainwater from the storm

c)

seismograph, it shows if the ground is shaking

d)

tornado siren, it makes a sound to warn people about tornadoes

53.

A method of protecting your property from wildfires...

a)

FEMA flood maps

b)

Firewise construction

c)

Enhanced Fujita (EF Scale)

d)

Richter Scale

54.

What tools could be used to predict a flood in the future?

a)

Pictures from previous homeowners' houses that flooded

b)

Weather forecasts showing precipitation totals

c)

A study of hydrology (where water flows)

d)

A FEMA flood map

55.

The state that has the most hurricanes...

a)

Tennessee

b)

California

c)

Colorado

d)

Florida

56.

Which two regions in the United States have the most tornadoes?

a)

The Great Plains

b)

The West Coast

c)

The Southeast

d)

The Northeast

57.

"The process of breaking rocks down into small pieces of rocks or fragments"

a)

Erosion

b)

Weathering

c)

Deposition

d)

Soil

58.

"Weathering that changes the materials that are part of a rock into new materials"

a)

Mechanical Weathering

b)

Weathering

c)

Chemical Weathering

d)

All Weathering

59.

"Weathering that includes physical processes that break rocks into smaller pieces"

a)

Mechanical Weathering

b)

Chemical Weathering

c)

All Weathering

d)

Weather

60.

Which is an example of mechanical weathering (choose 2)

a)

Tree roots breaking up a sidewalk

b)

Rust on a bicycle left outside

c)

Oxygen combining with other molecules

d)

Ice freezing and breaking up rock

61.

What are the examples of chemical weathering? (choose 2)

a)

Rust on a bicycle left outside

b)

Ice freezing and breaking up rock

c)

Oxygen combining with other molecules

d)

Tree roots breaking up a sidewalk

62.

All objects experience weathering at the same rate.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

All living or once living matter is considered organic matter.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

R stands for which soil horizon?

a)

Regolith

b)

Bedrock

c)

Parent Material

d)

Organic Matter

65.

What is this picture depicting?

a)

Soil Horizons

b)

Soil Color

c)

How cool this knife is

d)

Dirt

66.

Which soil has the largest size?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

67.

Which soil particle is the smallest?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

68.

Which has a balance of all types of sediments?

a)

sand

b)

silt

c)

clay

d)

loam

69.

A rock that forms from magma or lava cooling

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

70.

A rock that forms from heat and pressure

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

71.

A rock that forms from sediments compacting and cementing together. The most common type of rock to have fossils.

a)

igneous

b)

sedimentary

c)

metamorphic

72.

To move sediments from one place to another...

a)

weathering

b)

erosion

73.

The laying down of sediments carried by wind, water, and erosion.

a)

erosion

b)

deposition

74.

Fossils are most common in...

a)

igneous rock

b)

metamorphic rock

c)

sedimentary rock

75.

Watersheds, tributaries, rivers, lakes, would be examples of...

a)

surface water

b)

groundwater

76.

What is an aquifer?

a)

a permeable layer of rock that holds water underground

b)

an area that drains water into a river

77.

What is a watershed?

a)

an area of permeable rock that holds water underground

b)

an area of land that drains water into a river

78.

What does permeable/infiltrate mean?

a)

The space between soil particles

b)

The ability for water to flow through sediments

79.

What is the water table?

a)

The boundary between a lake and the atmosphere

b)

The boundary between saturated and unsaturated rock layers

80.

What would happen to the water table during a drought?

a)

It was raise up above the ground

b)

It would lower below the ground

81.

What is a tributary?

a)

a small river flowing into a bigger river

b)

a lake that stores water

82.

Mountains pushing up, sediments depositing in layers, a volcano making a new island would be...

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

83.

A river weathering and eroding into a deep canyon would be...

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

84.

Forces that build up earth's surface are...

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

85.

Forces that break down Earth's surface are...

a)

constructive

b)

destructive

86.

A human body (somatic) cell usually has how many chromosomes?

a)

6

b)

22

c)

4

d)

46

87.

If the diploid number of carrots is 18, the haploid number is

a)

18

b)

9

c)

27

d)

36

88.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
89.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
90.

The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.

a)

heterozygous

b)

haploid

c)

homologous

d)

diploid

91.
What process, and which type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
92.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
93.
How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
94.

At the end of mitosis you have _____ cells.

a)

identical

b)

different

c)

identical twins

d)

variety

95.

The products of meiosis are genetically...

a)

different.

b)

identical.

96.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
97.

How many daughter cells are produced from mitosis?

a)

10

b)

6

c)

4

d)

2

98.

Identify a purpose of mitosis. Select all that apply.

a)

Produce gametes for reproduction.

b)

Repair damaged or dead cells.

c)

Reduce the chromosome number.

d)

Growth of organisms from birth to adulthood.

99.

Identify a purpose of meiosis. Select all that apply.

a)

Produce gametes for reproduction.

b)

Repair damaged or dead cells.

c)

Reduce the chromosome number.

d)

Growth of organisms from birth to adulthood.

100.

What are homologous chromosomes?

a)

Pairs of chromosomes with different genes on each.

b)

Pairs of chromosomes with the same genes on each.

c)

Pairs of chromosomes with no genes.

d)

Pairs of chromosomes with the wrong genes on each.

101.

In meiosis, the cells divide ____ times to produce 4 haploid gametes.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

102.

Which image is meiosis?

a)
b)
103.

Which image is mitosis?

a)
b)
104.

The _____________ the human population, the ______________ the amount of resources being used.

a)

greater, greater

b)

greater, least

c)

least, greater

105.

Which of the following is a benefit of recycling aluminum soda cans?

a)

The world's aluminum resources can last longer.

b)

The world's aluminum is used up more rapidly.

c)

More aluminum ends up in landfills.

d)

More soda cans need to be produced.

106.

The main human activity that releases greenhouse gases is

a)

using bottled water

b)

burning fossil fuels

c)

growing plants

d)

dumping waste

107.

The pie chart shows percentages of carbon dioxide (CO2 ) emissions by sector. The greatest reduction in carbon dioxide emissions could be achieved if it were possible to reduce, by half, which source of emissions?

a)

Agriculture

b)

Electricity

c)

Commercial & Residential

d)

Industry

108.

True/False: Overpopulation in humans is the cause of most environmental issues.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

Releasing harmful substances into land, water and/or atmosphere is known as what?

a)

natural gas

b)

trash

c)

pollution

d)

global warming

110.

How much of deforestation comes from agriculture and cattle ranching?

a)

90%

b)

50%

c)

65%

d)

80%

111.

Global warming is an increase in Earth's global temperature caused by carbon dioxide emissions and deforestation. What are some possible solutions?

a)

Use renewable energy

b)

Use fossil fuels

c)

Practice the 3R's: reuse, reduce, recycle

d)

Carpool

e)

Cut more trees

112.

Invasive species is an organism that is transferred to a non-native habitat. How does this human impact effect the environment? Choose all that applies.

a)

Habitat destruction

b)

Helpful to the environment

c)

Economic cost

d)

Introduces new species to unpopulated habitats

113.

Rising CO2 levels has lead to a rise in average global temperatures. Based on this information, how is CO2 impacting the sea levels?

a)

Sea levels rise as arctic ice melts

b)

Sea levels lower as ice forms at the poles

c)

Sea levels move in a cycle due to CO2 levels

d)

Sea levels are not impacted by CO2

114.

It is estimated that half of the 10 million species of organisms on the planet live in the tropical rain forests. Deforestation of the rain forest causes the extinction of as many as 50,000 species per year. Clearing tropical rain forests causes the extinction of many species because

a)

plants and animals are exposed to high levels of carbon dioxide.

b)

pollution caused by humans increases the greenhouse effect.

c)

many unique habitats and ecosystems are being completely destroyed.

d)

destruction of the rainforest contributes to the depletion of the ozone.

115.

When will the human population become too large to be supported by Earth?

a)

When the number of people exceeds the planet's carrying capacity.

b)

When people have used up all the fossil fuels that provide energy.

c)

When the number of people reaches ten billion.

d)

When people can no longer buy luxury items.

116.
Anything from nature that living things use is called a ______________.
a)
energy
b)
pollution
c)
food
d)
natural resource
117.

Natural resources are divided into two groups. Which choice best names these groups?

a)

renewable and nonrenewable

b)

fossil fuels and solar

c)

hydroelectric and geothermal

d)

wind and nuclear

118.

Fossil fuels are the largest emitters of what?

a)

methane gas

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

natural gas

d)

pollution

119.

What are two examples of a negative impact?

a)

littering

b)

planting trees

c)

recycle

d)

deforestation

e)

ocean project

120.

What does non-renewable mean?

a)

Something that lasts forever

b)

Something that can be renewed

c)

Something that cannot be replaced quickly

121.

Which greenhouse gas is produced most by the automobile industry?

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Sulfur

c)

Methane

d)

Carbon Dioxide

122.

What type of impact is the following: Dumping old tires in an unmanaged forest.

a)

Positive Impact

b)

Negative Impact

c)

Trade-Off

123.

What type of impact is the following: Filtering plastics out of the ocean.

a)

Positive Impact

b)

Negative Impact

c)

Trade-Off

124.

What type of impact is the following: Farming animals for food.

a)

Positive Impact

b)

Negative Impact

c)

Trade-Off

125.

The formation of fossil fuels takes

a)

millions of years

b)

a few days

c)

about the same amount of time as an average human lives

d)

place in factories

126.

Why are fossil fuels a sought after energy source?

a)

They are hard to find

b)

They are renewable

c)

They have a high energy density

d)

They are man made energy

127.

The map below shows the amount of oil found in different countries around the globe. The darker the country, the more oil found in that country. According to the map, which of the following regions has the largest oil reserves?

a)

Australia

b)

Europe

c)

India

d)

Canada

128.

____________ are smaller streams that feed into rivers, forming river systems.

a)

tributaries

b)

mouths

c)

sources

d)

ponds

129.

A _________ or discharge is the volume of water that flows down the stream within a given time

a)

stream’s flow

b)

stream’s flip

c)

stream’s flop

d)

stream’s fizzle

130.

The steeper the ___________ of a stream, the faster the water will travel.

a)

gradient

b)

slope

c)

altitude

d)

depth

131.

Rivers transport _______________________.

a)

sediment and dissolved materials

b)

gas and heat

c)

ice and plasma

d)

gas and undissolved materials

132.

A ___________ is the land a river system drains.

a)

watershed

b)

farm

c)

mountain

d)

valley

133.

Humans use water for ___________________________

a)

recreation

b)

transportation

c)

industry

d)

irrigation

134.

______________ is water that is under Earth’s surface, in spaces in rocks, or in soil.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Surface water

c)

wet water

d)

subwater

135.

A ______________ is the top of the saturated area within soil.

a)

water table

b)

wet section

c)

clouds

d)

ocean

136.

An _________ is a rock layer that stores groundwater.

a)

aquifer

b)

aquifor

c)

aquefer

d)

waquifer

137.

__________ is the percentage of rock composed of pore spaces

a)

Porosity

b)

Wetness

c)

Drip

d)

Solidity

138.

____________ measures how easily groundwater flows through an aquifer.

a)

Permeability

b)

Runniness

c)

Wetness

d)

Dampness

139.

Water that collects on the ground or in a body of water is called _________ _______

a)

surface water

b)

groundwater

c)

still water

d)

rain water

140.
What is the source of groundwater?
a)
rain, snow, melted glaciers
b)
ocean water
c)
icebergs
d)
water from fossilized animals
141.
An underground layer of permeable rock that holds groundwater which can be extracted by drilling a well.
a)
water table
b)
aquifer
c)
watershed
d)
river
142.
The area of an aquifer in which rock pores are completely filled with water.
a)
water table
b)
watershed
c)
zone of saturation
d)
surface water
143.
How do people extract groundwater?
a)
groundwater cannot be extracted
b)
by drilling wells and pumping water out of the ground
c)
mining water from the Earth
d)
answer not shown
144.
Groundwater contamination…
a)
is easily cleaned up
b)
is difficult to clean or remove
c)
is not a problem for modern people
d)
does not affect the United States
145.
The area of an aquifer in which rock pores are completely filled with water.
a)
water table
b)
watershed
c)
zone of saturation
d)
surface water
146.
How do glaciers erode land?
a)
By picking up soil and rocks and depositing them in new location
b)
By picking up water from lakes and streams and carrying it to the ocean
c)
By causing rain and snow in an area
d)
By lowering the atmospheric pressure, causing intense windstorms
147.
A _____ is a mass of ice that moves downhill due to its weight.
a)
glacier
b)
erratic
c)
fjiord
d)
moraine
148.
_____ is the unsorted material that is deposited directly by ice.
a)
Outwash
b)
Till
c)
Erratic
d)
Esker
149.
Who is the person credited with developing the theory of continental drift?
a)
Harry Hess
b)
Galileo
c)
Alfred Wegener
d)
Newton
150.
What is this a picture of?
a)
plate tectonics
b)
continental drift
c)
pangea
d)
glacier scaring
151.
What does the theory of continental drift state?
a)
The continents were once joined in a super-continent and have moved over time
b)
Continents are stationary and do not move
c)
The Earth is broken into lithospheric plates that move due to convection currents
d)
none of the above
152.
What evidence did Wegener use in his theory?
a)
Continents and fossils fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces 
b)
glacier scars and evidence from temperature
c)
mountain ranges and coal deposits line up across continents
d)
all of the above
153.
Why did no one believe Wegener's thoery?
a)
He could not explain HOW the continents moved
b)
He didn't have evidence
c)
His data was wrong
d)
He didn't use the right technology to gather data
154.
What two specific continents fit together most noticeably?
a)
Africa and North America
b)
South America and Europe
c)
South America and Africa
d)
Antartica and Africa
155.
How long ago is Pangea believed to have existed?
a)
200-300 million years ago
b)
1000-2000 years ago
c)
10,000-20,000 years ago
d)
20-30 billion years ago
156.
What does the word Pangea mean?
a)
big land mass
b)
old land
c)
all land
157.
How does evidence of glaciation in Africa support the Theory of Continental Drift?
a)
It shows that the continents must have been in a different location.
b)
It doesn't. 
c)
I shows that it was colder at the equator in the past.
d)
It shows that it was warmer at the equator in the past.
158.
What are the two types of crust?
a)
continental and oceanic
b)
ocean and basin
c)
lower and upper
d)
thick and thin
159.
What is Pangaea?
a)
the name of a German scientist
b)
the name of the super-continent that existed millions of years ago
c)
another name for continental drift
d)
the name of an ancient fossil
160.
What type of evidence was NOT used by Alfred Wegener to support his continental drift hypothesis?
a)
evidence from landforms
b)
evidence from fossils
c)
evidence from human remains
d)
evidence from climate
161.
The Geologic Time Scale is a record of what?
a)
old geologists
b)
sweet geology music
c)
the known history of rocks and fossils
d)
a list of every living thing ever
162.
The Law of Superposition helps scientists to determine what?
a)
The absolute age of rock layers
b)
The age of fossils
c)
The relative age of rock layers
d)
the super powers of rocks
163.
What type of rock do fossils form in?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Metamorphic
d)
Classic
164.
According to the law of superposition, which layer is the youngest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
165.
Why is the fossil record incomplete?
a)
fossils get eroded away over time
b)
most organisms never became fossils
c)
scavengers and decomposers eat them too quickly
d)
all of the above
166.
Paleozoic, Mesozoic & Cenozoic are all
a)
Epochs
b)
Eras
c)
Periods
d)
Eons
167.

Which is the most recent ERA of time- the one that we are currently in?

a)

Mesozoic

b)

Paleozoic

c)

Cenozoic

d)

Precambrian

168.
The dinosaurs and reptiles were dominant in which Era?
a)
Precambrian
b)
Mesozoic
c)
Paleozoic
d)
Cenozoic
169.
Known as the age of the mammals?
a)
Mesozoic Era
b)
Holocene Epoch
c)
Cenozoic Era
d)
Cambrian
170.
The disappearance of a species.
a)
Evolution
b)
Extinction
c)
Migration
d)
Mutation
171.

Which species adapted to the new climate after the mesozoic (cretaceous-paleogene) mass extinction?

a)

only birds

b)

insects

c)

birds and mammals

d)

only mammals

172.

Which is longer? A period or an era?

a)

period

b)

era

173.

What were dinosaurs like during the triassic?

a)

small

b)

large

174.

Why were mammals and birds successful after the mesozoic (cretaceous-paleogene) mass extinction event?

a)

They were warm blooded.

b)

They were cold blooded.

c)

They had feathers.

d)

They had fur.

175.

What is the current EON?

a)

phanerozoic

b)

cenozoic

c)

paleozoic

d)

mesozoic

176.
Which type of rock results from melting and cooling of magma?
a)
Igneous
b)
Metamorphic
c)
Sedimentary
d)
Extrusive
177.
Which type of rock forms from extreme heat and pressure?
a)
Igneous
b)
Sedimentary
c)
Organic
d)
Metamorphic
178.
Wind, water, and ice breaking down rock is called
a)
Erosion
b)
Deposition
c)
Compaction
d)
Weathering
179.
What is the MAIN way rocks are classified?
a)
Their color and shapes
b)
How they form
c)
Mineral bands
d)
Where they form
180.
True/False: Igneous rocks can only turn into metamorphic rocks.
a)
True
b)
False
181.
The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.
a)
compaction
b)
deposition
c)
organic rock
d)
cementation
182.
When sediments are pressed together tightly, this is called ____________.
a)
Compaction
b)
Cementation
c)
Weathering
d)
Erosion
183.
This rock was formed by smaller pieces of rock that settled at the bottom of a lake millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
184.
What are the 3 major types of rocks?
a)
Igneous, Metamorphic, Sedimentary
b)
Metamorphic, Igneous, Cementation
c)
Brown, Red, Gray
d)
Streak, Hardness, Breakage
185.
This rock started as lava that cooled and then was heated and put under pressure over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentar
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
186.
This rock started as molten magma. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
187.
This rock is made from tiny pieces of other rocks that settled to the bottom of a valley millions of years ago. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
188.

This rock was molten magma that slowly cooled under the ground. What type of rock is this?

a)

Sedimentar

b)

Intrusive Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

189.

This rock cooled on the outside of a volcano and contained air bubbles when it was forming. What type of rock is this?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Extrusive Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

190.
After lots of time, pressure, and heat, you get this kind of rock. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
191.
Each rock type can follow only one pathway of the rock cycle.
a)
True
b)
False
192.
Fossils are often found in ____________ because it is formed from the remains of once living things.
a)
metamorphic
b)
magma
c)
igneous
d)
sedimentary
193.
This rock was formed by lots of fossils that settled on top of each other over time. What type of rock is this?
a)
Sedimentary
b)
Igneous
c)
Metamorphic
194.

What is it called when rock layers are pushed upwards?

a)

uplift

b)

erosion

c)

deposition

195.

Where would deposition happen?

a)

at the bottom of a river

b)

at the top of a mountain

196.

Where does the rock cycle happen?

a)

at the Earth's core

b)

In the atmosphere

c)

Only on the surface

d)

Below the surface and above the surface

197.

Which of the following describes how microorganisms influence the chemical characteristics of soil?

a)

They loosen and mix the soil by digging burrows underground.

b)

They add inorganic material to the soil by weathering rocks on Earth’s surface.

c)

They add moisture to the soil by creating pores through which water can move.

d)

They add organic material to the soil by breaking down the remains of plants and animals.

198.

Examine the soil profile below.

Note there are many ground cover plants and a tree with deep roots. Which soil horizon is primarily responsible for this soil’s fertility?

a)

Horizon A, because it contains humus and other organic nutrients that plants need.

b)

Horizon B, because plant roots can grow down into the smaller rock fragments.

c)

Horizon C, because most of the groundwater is stored in this horizon.

d)

Horizon D, because it is the parent rock that breaks up to form soil.

199.

What is humus?

a)

spaces between soil particles through which water and air can move

b)

weathered sediment broken down by atmospheric forces on Earth’s surface

c)

dark, organic material formed in soil from the decayed remains of plants and animals

d)

a loose mixture of rock fragments, organic material, water, and air that can support the growth of vegetation

200.

Susan rubs two rocks together. One of the rocks wears away to form small particles. What would most likely happen if this rock continues to break into small pieces after Susan puts the rocks back on the ground?

a)

The pieces may become part of the soil.

b)

The pieces may become part of the bedrock.

c)

The pieces may become part of the ice wedging process.

d)

The pieces may become part of the organic matter in the soil.

201.

.  _________ is the loose mixture of small rock fragments, organic matter, water and air.

a)

Soil

b)

Dirt

c)

Gravel

d)

Rock

202.

__________is created when bacteria and fungi break down living matter.

a)

 Soil

    

b)

Humus

c)

Dirt

d)

Plant matter

203.

Gopher tortoises live on dry land. They live in large holes that they dig in the soil. Which statement gives the best explanation of how this behavior aids in soil formation?

a)

It hardens the soil, allowing less water to reach the rocks underground.

b)

It erodes the soil by moving it from underneath the ground to above ground.

c)

It loosens and mixes the soil, increasing air in the soil and the ability to drain water.

d)

It causes weathering of the rocks, as the tortoise breaks the rocks into smaller pieces.

204.

Soil begins with the weathering of the ____________.

a)

grandparent rock

b)

sister stones

c)

older rock

d)

parent rock

205.

Thinking about soil horizon, most nutrients are found

a)

In the top layer

b)

in the middle layer

c)

in the lower layers

d)

throughout the entire soil horizon

206.

Humus is…

a)

found under the first layer of soil

b)

found below the original rock

c)

found in the top layer of soil

d)

found in the bottom layer of soil

207.

Refers to the size of the soil particles

a)

Chemistry

b)

Fertility

c)

Color

d)

Texture

208.

Refers to the level of acid in the ground. 

a)

Chemistry

b)

Fertility

c)

Color

d)

Texture

209.

Describes how well the soil can support plant growth. 

a)

Chemistry

b)

Fertility

c)

Color

d)

Texture

210.

What benefit do animals offer that helps improve soil?

a)

helps the soil get air

b)

helps the soil drain excess water

c)

both A and B

d)

none of the above

211.

Refers to the darker the color the more nutrients it contains.

a)

Chemistry

b)

Fertility

c)

Color

d)

Texture

212.

The goal of mitosis is to

a)

make a new parent cell

b)

make two new daughter cells with the same DNA

c)

make two new daughter cells with different DNA

d)

to grow a larger toe

213.

In interphase, the cell is

a)

multiplying chromosomes

b)

growing and copying DNA

c)

destroying DNA

d)

moving inside

214.

A good way to remember the stages of cell division is:

a)

AMPT

b)

ATMP

c)

PMAT

d)

PMA

215.

How many chromosomes are in each human cell?

a)

1

b)

146

c)

46

d)

1,000,000

216.

in cell division, what does P stand for?

a)

problem

b)

prophase

c)

professional

d)

personal

217.

Why does our body undergo mitosis?

a)

fun and games

b)

checks and balances

c)

growth and repair

d)

to build bigger muscles

218.

What stage of mitosis is this?

a)

Interphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Cytokinesis

d)

Prophase

219.

What stage of mitosis is this?

a)

metrophase

b)

middlephase

c)

centraphase

d)

metaphase

220.
It is the process of dividing the DNA of a cell into two new nuclei.
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
c)
cytokinesis
d)
cell division
221.

It is otherwise known as "Resting stage" because the cell is not dividing.

a)

Interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

222.

In what stage do the chromosomes line up along the equator of the cell?

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphae

223.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
224.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
225.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
226.
What is the first phase of Mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
227.
Where does a cell contain its genetic material?
a)
nucleus
b)
nucleolus
c)
cytoskeleton
d)
chloroplasts
228.
Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of a nuclear power plant?
a)
It's waste can destroy habitats and ecosystems.
b)
It costs a lot of money to build.
c)
It produces radioactive waste.
d)
It produces large amounts of energy.
229.
Which of the following is NOT true about Biomass as a renewable resource?
a)
Biomass produces greenhouse gases.
b)
It is composed of plant remains and household garbage
c)
It increases the amount of waste in landfills and dumps
d)
Biomass is burned to produce heat energy and electricity
230.
One advantage of using hydropower is that...
a)
It can be built in any location
b)
it produces no air pollution
c)
It has no construction costs
d)
it uses a nonrenewable resource
231.
What is a fossil fuel?
a)
Fuel made from ground up fossils.
b)
Fuels from the Fossil Company.
c)
Fuel created from once living organisms
d)
Renewable sources of energy.
232.
Which one is NOT a fossil fuel?
a)
Coal
b)
Oil
c)
Biomass
d)
Gas
233.
Which one is NOT considered a renewable resource?
a)
Biomass
b)
Solar power
c)
Hydropower
d)
Nuclear power
234.
Why are coal, oil, and natural gas classified as nonrenewable resources?
a)
They are limitless
b)
They exist in many places on Earth.
c)
They are originally from once-living things.
d)
They take millions of years to form.
235.
Complete this list: wind, solar power, hydropower, biomass, ______________.
a)
nuclear
b)
geothermal
c)
fossil
d)
coal
236.
What is important to consider when deciding to use solar or wind power as a renewable energy source?
a)
A backup system is needed in case of cloudy days or days with no rain.
b)
How to minimize the amount of greenhouse gases emitted.
c)
How pollutants will affect the surrounding area.
d)
How to manage the large amounts of electricity generated.
237.
Which statement supports the opinion that a dam can harm a river ecosystem?
a)
they provide water for drinking and irrigation
b)
dams on rivers emit less pollution
c)
they can reduce flooding downstream during heavy rains
d)
they change water depth and alter the temperature of a river
238.
Which NONRENEWABLE resource does not create greenhouse gases and climate change?
a)
solar
b)
biomass
c)
nuclear
d)
wind
239.

Radioactive waste can be hazardous to the environment if mishandled

a)

Advantage: NUCLEAR

b)

Disadvantage: NUCLEAR

c)

Advantage: NATURAL GAS

d)

Disadvantage: NATURAL GAS

240.

Spills can cause environmental devastation

a)

Advantage: COAL

b)

Disadvantage: COAL

c)

Advantage: OIL

d)

Disadvantage: OIL

241.

Dangerous to mine. creates pollutants in the air when burned.

a)

Advantage: NATURAL GAS

b)

Disadvantage: NATURAL GAS

c)

Advantage: COAL

d)

Disadvantage: COAL

242.

Very small amount of resources used for a large quantity of energy.

a)

Advantage: NUCLEAR

b)

Disadvantage: NUCLEAR

c)

Advantage: COAL

d)

Disadvantage: COAL

243.

Which is an advantage of coal energy?

a)

it's cheap and plentiful

b)

it's a free resource that can be replenished quickly

c)

It creates greenhouse gases when burned

d)

it will eventually run out

244.
As water flows through a dam, a generator is turned and creates enough electricity for thousands of homes. This describes...
a)
biofuels
b)
hydroelectric energy
c)
geothermal energy.
d)
potential energy
245.
Generators are used to produce electricity from all of these sources EXCEPT _____.
a)
solar
b)
wind
c)
tidal
d)
nuclear
246.
What is one of the biggest disadvantages to wind turbines?
a)
They're big
b)
They can interfere with bird migration
c)
They're expensive
d)
It takes a long time to put one up and then maintain it
247.

Which is most likely a major concern associated with burning fossil fuels?

a)

polluting the oceans

b)

remove harmful chemicals from precipitation

c)

remove carbon dioxide from the atmosphere

d)

produce smog, which can cause respiratory illnesses

248.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
249.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
250.
In which type of cells will mitosis occur?
a)
egg cells
b)
sperm cells
c)
jail cells
d)
Body cells except the sperm and egg cells
251.
After meiosis is complete, the new cells:
a)
are all identical
b)
are all different
c)
are half identical and half different
d)
are all stretched out
252.
How many daughter cells are produced from meiosis ?
a)
10
b)
6
c)
4
d)
2
253.
The female sex cell is called
a)
zygote
b)
sperm
c)
fertilization
d)
egg
254.
The male sex cell is called
a)
egg
b)
zygote
c)
sperm
d)
mitosis
255.
Humans have how may chromosomes ?
a)
112
b)
46
c)
8
d)
67
256.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
257.
Why do we need meiosis?
a)
To double the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
b)
To halve the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
c)
To triple the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
d)
To not change the number of chromosomes going into sex cells
258.
Name that process
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Mutation
d)
Cell Cycle
259.

How would you describe the chromosomes in a sex cell after meiosis?

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

triploid

d)

quadrupled

260.
In Meiosis if the parent cells has 40 chromosomes, then how many will the daughter cells have 
a)
40
b)
10
c)
20
d)
18
261.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
262.

What are advantages of sexual reproduction? (Choose all that apply)

a)

Better disease resistance

b)

More variations in a species to help adapt

c)

Being pregnant for a long time

d)

Taking time and energy to find a mate

263.

What are advantages of asexual reproduction? (Choose all that apply)

a)

The reproduction is quick

b)

Lack of varieties cause organisms to not adapt

c)

Lots of offspring are produced at once

d)

Whole populations can die from the same disease

264.

The Law of Superposition states...

a)

older rocks are below younger rock

b)

younger rocks are below older rocks

265.

What does letter A show?

a)

superposition

b)

unconformity

c)

lateral continuity

d)

fault

266.

How are sediments originally deposited?

a)

horizontally

b)

vertically

267.

Why does one side of the Grand Canyon match the other side?

a)

superposition

b)

horizontality

c)

lateral continuity

d)

faults

268.

Organize from oldest to youngest...

a)

BCDAE

b)

BACDE

c)

EDCBA

d)

EDCAB

269.

When did the fault form?

a)

first

b)

last

c)

before A

d)

before B

270.

What are qualities of an index fossil? (Choose multiple)

a)

long lived

b)

short lived

c)

abundant

d)

scarce

271.

How are correlating using index fossils different from correlating using rocks?

a)

There is no difference.

b)

Index fossils give a range of dates.

c)

Rocks give a range of dates.

d)

Index fossils give the absolute age.

272.

What is the longest geologic time?

a)

epoch

b)

period

c)

era

d)

eon

273.

What is the shortest geologic time?

a)

era

b)

epoch

c)

eon

d)

period

274.

How is the geologic timeline organized?

a)

all eras are the same

b)

all eons are the same

c)

depends when extinction events happened

d)

there is no organization

275.

What is a mass extinction event?

a)

when many species die out

b)

when biodiversity increases

276.

What does Pre-Cambrian mean?

a)

after complex life

b)

during complex life

c)

before complex life

d)

at the same time as complex life

277.

What are causes of mass extinction? (Select all)

a)

climate change

b)

volcanoes

c)

meteor impacts

d)

hurricanes

278.

How can scientists tell the absolute age of a rock?

a)

using index fossils

b)

using superposition

c)

measuring the decay of radioactive isotopes

d)

measuring the decay of organisms

279.

What is the current geologic era?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

280.

Which geologic era had dinosaurs?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

281.

Which geologic era had ancient, very simple multicellular life?

a)

Cenozoic

b)

Mesozoic

c)

Paleozoic

282.

What do we call the energy that is produced by the heat inside the earth?

a)

wind energy

b)

Volcano energy

c)

Geothermal energy

d)

Tidal energy

283.

These fuels are made from living things such as leaves, food wastes, and manure.

a)

geothermal fuels

b)

hydrogen fuels

c)

biomass fuels

d)

garbage fuels

284.

What part of a windmill turns the generator?

a)

turbine

b)

turbo

c)

porcupine

d)

electricity

285.

Hydroelectric dams use ______________ to turn the turbines.

a)

electricity

b)

wind

c)

rushing water

d)

heat from the earth

286.

We can use the motion of the ocean to create electricity. This is called _______________.

a)

surfology

b)

tidal power

c)

coral reef

d)

wind energy

287.

Solar energy uses solar panels to capture energy from the sun and turn it into ____________.

a)

electricity

b)

sound

c)

fuel

d)

coal

288.

Renewable resources are things that we can ________________.

a)

only use once

b)

burn

c)

dig up from the ground

d)

use over and over again

289.

Which of the following does not provide enough electricity to power an entire house?

a)

solar power

b)

wind power

c)

human muscle power

d)

geothermal energy

290.

About how tall is a modern wind turbine?

a)

2 meters

b)

1000 meters

c)

100 meters

d)

100 centimetres

291.

Generating electricity with wind power is considered "clean" energy because ___________.

a)

windmills are clean and white

b)

the windmills clean the air as they spin

c)

windmills need to be cleaned all the time

d)

windmills don't produce greenhouse gases

292.

Humans have 46 chromosomes in all. They inherit 23 from one parent and 23 from the other.

a)

true

b)

false

293.

This model can be used as evidence to support which claim?

a)

Proteins are found inside of chromosomes and chromosomes make up proteins.

b)

DNA makes up the majority of a cell and contributes to the functions of chromosomes.

c)

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of all cells and they contain long strands of DNA and proteins.

294.

Genes are found within bands of DNA. Which sentence best describes the function of a gene.

a)

Genes create more DNA for the organism to use later.

b)

Genes create instructions that tell cells which proteins to make.

c)

Genes create chromosomes for organisms to pass down to their offspring.

295.

Which option gives the best definition of the word phenotype?

a)

The word phenotype describes an organism's physical features, related to their genotype that we can actually see.

b)

The word phenotype describes an organisms genetic make up in letters.

c)

The word phenotype describes an organisms ability to pass it's genetic material down to it's offspring.

296.

Which of the following caused this snake to have two heads?

a)

A cross between two types of snakes.

b)

A cell in it's body.

c)

A genetic mutation.

297.

Select all of the examples of genotypes.

a)

Gg

b)

Green Eyes

c)

DD

d)

dd

e)

Black Hair

298.

This model best shows...

a)

A DNA sequence with a possible mutated gene.

b)

A DNA sequence with more than one chromosome.

c)

A DNA sequence with normal genes.

299.

Which genetic disorder is a recessive trait that causes skin with no pigmentation?

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Sickle Cell

c)

Albinism

300.

_________________ is the genetic makeup or combination of alleles in an organism.

a)

The phenotype

b)

The genotype

301.

Select all of the examples of traits:

a)

Hair color

b)

Being tall or short

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Having a good report card.

e)

Having 6 fingers.

302.

Zenobia's mother and father have brown eyes. Which of the following statements is true about Zenobia's eyes?

a)

Zenobia probably has blue eyes.

b)

Zenobia probably has brown eyes.

c)

Zenobia probably has green eyes.

303.

Select the most accurate claim about chromosomes, genes and DNA.

a)

Chromosomes, genes and DNA work together inside of the cells of organisms.

b)

Chromosomes hold DNA.

c)

Chromosomes are made up of long strands of DNA which contain segments of genes.

d)

Genes are found inside of segments of DNA strands.

304.

All organisms get ___________ of their chromosomes from each of their parents.

a)

12\frac{1}{2}

b)

11\frac{1}{1}

c)

13\frac{1}{3}

305.

All of these rabbits have the same parents. Which statement gives the best explanation as to why they're different colors?

a)

This isn't actually possible.

b)

They're different colors because they all have different genes.

c)

They're different colors because their parents are different colors.

d)

They're different colors because their parents are different colors or carriers of a gene for a different color.

306.
What is the first phase of Mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
307.
What phase of mitosis is occuring in the picture?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Cytokinesis
d)
Telophase
308.
In which phase does the cell spend most of it's life?
a)
Interphase
b)
Nuclear Division
c)
Telophase
d)
Mitosis
309.
DNA will condense into...
a)
Centromeres
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Nuclei
d)
Spindle fibers
310.
What phase of mitosis is pictured?
a)
Metaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
311.
Which of the following is NOT occuring during interphase?
a)
Cell growth
b)
DNA being copied
c)
DNA condensing
d)
Two new cells are made
312.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
313.
The process by which the nuclear material is divided equally between two new cells
a)
mitosis
b)
cancer
c)
spindle
d)
centromere
314.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
315.
How many chromosomes do humans have?
a)
46
b)
21
c)
10
316.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
317.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
318.
Structure A refers to the _____.
a)
chromatid
b)
chromosome
c)
centromere
319.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
320.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
321.
These structures pull the spindle fibers and attached chromosomes to opposite ends of the cell.
a)
Spindle fiber
b)
Centriole
c)
Nucleus
d)
Centromere
322.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
323.
What is the next phase of mitosis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
324.
Name the previous phase.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
325.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
326.

Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

a)

Chromosomes are long, thread-like structures

b)

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of all cells in the human body

c)

Chromosomes contain DNA

d)

All of the above

327.

How many chromosomes are found in each cell of your body?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

40

d)

45

328.

What are genes?

a)

Pants

b)

Specific traits

c)

Sections of DNA arranged along the chromosomes

d)

Chromosomes

329.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

ribosenucleic acid

c)

Deoxyribose

d)

Nucleic acid

330.

How many pairs of chromosomes do human cells contain?

a)

23

b)

46

c)

16

d)

32

331.

What is a long coiled strand of DNA and proteins?

a)

gene

b)

RNA

c)

chromosome

d)

genome

332.

What is a short segment of a DNA strand that codes for our characteristics?

a)

chromosome

b)

DNA

c)

RNA

d)

gene

333.

Where is DNA found in a human cell?

a)

ribosome

b)

nucleus

c)

cell membrane

d)

cytoplasm

334.
The twisted ladder shape of DNA is referred to as a ....
a)
Twizzler candy
b)
twisted ladder
c)
double helix
d)
yo mama
335.

From smallest to largest how would genetic information be organized?

a)

genes, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA

b)

chromosome, cell, gene, DNA, nucleus

c)

DNA/nucleotides, gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell

d)

nucleus, cell, gene, DNA, chromosome

336.

What do genes do?

a)

Give the body chromosomes.

b)

Control the DNA.

c)

Control the production of proteins.

337.

What is the correct sequence of structures from smallest to largest?

a)

Chromosomes, Gene, DNA, Nucleus, Cell

b)

Cell, Nucleus, Chromosomes, DNA, Genes

c)

DNA, Gene, Nucleus, Chromosome, Cell

d)

Gene, DNA, Chromosomes, Nucleus, Cell

e)

Gene Nucleus, DNA, Chromosome, Cell

338.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
339.

Chromosomes are made of

a)

DNA

b)

genes

c)

proteins

d)

traits

340.

What are the structures in this image called?

a)

chromosomes

b)

centromere

c)

sister chromatids

d)

chromatin

341.

Eye color, hair color, having freckles, etc. are examples of:

a)

DNA

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Genes

d)

Traits

342.

The part of the cell that contains chromosomes and genes is the:

a)

Mitochondria

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosomes

343.
The traits of an organism are passed to its offspring on small coded strands of DNA material called
a)
meiosis
b)
recessive traits
c)
genes
d)
heredity
344.

An inheritable characteristic that id determined by DNA is known as a _____.

a)

DNA

b)

nucleus

c)

trait

d)

protein

345.

_______ are sections of DNA that regulate protein and code for specific traits.

a)

Genes

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Proteins

d)

Mutations

346.

What do waves carry and transfer?

a)

Nothing

b)

Only Sound

c)

Only sunlight

d)

Energy

347.

A MECHANICAL wave can not travel without a ____________.

a)

Light

b)

Medium

c)

Sound

348.

A medium is _________.

a)

a sound wave

b)

a light beam

c)

a Solid, liquid or gas.

349.

The highest part of the wave is called the _______________.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Trough

d)

Crest

350.

The bottom part of the wave is called trough.

a)

True

b)

False

351.

_________________________ is the distance between a point on one wave and the identical point of the next wave.

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Crest

d)

Wavelength

352.

________is the distance between the crest and the resting position.

a)

Crest

b)

Trough

c)

Amplitude

d)

Wavelength

353.

Which types of wave vibrates particles in the same direction as the wave?

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

354.

Which type of wave vibrates particles perpendicular (up & down) to the resting position?

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

355.

Which type of wave can travel through the vacuum of space?

a)

electromagnetic (light)

b)

sound

c)

mechanical

d)

water

356.

Can sound travel through space?

a)

No, there are no particles to vibrate

b)

Yes, there are particles to vibrate

357.

Can light travel through space?

a)

Yes

b)

No

358.

Distance between crests or troughs.

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

359.

Distance from resting position to the crest.

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

360.

A wave is...

a)

disturbance that carries matter

b)

disturbance that carries energy

361.

A wave that vibrates back and forth or parallel to the resting line.

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

362.

A wave that vibrates up and down or perpendicular to the resting line.

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

363.

shows the probability of all possible genotypes and phenotypes of offspring from a particular cross

a)

Punnett square

b)

pedigree

c)

genetics

d)

heredity

364.

alleles that are on an X or Y chromosome

a)

sex-linked trait

b)

heredity

c)

genes

d)

alleles

e)

chromosome

365.

pattern in which multiple alleles determine the phenotype of an orgamism

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

heredity

c)

genetics

d)

pedigree

366.

model that shows genetic traits that were inherited by members of a family

a)

pedigree

b)

mutation

c)

multiple alleles

d)

genetics

367.

any permanent change in the sequence of DNA in a gene or a chromosome of a cell

a)

mutation

b)

pedigree

c)

genetic engineering

d)

hybrids

368.

gene having more than two alleles

a)

genes

b)

chromosomes

c)

alleles

d)

multple alleles

369.

two individuals that are hybrids are crossed for one trait

a)

hybrids

b)

mutation

c)

monohybrid cross

d)

genetic engineering

370.

inheritance pattern in which an offspring's phenotype is a combination of its parents' phenotypes

a)

dominance

b)

sex-linked traits

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

mutation

371.

modification of an organism's genetic material by inserting DNA from another organism

a)

mutation

b)

genetic engineering

c)

hybrid

d)

inheretiance

372.

inheritance pattern in which both alleles can be independently observed in an organism's phenotype

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

c)

dominance

d)

recessive

373.

a gene with different information for a trait

a)

chromosome

b)

allele

c)

gene

d)

mutation

374.

coiled strands of DNA

a)

allele

b)

chromosomes

c)

gene

d)

DNA

375.

genetic factor that blocks another genetic factor

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

gene

d)

strong

376.

a segment of DNA on a chromosome that codes for a specific trait

a)

allele

b)

gene

c)

mutation

d)

chromosome

377.

study of how traits pass from parents to offspring

a)

heredity

b)

genes

c)

genetics

d)

genetic engineering

378.

alleles of all genes on an organism's chromosomes

a)

physical

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

genes

379.

passing of traits from parents to offspring

a)

chromosomes

b)

heredity

c)

genetics

d)

genes

380.

having two different alleles for a trait

a)

heterozygous

b)

homozygous

381.

having two identical alleles for a trait

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

382.

how traits appear or are expressed

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

gene

d)

allele

383.

genetic factor that is blocked by the presence of a dominant factor

a)

recessive trait

b)

dominant trait

c)

genes

384.

selection and breeding of organisms for desired traits

a)

selective breeding

b)

genetic engineering

c)

sexual reproduction

385.

a distinguishing characteristic of an organism

a)

trait

b)

gene

c)

chromosome

d)

genetics

386.

A change in a gene, group of genes, or chromosomes that results in a change in the proteins.

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

transcription

387.

What is a gene?

a)

humans have 46 in the nucleus of the cell

b)

a section of DNA that codes for proteins

c)

all of your DNA

d)

a protein that codes for DNA

388.

DNA contains

a)

candy

b)

money

c)

a genetic code for all life on Earth

389.

Mutations can be negative because (choose 2)

a)

They can cause cancer

b)

They can cause birth defects

c)

They can help an organism thrive in its' environment

d)

They can allow organisms to adapt

390.

Mutations can benefit organisms by...

a)

causing illness

b)

making organisms live shorter lives

c)

making an organism more suited to live in its' environment

d)

cause organisms to grow more arms.

391.

Most mutations are...

a)

neutral

b)

harmful

c)

beneficial

392.

What are some causes of mutations?

a)

mistakes in replication or environmental factors

b)

the creation of incorrect proteins

c)

the way an organism is born

393.

An insertion mutation occurs when a base pair is...

a)

modified

b)

added

c)

deleted

d)

inverted

394.

Original gene - ATGA

Mutated gene - AGA

What is this?

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

d)

duplication

395.

Mutations are random

a)

true

b)

false

396.

Mutations are sometimes helpful to organisms.

a)

true

b)

false

397.

Mutations create genetic diversity

a)

true

b)

false

398.

Which diseases are caused by genetic mutations? (Choose 2)

a)

flu

b)

cystic fibrosis

c)

sickle cell anemia

d)

coronavirs

399.

If a mutation helps an organism to survive it is...

a)

beneficial

b)

harmful

c)

neutral

400.

If a mutation causes an organism to not be able to survive or experience a lower quality of life it is...

a)

beneficial

b)

harmful

c)

neutral

401.

If a genetic mutation does not harm or help an organism it is considered...

a)

beneficial

b)

harmful

c)

neutral

402.

Which type of cell would mutations be passed from parent to offspring in sexual reproduction?

a)

body cell

b)

skin cell

c)

gamete

d)

muscle cell

403.
The color you see is the color that is ___.
a)
reflected
b)
absorbed
404.
A leaf is green, what does this tell you about the light that is being absorbed?
a)
no light is being absorbed
b)
green is being absorbed and all the other colors are reflected
c)
green is being reflected and all the other colors are being absorbed
405.

How do humans see different wavelengths?

a)

as different colors

b)

as ultraviolet light

c)

as infrared rays

406.

Visible light is which type of wave?

a)

seismic

b)

mechanical

c)

longitudinal

d)

electromagnetic

407.
Why does a purple shirt appear purple?
a)
the shirt material REFLECTS all wavelengths of color 
b)
the shirt material transmits all wavelengths of color except the purple
c)
the material absorbs all wavelengths of color except the purple wavelength
408.

Which statement is true about visible light?

a)

Humans cannot see any light from the electromagnetic spectrum.

b)

Visible light makes up a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

c)

Visible light has a frequency equal to that of gamma rays.

d)

Humans can see visible light only as white light.

409.

This occurs when light bounces off a surface

a)

reflection

b)

refraction

c)

absorb

d)

scatter

410.
Why do we see objects as white?
a)
They absorb all light
b)
They reflect all light
c)
They absorb some light and reflect some light
411.
You can see this text, your desk, and the person in front of you because light is being _______.
a)
absorbed
b)
refracted
c)
diffracted
d)
reflected
412.
Which color absorbs all light?
a)
White
b)
Black
c)
Orange
d)
Green
413.

What color reflects all wavelengths of visible light?

a)

black

b)

white

414.

A red filter would only allow what wavelengths to transmit?

a)

green

b)

black

c)

red

d)

blue

415.

What color would a red apple look through a green filter?

a)

white

b)

green

c)

red

d)

black

416.

What color would a red apple look through a red filter?

a)

white

b)

red

c)

green

d)

black

417.

How does a filter work?

a)

A filter allows some wavelengths to transmit while absorbing all other colors.

b)

A filter refracts light and produces a rainbow of colors.

418.

To pass through

a)

transmit

b)

absorb

419.

To take in

a)

transmit

b)

absorb

420.

Change speed or direction when passing through (looks like it bends)

a)

reflect

b)

refract

421.

bounce off

a)

reflect

b)

refract

422.

When light passes through an opening it...

a)

passes through the opening, diffracts, and spreads out

b)

gets absorbed by the opening, turns dark, and spreads out

423.

What color does an orange reflect?

a)

orange

b)

blue

424.

What color would an orange absorb?

a)

orange

b)

blue

425.

How would the color black look through a red filter?

a)

red

b)

black

426.

How would the color white look through a green filter?

a)

white

b)

green

427.

_____ reflects all colors, ____ absorbs all colors.

a)

white, black

b)

black, white

428.

Which color has the shortest wavelength and highest frequency?

a)

red

b)

violet

429.

Which color has the longest wavelength and lowest frequency?

a)

red

b)

violet

430.

Which color has the most energy?

a)

violet

b)

red

431.

Which color has the least energy?

a)

violet

b)

red

432.

Organize the colors from lowest frequency and longest wavelength to highest frequency and short wavelength.

a)

ROYGBIV

b)

GBIVROY

433.

A __________ is a piece of information that is communicated through using the senses.

a)

wave

b)

signal

c)

circuit

d)

notification

434.

This is wireless method of sending information uses radio waves

a)

analog

b)

WiFi

c)

landline

d)

GPS

435.

The use of light and cables to transfer electric signals over long distances

a)

WiFi

b)

GPS

c)

fiber optics

d)

landline

436.

To translate information into the form of code

a)

transmit

b)

encode

c)

signal

d)

encrypt

437.

The passing on, or transfer, of information

a)

transmit

b)

encode

c)

signal

d)

encrypt

438.

Change continuously over time; represented by a continuous smooth curve; can be a range of values

a)

analog signals

b)

digital signals

c)

wireless signals

d)

electric signals

439.

Is discrete and not continuous; represented by two values - either on or off

a)

analog signals

b)

digital signals

c)

wireless signals

d)

electric signals

440.

A signal to or from a computer is encoded into _________________, such as the two values - on (1) or off (0).

a)

analog signal

b)

digital signal

c)

binary numbers

d)

electricity

441.

A single unit of information in quantitative or qualitative form

a)

signal

b)

encryption

c)

data

d)

wave

442.

the unwanted modification of a signal

a)

encryption

b)

noise

c)

analog

d)

modulation

443.

a signal whose frequency is modulated

a)

FM

b)

AM

c)

PM

d)

IM

444.

a signal whose amplitude is modulated

a)

FM

b)

AM

c)

PM

d)

IM

445.

Which type of wave allows satellites to communicate with stations on Earth?

a)

sound

b)

radio

c)

gamma

d)

x-ray

446.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
447.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
448.
What does a vertical line coming down from a square and circle that are connected by horizontal line indicate?
a)
They are cousins
b)
The children
c)
Aunts and Uncles
449.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
450.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
451.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
452.
Which individual in the first generation is a carrier?
a)
The male
b)
The female
c)
individual 1
d)
None of the above
453.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
454.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)
8
b)
5
c)
2
d)
3
455.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
456.

If the dominant trait is having freckles (F) and the recessive trait is no freckles (f), which allele combination(s) below would represent a person who has freckles? (select all that apply)

a)

FF

b)

Ff

c)

ff

457.
What is the phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair) 
a)
50 % Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair 
b)
25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair 
c)
75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair 
d)
0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair 
458.

The combination of genes a person has, represented by letters, is their...

a)

Genotype

b)

Phenotype

c)

Chromosome

d)

Punnett Square

459.

What belongs in the last box?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

ff

460.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
461.

Look at the punnett square shown. What allele pair would replace the "?"

a)

WW

b)

Ww

c)

ww

462.

What belongs in Box 4?

a)

Y

b)

YY

c)

Yy

d)

yy

463.

Look at the punnett square. What is the probability that the offspring would have homozygous alleles for the trait?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

e)

0%

464.
Both parents in this Punnet square
a)
are homozygous dominant
b)
are homozygous recessive
c)
are heterozygous
d)
have blue eyes
465.

What is the probability & phenotype of the offspring? (A-Brown hair; a-blond hair)

a)

50% Brown Hair and 50% Blond Hair

b)

25 % Brown Hair and 75% Blond Hair

c)

75 % Brown Hair and 25% Blond Hair

d)

0% Brown Hair and 100% Blond Hair

466.

Fill in the Yellow Box

a)

Bb

b)

BB

c)

bb

467.

Which of the following allele pairs is heterozygous?

a)

RR

b)

Qq

c)

ss

468.
What allele combination should go in the missing box?
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
none of these
469.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
470.

The point at which light rays converge after passing through a convex lens is called what.

a)

The Horizon Point

b)

The Point Break

c)

The Focal Point

d)

The Perspective

471.

Light bends as it passes through a lens. This is called what?

a)

Reflection

b)

Diffraction

c)

Refraction

d)

Dilation

472.

When light waves move from passing through air to passing through a glass lens when happens to them?

a)

They slow down and change direction

b)

They speed up and change direction

c)

They maintain the same speed and change direction

d)

They maintain their same speed and direction

473.

How does waterproof feathers help penguins survive in the Antarctic. (Choose all that apply)

a)

Helps keep them warm and dry

b)

Helps them blend in

c)

Helps them swim in cold waters

d)

Helps them see further in cold weather

474.

Guppies are small fish that live in South American rivers. They can have different- sized spots on their bodies.

The river bottoms are covered in rocks. Guppies with spots that are the same size as the rocks on the bottom are harder for bigger fish to see and catch.

The diagram below shows a population of guppies that live in a river. At time 1, the population had the same number of guppies with small and large spots. At time 2, after many generations, there were many more guppies with small spots and fewer guppies with large spots in the population.


How did the environment change between time 1 and time 2? How did the population change?

a)

You cannot tell how the environment changed. With each generation, more guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

b)

The rocks became smaller. With each generation, more guppies with small spots survived long enough to pass on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

c)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so the guppies with large spots changed to have small spots.

d)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so both kinds of guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

475.

What is the process where animals live or die based on their adaptations to their environment.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

The Circle of Life

d)

Mammoth

476.
Process by which individuals that are better suited to their environment survive and reproduce most successfully; also called survival of the fittest.
a)
Extinction
b)
Speciation
c)
Natural Selection
d)
Artificial Selection
477.

A white moth living on a brown tree is an example of a(n).....

a)

adaptive trait

b)

non-adaptive trait

c)

trait

d)

moth in trouble

478.

Which word describes the word "variation"?

a)

Adaptations

b)

Differences

c)

Traits

d)

Genetics

479.
When an organism of a species has an adaptation, it will compete for resources better, survive longer and pass that adaptation on to it's offspring. This process is called
a)
evolution by natural selection
b)
artificial selection
c)
inbreeding
d)
outbreeding
480.

A variation is . . .

a)

when organisms have camouflage like spots or stripes

b)

an organism from a different dimension

c)

when you order different food than your friend

d)

differences between organisms in the same species

481.
Who was the naturalist that traveled the world to study plants and animals?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
Isaac Newton
482.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
483.

Which animal is the most FIT to live in the desert?

a)

Penguin

b)

Bear

c)

Tiger

d)

Lizard

484.

A green rat snake that lives in the grass and a brown rat snake that lives in the desert is a form of ______________.

a)

Human Genetic Modification

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Artificial Breeding

485.

According to natural selection, light colored tree trunks would favor

a)

light colored moths

b)

dark colored moths

c)

red colored moths

d)

red and light colored moths

486.

A fox with thicker fur than average would have a survival advantage over other foxes if:

a)

There is more competition for food in the fox population.

b)

The air temperature significantly decreases in winter.

c)

A drought occurs, limiting the amount of water available.

d)

A new disease appears that infects the foxes.

487.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To look different from other species.

b)

To protect itself against predators.

c)

To protect itself against prey

d)

To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.

488.

Which word best describes the following definition?


The process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than other members of the same species.

a)

Trait

b)

Generation

c)

Adaptive Trait

d)

Natural Selection

489.

Tree squirrels can have different fur colors.

Squirrels live in forests where foxes also live. Foxes hunt squirrels for food. Squirrels that have fur that is the same color as the trees are harder for the foxes to see and catch.

The diagram below shows a population of squirrels that live in a forest. At time 1, the population had the same number of black and gray squirrels. At time 2, after many generations, there were many more black squirrels and fewer gray squirrels in the population.

How did the environment change between time 1 and time 2? How did the population change?

a)

You cannot tell how the environment changed. With each generation, more squirrels passed on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

b)

There were more black trees. Squirrels with black fur are more likely to survive, so the squirrels with gray fur changed to have black fur.

c)

There were more black trees. Squirrels with black fur are more likely to survive, so both types of squirrels passed on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

d)

There were more black trees. With each generation, more squirrels with black fur survived long enough to pass on the gene for black fur to their offspring.

490.

Which histogram has more variation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

The both have the same amount of variation

491.

Variations are caused by . . .

a)

Kaleidoscopes

b)

Variety Shows

c)

Mutations

d)

A change in phenotypic expression

492.

The phrase "Survival of the Fittest" would best describe...

a)

Natural selection

b)

Artificial selection

c)

Selective breeding

d)

None of the above