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Management Theory

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 3hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are keys to model training?

a)

Data Preparation

b)

Data Management

c)

Data Handling

d)

Data Diversion

2.

Multiple machine learning models can together improve the results. What kind of learning is this?

a)

Collective Learning

b)

Symbiotic Learning

c)

Ensemble Learning

d)

More Learning

3.

Who contains resources for exploring, transforming, and managing data in Azure ML.

a)

Datasets

b)

Datastores

4.

The data management process, includes...

a)

The use of datastores and datasets

b)

Data importing

c)

Versioning

d)

How to monitor for data drift

5.

Which of the following could not be a feature of a T-Shirt

a)

Medium

b)

Colour

c)

Size

d)

None of the above

6.

Which of these could be steps of feature engineering?

a)

Derive new features on the basis of existing features

b)

Applying a mathematical function to a pre-existing feature

c)

Training a separate ML model to create new features

d)

Fetching more data with wider set of features

7.

Which dataset is supported in Microsoft Azure?

a)

Tabular Dataset

b)

Web URL (File Dataset)

c)

Graph Based Data set

d)

Folder Based Data set

8.

Data Wrangling is ___________ process.

a)

Done according to performance, An iterative

b)

Done only once, non-iterative

9.

Datasets helps in seamless integration with numerous machine learning task, such as:

a)

Consummation of Datastores in automated processes

b)

Data labelling

c)

Monitoring issues like data drift

d)

Access of datastore through inference process

10.

Identify the correct sequence.

a)

Dataset Monitor -> Datastore -> Dataset

b)

Datastore -> Dataset Monitor -> Dataset

c)

Data Store -> Dataset -> Dataset Monitor

11.

In which technique in ML is use to decrease number of features

a)

Feature deduction

b)

Feature subtraction

c)

Feature reduction

12.

Deep learning depends on feature engineering much more than Classical machine learning.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

what's the potential benefits of feature engineering

a)

Smaller trained model

b)

Increased model accuracy

c)

Smaller space taken by model

d)

Faster training time

14.

Driving a Boolean value from each entity is called

a)

Part-of

b)

Binning

c)

Flagging

d)

Aggregation

15.

A change in user behavior over time is

a)

Data quality issue

b)

Covariate shift

c)

Natural drift in data

d)

Upstream process change

16.

Two features that used to be correlated are no longer correlated is called

a)

Data quality issue

b)

Covariate shift

c)

Natural drift in data

d)

Upstream process change

17.

Missing values imputation comes under

a)

Data Cleansing

b)

Data restructuring

c)

Data discovery

d)

Data exploration

18.

Data used to check the performance of the final, fully trained model.

a)

Train data

b)

Test data

c)

Hyper parameters

d)

Validation data

19.

The centralized place for working with all the components of the machine learning process

a)

Model registry

b)

Experiments

c)

Workspace

d)

Compute Instance

20.

Classify an image as one (and only one) of five possible types of birds.

a)

Multi-class single label classification

b)

Multi-class multi label classification

c)

Binary classification

21.

True or False: Communication is more than just talking face to face?

a)

True

b)

False

22.

What is Body Language?

a)

Postures, gestures, and facial expressions.

b)

The exchange of information through the use of words.

c)

Your words say one thing but your body language say another.

d)

Speak from your point of view.

23.

Good listening skills include what?

a)

Smiling and waving at people

b)

Yelling loud at people

c)

Writing in slang.

d)

None the above.

24.

The exchange of information through the use of words or actions is

a)

Active listening

b)

Body language

c)

Communication

d)

Aggressive

25.

Which of the following is considered a speaking skill?

a)

Make clear, simple statements

b)

Paying attention

c)

Rereading your words before you send a message

26.

Which of the following is considered a listening skill?

a)

Thinking before you speak

b)

Writing clear, simple statements

c)

Paying attention

27.

Two types of communication are:

a)

Verbs and Nouns

b)

Verbal and information

c)

Verbal and non-verbal

d)

Happy and sad

28.

An example of verbal communication is:

a)

Phone conversation

b)

Posture

c)

Eye contact

d)

Writing an email

29.

Which of the following is a barrier to communication?

a)

Message is not clear

b)

Not listening

c)

Lack of language skills

d)

All of the above

30.

Which is NOT important in effective communication?

a)

Wearing a red tie

b)

Making eye contact

c)

Using appropriate body language

d)

Using the appropriate tone

31.

A good, clear speaker…

a)

Understands what he/she wants to say

b)

Considers the audience and the setting

c)

Checks to assure understanding, and listens to responses

d)

All of the above

32.

What's the favourite drink of India?

a)

coffee

b)

tea

c)

milk

33.

What's the name of India's film industry?

a)

Dollywood

b)

Hollywood

c)

Bollywood

34.

India is the only country in the world where

a)

both lions and tigers live.

b)

both cats and dogs live.

c)

both lions and elephants live.

35.

People in India greet each other by saying...

a)

Hān

b)

Namaste

c)

Dhanyavāda

36.

Which monument was built as a tomb for an emperor's wife?

a)

Mysore Palace

b)

Taj Mahal

c)

Jantar Mantar

d)

Jamma Masjid

37.

Which of the following is not a part of Management function

a)

Directing

b)

Planning

c)

Delegating

d)

Controlling

38.

Creating company mission statement is

a)

Planning

b)

Controlling

c)

Organising

d)

Staffing

39.

A manager engaged in the managerial function of______is monitoring progress toward goal achievement and taking corrective action when needed

a)

Motivating

b)

Planning

c)

Controlling

d)

Coordinating

40.

Art of getting things done through others

a)

Planning

b)

Management

c)

Controlling

d)

MoraleStaffing

41.

Which of the following tend to be least important to the success of lower level management

a)

Decisions skills

b)

Human skills

c)

Conceptual skills

d)

Technical skills

42.

Management as a profession has which of the features

a)

well defined and systematised knowledge

b)

Service motive

c)

Code of conduct

d)

All of the above

43.

Select various skills required by a manager

a)

Technical

b)

Human

c)

Conceptual

44.

Management is defined as the organizational function of using all available resources efficiently to achieve the best possible returns.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which function in management involves monitoring improvements and taking corrective actions whenever needed?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Leadership

d)

Controlling

46.

Whose responsibility is it to set objectives that are consistent with an organisation's objectives as well as plan and implement the objectives?

a)

top management

b)

middle management

c)

lower level mangement

d)

team leader

47.

Businesses and enterprises operate in different sectors, which are based on stage of final product / service and skills required. These are (Choose your answers from the list)

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

e)

Pentagon

48.

The primary sector is the one that uses the raw material extracted or grown. This first stage of production

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Examples of primary sector are farming and mining

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The secondary sector uses the raw materials extracted and grown to make/ transform products which are then sold to consumers and other businesses.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

Tertiary sector provides services such as transport, education and retail i.e. in tertiary sector products are sold to consumers and other businesses

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Quaternary sector provides information services to customers such as IT consultancy, data analytics, R&D and media. The people working in quaternary sector are highly skilled

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Scope of business refers to number of employees it has and will be micro, small, medium or large

a)

True

b)

False

54.

The business operations defined by area such as local, national, international are categorized as being defined by

a)

Size

b)

Scope

c)

Space

d)

Sequence

55.

Local refers to businesses operating and serving customers with in 20 mile radius

a)

True

b)

False

56.

A business has customers in all regions of the UK. What is the scope of this business?

a)

Local

b)

National

c)

International

57.

Difference between business management and entrepreneurship is an entrepreneur's capacity and willingness to take risk and innovate to establish, run and manage a business

a)

True

b)

False

58.

A business set up to provide founder with enough income to enjoy the quality of the life they desire and provide flexibility are called

a)

Start ups

b)

Lifestyle Businesses

c)

Social Enterprises

d)

Franchises

59.

Businesses that trade to intentionally tackle social problems, improve communities, provide people access to employment and training, or help the environment are called

a)

Start ups

b)

Lifestyle enterprises

c)

Social enterprises

d)

Franchises

60.

A business that is set up when the owner allows other people to use the name and branding of an established business are called ....................... and are effectively the agent of established business

a)

Start ups

b)

Lifestyle enterprises

c)

Social enterprises

d)

Franchises

61.

A franchisor pays a fee to a franchisee and acts as its agent to use name and branding of an established business.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

Luisa left university and wanted a career as travel writer. She soon realized this job was virtually impossible but her heart was set on travelling, managing her own future and earning enough money to sustain this way of life. She now combines writing, teaching and managing a band and this allows her the flexibility to travel and work. Choose the answer(s) from below

a)

Start up

b)

Lifestyle enterprise

c)

Social Enterprise

d)

Franchise

63.

Attaining success in a consultancy journey is a combination of three factors. These are:

a)

Functional + Organizational prowess + EQ in client management

b)

Functional + Documentation prowess + EQ in client management

c)

Functional + Technical prowess + EQ in client management

d)

Functional + Communication skills + EQ in client management

64.

It is NOT okay to have ‘just enough’ knowledge of the business. As integration consultants, complete familiarization of industry jargons is needed.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

In a project kick off, establishing our competency is encouraged by exercising the following except:

a)

Research the functional / Birds eye view of the project. Read SoW / reading materials 100x.

b)

Research systems involved (beyond schema) as deep as you can.

c)

Learn and observe the project roles, stakeholders. Invest time observing tendencies, behaviors, character, influence.

d)

Based on your research alone, exhibit mastery of the end to end and avoid asking further questions to impress the client.

66.

Communication between stakeholders and counterparts is NOT within the scope of a competent software engineer/consultant.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Which of the following exhibits a consultative mindset.

a)

A. “I don’t think constant back and forth with the client for feedback is necessary”.

b)

B. “Ben presented an outdated data, but I might cause a scene if I raise it. I’ll leave it for now.”

c)

C. “Hi, Kara! I noticed we might have missed something crucial in this API, can we revisit our design again?”

d)

D. “The client shut off my suggestion last time. I shouldn't offer any suggestions moving forward.”

68.

Based on the presentation, what will you gain from improving your consultative mindset?

a)

A. Broader Outlook, Morale Boost, Chance to Practice Soft Skills

b)

B. Broader Outlook, Morale Boost, Chance to Practice Tech Skills

c)

C. Broader Outlook, Morale Boost, Chance to Practice Mulesoft Skills

d)

D. Broader Outlook, Morale Boost, Chance to Practice Salesforce Skills

69.

Which would most likely result in delay, rework and defects during testing?

a)

A. Lack of foresight at analysis phase / beginning.

b)

B. Lack of MUnit scenarios

c)

C. Lack of follow-ups with the client

d)

D. Lack of details in Logging implementation

70.

_______ mindset should be actively cultivated and practice to deliver effectively in a project as Integration Experts.

a)

A. Administrative

b)

B. Deep

c)

C. Consultative

d)

D. Collaborative

71.

What are the Five Project Management Process Groups in order?

a)

Initiating, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, Executing, and Closing.

b)

Initiating, Monitoring & controlling, Planning, Executing, and Closing

c)

Initiating, Executing, Planning, Monitoring & Controlling, and Closing

d)

Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling. and Closing

72.

You are a Project Manager currently. You have finalized the list of Stakeholders. Which Process Group are you working in?

a)

Planning

b)

Executing

c)

Monitoring & controlling

d)

Initiating

73.

Full form of CSM is ?

a)

Client Success Manager

b)

Customer Success Manager

c)

Customer Success Management

d)

Client Success Management

74.

No charges are associated with any complex integration requests

a)

True

b)

False

75.

CCDA Stands for

a)

Cumulative Clinical Document Architect

b)

Consolidated Clinic Document Architecture

c)

Consolidated Clinical Document Architecture

d)

common clinical document architecture

76.

A project Phase is always

a)

Dynamic

b)

Unique

c)

Interesting

d)

Redundant

77.

The sooner you identify these _____the sooner you nip negative developments

a)

Risk

b)

Goal

c)

requirement

d)

advantages

78.

What is a scope creep?

a)

Change of request

b)

modification request

c)

additional request

d)

not clearly defined

79.

During which phase of a project is the project plan most closely monitored?

a)

Design phase

b)

Planning and analysis phase

c)

Implementation or publishing phase

d)

Building and testing phase

80.

Which SDLC Model do we follow?

a)

Spiral

b)

Agile

c)

Waterfall

d)

Iterative

81.

What skills are needed to successfully complete projects?

a)

Leadership skills

b)

Interpersonal skills

c)

Teamwork skills

d)

Listening skills

82.

User Acceptance testing and End user testing are one and the same ?

a)

True

b)

False

83.

INM Stands for ?

a)

Integration Network Management

b)

Interface Network Management

c)

Integration Network Monitoring

d)

Interface network Monitoring

84.

What is a cycle time ?

a)

Diff in days between phase assigned and actual deployment date

b)

Diff in days between phase Project created and actual deployment date

c)

Diff in days between phase assigned and closing date

85.

SLA stands for ?

a)

Standard level agreement

b)

Service Level Assignment

c)

Service Level Agreement

86.

FTE Stands for ?

a)

Full Time Equivalent

b)

Full Time Employee

c)

Full Time Engineer

d)

Full time engagement

87.

How many FTE do we have in citius complex workstream

a)

11

b)

10

c)

13

88.

Who is your MDL ?

a)

Srikant Keerti

b)

Vaishali Nambiar

c)

Mukund Ambardekar

d)

Bhaskar

89.

Who is your BPO ?

a)

Meghan Hoegler

b)

Corinne Depietro

c)

Jordan Natale

d)

Yiu Wing

90.

Who are our covering Resources?

a)

Rutuja Sawant

b)

Maragani Naveen

c)

Prem Solanki

d)

Rohit Mourya

91.

Solution selling is

a)

Get the complete set of products, accessories & services

b)

Meets their need

c)

Enhances their overall experience

d)

All of the above

92.

3rd step is Solution selling is

a)

Answering Objections

b)

Demonstrating complete solution

c)

Greeting the customer

93.

Acknowledge customer when they are

a)

3 feet of approach ability

b)

7 feet of approach ability

c)

10 feet of approach ability

94.

Positive body language is

a)

Closed Body language

b)

Leaning

c)

Confident

d)

Drooping shoulders

95.

Type of Probing - How often you will use the product?

a)

Specific Probes

b)

Product-Specific

c)

General Probes

d)

None

96.

Type of questions we ask to the customer

a)

Close ended questions

b)

Direct questions

c)

Open ended questions

97.

Demonstrations include

a)

Product knowledge

b)

Test Drive

c)

ResQ Plans

d)

Greeting

98.

Select Non verbal ques

a)

Looking at one product

b)

Grabbing Purse/Wallet

c)

Can you deliver it tomorrow?

d)

Playing with the product on their own

99.

Select Verbal Cues

a)

Looking at one product

b)

Can I pay in EMIs?

c)

Grabbing Purse/Wallet

d)

Do you have stock of this model?

100.

Which one is wrong about litmus?

a)

1 to 6 - Red

b)

9 to 10 - Green

c)

5 to 7 - Amber

101.

Select the response in case Customer didn't purchased the product

a)

Suggest 2-3 options

b)

Note the customer's contact number

c)

Ignore the customer

d)

Ask relevant questions to the customer

102.

Techniques of Selling accessories

a)

Solution Selling

b)

Upselling

c)

Cross Selling

103.

A customer comes to your store looking for a mobile worth 15,000 but you sold mobile worth 25,000. Which type of selling is this ?

a)

Cross Selling

b)

Upselling

c)

Solution Selling

104.

Cross Selling is

a)

Mobile and Fit bit

b)

Refrigerator and Microwave

c)

Washing machine and Iron

d)

From 32GB SD Card to 64GB SD Card

105.

Correct Order of Selling steps

a)

Greet > Qualify > Demo >Objection answering > Asking for sale> Complete the Sale

b)

Greet > Demo > Qualify > Asking for sale >Objection answering > Complete the Sale

c)

Greet > Qualify > Demo > Asking for sale >Objection answering > Complete the Sale

106.

Are deed, processes and performances provided or coproduced by one entity for another entity or person.

a)

Package

b)

Amenity

c)

Services

d)

Marketing

107.

Which of the following is an example of professional services?

a)

Hotel

b)

Travel Agencies

c)

Accounting

d)

All of these

108.

.....is the physical surroundings or the physical facility where the service is produced, delivered and consumed.

a)

Servicespace

b)

Serviceplace

c)

Servicescape

d)

Servicescope

109.

Which of the following is not an element of physical evidence?

a)

Employee dress

b)

Equipment

c)

Employee training

d)

Facility design

110.

Service delivery and customer satisfaction depend on employee actions because services are

a)

Perishable

b)

Standardized

c)

Heterogeneous

d)

Tangible

111.

Which of the following is not a tangible dominant?

a)

Detergents

b)

Investment Management

c)

Automobiles

d)

Soft drinks

112.

In services, mass production is easy.

a)

True

b)

False

113.

Services are typically produced and consumed simultaneously. This is an example of the

________characteristic of services.

a)

Intangibility

b)

Inseparability

c)

Heterogeneous

d)

Pershiable

114.

According to research,resolving customer problems effectively has a strong impact on:

a)

Customer Satisfaction

b)

Loyalty

c)

Word-of-mouth Communication

d)

All of the above

115.

Services can not be stored. This describes the ___________characteristic of services

a)

Variability

b)

Inseparability

c)

Inconsistency

d)

Perishability

116.

__________describes the employees skills in serving the client

a)

Interactive marketing

b)

External Marketing

c)

Internal Marketing

d)

Communication Marketing

117.

If a firm is practicing ____________________, the firm is training and effectively

motivating its customer-contact employees and all of the supporting service people to work as

a team to provide customer satisfaction

a)

Double-up marketing

b)

Interactive marketing

c)

Internal marketing

d)

External marketing

118.

_________ is the environment in which the service is delivered and where the firm and

customer interact and any tangible components that facilitates performance or communication

of the service.

a)

People

b)

Process

c)

Promotion

d)

Physical evidence

119.

surgery , consultancy ,teaching are examples of

a)

Tangible goods

b)

major services with minor goods

c)

minor services with major goods

d)

Pure services

120.

Identify the ODD one

a)

HDFC

b)

IDBI

c)

IRDAI

d)

ICICI

121.
What is non-verbal communication
a)
communicating with someone by using gestures
b)
Getting messages across with facial expressions
c)
Using your body language to convey something to someone else
d)
All of the above
122.
Which of these is NOT an example of a verbal communication skill
a)
The speed of our speech
b)
Eye contact
c)
Language used
d)
Volume of speech
123.
The loudness or softness of the speaker's voice
a)
rate
b)
pitch
c)
volume
d)
posture
124.

What is verbal communication?

a)

gestures, facial expressions, and body positions

b)

use of language

125.

Communication without words is called

a)

Silent speaking

b)

Verbal communication

c)

Nonverbal communication

d)

Interpersonal communication

126.
When you speak, your listener gets messages from...
a)
What you say and your vocabulary
b)
How you look and your words
c)
What you say, how you act, and your accent
d)
What you say, how you act, and how you look
127.
Non verbal language includes facial expressions, gestures, eye contact and ________.
a)
laughing 
b)
appearance
c)
posture
d)
all of the above 
128.

Examples of correctly using speech and volume skills include...

a)

Giving the right info, speaking at the right volume, and articulating your words.

b)

Speaking softly, use long pauses, and positive facial expressions.

c)

Keep eye contact, speaking loudly, and using the right language.

d)

Hold your head high, yell all your words, and keep your eyes closed.

129.

Juan is drumming his fingers on the table while his mother gives him directions for cleaning the house. This gesture communicates

a)

worried

b)

impatience

c)

contempt

d)

disgust

130.

Mr. Jones is stroking his chin while talking to his Science class. What is he communicating?

a)

Anger

b)

Fear

c)

Contempt

d)

Trying to make a decision

131.

When asked if she was cheating during the test by her teacher, Kim looks down at the floor. What is her body language communicating?

a)

fear

b)

sadness

c)

guilt

d)

concealing something

132.

John bites his fingernails but only in the presence of his coach. What is his body language communicating?

a)

sadness

b)

insecurity

c)

fear

d)

anger

133.

Which of the following is a barrier to communication?

a)

Message is not clear

b)

Not listening

c)

Lack of language skills

d)

All of the above

134.

Facial expressions, posture and eye contact are all skills in ....?

a)

verbal communication

b)

anti-verbal communication

c)

post-verbal communication

d)

non-verbal communication

135.
Non-verbal communication can stand-alone by itself and it is not linked to verbal cues.
a)
True
b)
False
136.
Communication is always a ___ way process.
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
four
137.
Communication is the process of sending and receiving messages 
a)
true 
b)
false
138.
Making eye contact is a form of body language.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
139.

The process of exchanging thoughts and messages between two or more people is the definition of...

a)

Eye Contact

b)

Communication

c)

Conflict

d)

Communion

140.

What type of language listed below is considered to always be unacceptable? Select ALL that apply.

a)

Persuasive

b)

Judgmental

c)

Informative

d)

Assumptive

e)

Sexist

141.

To be a leader

a)

is easy

b)

something you are born to do

c)

takes hard work and a willingness to lead

d)

you must be very smart

142.

Workers with leadership skills

a)

will have more job opportunities

b)

are more likely to advance within a company

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

143.

The benefits of being a leader are

a)

wealth, fame, happiness

b)

self-confidence, self-fulfillment, and self-worth

c)

self-confidence, wealth, fame

d)

none of the above

144.

These are leadership skills except

a)

Feedback

b)

Responsibility

c)

Communication

d)

Kindness

145.

What is a characteristic that you believe every leader should process?

a)

Kind hearted & Loyalty

b)

Delegating & Flexibility

c)

Smart & Loyalty

d)

Communication & Handosome

146.

What is positive personality?

a)

Humerous & Kind Hearted

b)

Optimistic & Impulsive

c)

Confident person & Optimistic

147.

Human to human, Human to Machine and Machine to Machine are ... skill?

a)

Responsibility

b)

Positive Personality

c)

Commitment

d)

Feedback

148.

What skills that will help you to convey you to trustworthiness as a leader?

a)

Integrity

b)

Reliability

c)

Honesty

d)

Moral Compass

149.

How may a good leader motivate others?

a)

positive atitude

b)

verbal encouragement

c)

being passionate about what they are doing

d)

all of the above

150.

Why are communication skills important for a leader?

a)

so they can tell people what to do

b)

to be able to deceive followers

c)

none of the above

d)

to be able to explain their goal or vision

151.

The foundation of any relationships is

a)

trust

b)

bravery

c)

looks

d)

all of the above

152.

An honest leader has

a)

morals

b)

values

c)

integrity

d)

all of the above

153.

What is the first step in becoming a leader?

a)

understanding yourself

b)

understanding qualities of a follower

c)

understanding the qualities great leaders have

d)

all of the above

154.

A leader that is dependable

a)

keeps their commitment


b)

is willing to make personal sacrifices

c)

doesn't make excuses and stays on the job unit it is done

d)

all of the above

155.

A good leader must have courage because they

a)

make many difficult decisions

b)

must fight other people

c)

will be physically challenged

d)

all of the above

156.
When someone keeps their word and follows through with a task
a)
courage
b)
dependability
c)
decisiveness
d)
endurance
157.

What would a leader do if they had a teammate that was struggling with their game?

a)

Tell the coach you don't want them on the team

b)

Make fun of them when they fail

c)

Show them how to improve what they are doing and encourage them to be positive

d)

Ignore them, it isn't your problem

158.

What is "self-discipline"?

a)

being the most intelligent person

b)

self-dis-cip-line

c)

the quality or fact of continuing to exist, persistence

d)

the ability to control one's feelings and overcome one's weaknesses

159.

Define Leadership:

a)

Coercing individuals to perform as a team.

b)

Inspiring fear among team members in order to accomplish goals.

c)

Influencing individuals into doing things they don't want to do.

d)

Projecting control over others in order to get the job done.

160.

Identify the four qualities and skills that make great leaders.

a)

Outgoing, humor, emotional, and egotistical.

b)

Impulsive, trustworthy, selfish, and doubtful.

c)

Knowledgeable, temperamental, judging, and pessimist.

d)

Communication, confidence, integrity, and attitude.

161.

1. What is the first step in effective management?

a)

   a) Identifying challenges

b)

   b) Exploring contextual issues

c)

   c) Discovering required qualities and abilities

d)

   d) Defining performance goals

162.

2. Which of the following is a responsibility of managers?

a)

   a) Implementing technical tasks only

b)

   b) Avoiding involvement in employee development

c)

   c) Ignoring contextual challenges

d)

   d) Identifying roles and responsibilities

163.

3. What is the primary goal of performance management?

a)

   a) Reducing workforce diversity

b)

   b) Avoiding coaching discussions

c)

   c) Identifying disciplinary measures

d)

   d) Improving employee performance

164.

4. What is an essential step in addressing challenges in performance management?

a)

   a) Ignoring employee feedback

b)

   b) Skipping self-audits

c)

   c) Identifying the process and challenges

d)

   d) Avoiding feedback conversations

165.

5. What is a key aspect of effective leadership for diverse teams?

a)

   a) Using a single leadership style for all situations

b)

   b) Adapting leadership styles to different situations

c)

   c) Ignoring communication with direct reports

d)

   d) Avoiding leadership flexibility

166.

6. In SLII®, what skill is emphasized to accelerate team members' goal completion?

a)

   a) Using the same leadership style consistently

b)

   b) Avoiding conversations with direct reports

c)

   c) Using only one leadership style

d)

   d) Adapting leadership styles to tasks and people

167.

 

7. What is the importance of coaching for managers?

a)

   a) It focuses solely on disciplining employees.

b)

   b) It promotes conflict within the team.

c)

   c) It enhances employee development and performance.

d)

   d) It avoids direct communication with employees.

168.

8. What is a key aspect of effective coaching micro-skills?

a)

   a) Avoiding feedback and guidance

b)

   b) Ignoring employee challenges

c)

   c) Providing clear expectations and support

d)

   d) Implementing disciplinary actions immediately

169.

9. What role does a manager play in employee motivation?

a)

   a) Decreasing motivation through micromanagement

b)

   b) Ignoring employee needs and concerns

c)

   c) Recognizing and enhancing employee motivation

d)

   d) Focusing solely on individual achievements

170.

10. What managerial practice contributes to building a motivational climate?

a)

    a) Underestimating the importance of feedback

b)

    b) Avoiding recognition of employee efforts

c)

    c) Providing opportunities for growth and development

d)

    d) Maintaining a rigid leadership style

171.

11. What is the purpose of using the AMA Guide during a coaching discussion?

a)

    a) To avoid addressing employee concerns

b)

    b) To follow a generic coaching script

c)

    c) To manage the coaching process effectively

d)

    d) To delegate coaching responsibilities

172.

12. How does effective coaching contribute to performance improvement?

a)

    a) By solely focusing on disciplinary actions

b)

    b) By avoiding direct communication with employees

c)

    c) By enhancing employee development and skills

d)

    d) By ignoring employee challenges

173.

13. What types of delegation can managers engage in?

a)

    a) Solely task-related delegation

b)

    b) Only delegation of decision-making authority

c)

    c) Both task-related and developmental delegation

d)

    d) Avoiding delegation altogether

174.

14. Why is assessing current delegation practices important for managers?

a)

    a) To avoid employee involvement in decision-making

b)

    b) To maintain a rigid approach to delegation

c)

    c) To identify challenges and opportunities for improvement

d)

    d) To discourage employee growth and development

175.

15. What is the purpose of a self-reflection worksheet on business ethics?

a)

    a) To encourage unethical behavior in the workplace

b)

    b) To assess employees' technical skills

c)

    c) To guide managers in making ethical decisions

d)

    d) To avoid ethical considerations

176.

16. Which asset provides information on motivation and delegation?

a)

    a) A self-audit worksheet

b)

    b) A digital asset on performance alignment

c)

    c) A motivational climate worksheet

d)

    d) An AMA digital asset on motivation and delegation

177.

An organization's value chain can be represented by a special type of flowchart called SIPOC. SIPOC stands for:

a)

Superior service, inferior service, peak hour service, optimized service, and client service

b)

Simple, intellectual, procedural, optimal coding

c)

Sample, information, practice, organization, and control

d)

Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers

178.

Verified deliverables are inputs in which of the following scope management processes?

a)

Define Scope

b)

Create WBS

c)

Validate Scope

d)

Control Scope

179.

Which of the following processes produces a work breakdown structure as an output?

a)

Create WBS

b)

Define Scope

c)

Develop Project Management Plan

180.

All of the following are true regarding the Control Scope process EXCEPT:

a)

It assures that underlying causes of all requested changes and recommended corrective actions are understood and processed through the Integrated Change Control process

b)

One of the key focuses in the process may be dispute resolution related to project scope

c)

It monitors the status of the project and product scope, maintains control over the project by preventing overwhelming scope change requests, and manages changes to the scope baseline

d)

It verifies the correctness of work results

181.

A project manager, managing a data center project, had the opportunity to attend several meetings about the project prior to the creation of the project charter. In one of the meetings, the sponsor specifically denied funding for two very specific items. Two months into the project, a couple of stakeholders requested the project manager add work for one of the items that was strongly denied by the sponsor. What will be the best thing the project manager can do in this situation?

a)

Add the work if it does not have much impact on the schedule

b)

Inform the stakeholders that the work cannot be added

c)

Evaluate the impact of adding the work on time, cost, quality, risk, human resource, and other elements

d)

Immediately inform the sponsor about the request that was denied by him

182.

Completion of the product scope is measured against which one of the following?

a)

Scope statement

b)

Project requirements

c)

Project objectives

d)

Product requirements

183.

Your company, ITProConsultancy, has assigned you as the project manager to upgrade the call center in your organization. The number of calls the customer support agents have to answer each month has increased drastically in the last five months, and the phone system is approaching the maximum load limit. Your team has worked on the requirements document and the project scope statement, and you are now ready to create the WBS with the help of your team members. All of the following are true regarding the WBS EXCEPT:

a)

The WBS represents all the work required to be completed in the project

b)

Each level of the WBS represents a verifiable product or results

c)

Activities in the WBS should be arranged in the proper sequence they will be performed

d)

The WBS should be decomposed to a level called the work package level where cost and schedule can easily be calculated

184.

Sarah, a project manager, is in the Define Scope process of developing a comprehensive, detailed description of the project and product. Which of the following is NOT a tool & technique used in this Define Scope process?

a)

Product Analysis

b)

Expert Judgement

c)

Data Analysis

d)

Data Representation

185.

Your project to build a new substation to supply power to a newly developed industrial park is not going too well. You are overwhelmed with numerous issues in the project and got really frustrated when the city conducted an inspection and reported a building code violation. You were asked by management to ensure full compliance to the mandatory city and construction industry standards. At this time, you are also approaching the final deadline of the project in two weeks. You have identified a couple of changes that will drastically enhance performance and make your clients very happy. While trying to sort out all these messes, you received a call from the senior engineer informing you that he would be leaving the company soon. Which is the MOST critical issue you should address first?

a)

Notify the customers about the possible delay in the project

b)

Initiate the change control process to implement new changes

c)

Find a replacement for the senior engineer

d)

Ensure compliance with the city and construction industry standards

186.

As a project manager, you are responsible for determining and delivering the required levels of both grade and quality. Select which of the following statements you disagree with.

a)

Grade relates to the product's characteristics.

b)

Grade relates to the customer requirements.

c)

Quality relates to the customer requirements.

d)

Quality and grade of a product must be carefully managed.

187.

A project manager is in the Control Scope process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope, maintaining control over the project by preventing overwhelming scope change requests, and managing changes to the scope baseline. Which one of the following is NOT true about this process?

a)

The Control Scope process must be integrated with other control processes

b)

It should be performed prior to scope planning

c)

Variance analysis is used as a tool & technique in this process

d)

Work performance information and change requests are the key outputs in this process

188.

A project manager is in the Collect Requirements process of collecting and documenting quantifiable needs and expectations of the sponsor, customer, and other stakeholders. Which of the following is NOT true regarding this process?

a)

It describes project deliverables and the work required to create them in detail as well as deliverables description, product acceptance criteria, requirements assumptions and constraints, and exclusions from requirements

b)

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix are the key outputs in this process

c)

Interpersonal and team skills and data representations are used as tools & techniques in this process

d)

The scope management plan and requirements management plan are inputs in this process

189.

You have been selected as the project manager for a major data center upgrade at your company headquarters. The sponsor has handed you a project charter and wished you the best of luck. What should you do next as the first step?

a)

Instruct the team to work on a project scope statement

b)

Instruct the team to work on the WBS

c)

Review the charter and make sure that all key stakeholders have inputs into the scope

d)

Start working on planning the project

190.

As per the project manager’s instruction, the team has decomposed project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components to develop a WBS and WBS dictionary. The team finalized the WBS by establishing control or cost accounts and unique identifiers for the lower-level components of the WBS called work packages. Normally presented in the chart form, this WBS provides a structure for hierarchical summation of:

a)

Cost and schedule information

b)

Cost and requirements information

c)

Cost, resource, and schedule information

d)

Schedule and requirements information

191.

The sponsor has recently assigned you as a project manager to design and develop a custom video conferencing tool. As per the sponsor, the project must be completed in four months and should integrate with the existing infrastructure and applications in the organization. This is an example of which of the following?

a)

Constraints

b)

Assumptions

c)

Expert judgment

d)

High-level planning

192.

Walkthroughs, reviews, product reviews, and audits are examples of which one of the following methods of examining work or a product to determine whether it conforms to documented standards or not?

a)

Observation

b)

Verification

c)

Inspection

d)

Group decision-making techniques

193.

The team members are analyzing the objectives and description of the products stated by the customer or sponsor and turning them into tangible deliverables and finally creating the project scope statement. Which of the following BEST describes what the team members are doing?

a)

Performing the product analysis

b)

Performing the plan quality management

c)

Conducting a multi-criteria decision analysis

d)

Determining the product description

194.

Julia is managing a water treatment plant construction project. A new government has recently been sworn in. During the election campaign, the winning candidate made a number of commitments regarding environmental control reforms. Julia is not sure how the new government and its future policies might affect her project. This is an example of:

a)

Variability risk

b)

Mitigated risk

c)

Ambiguity risk

d)

Opportunity risk

195.

All of the following are TRUE about the Validate Scope process EXCEPT:

a)

Customer acceptance of the project deliverables is a key output of this process

b)

It is an input to the Develop Project Management Plan process and an output of the Control Quality process

c)

It should be performed at the end of each phase of the project

d)

This process is closely related to the Control Quality process

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