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Gen. Bio 1 and 2 V.3

Total questions: 111

Worksheet time: 10hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which definition of the magnification of a drawing of a leaf is correct?

a)

the actual size of the leaf multiplied by the magnification of the microscope

b)

the measured difference in size between the leaf and a drawing of the leaf

c)

the increase in size of the leaf when observed using a microscope

d)

the size of the drawing of the leaf divided by the actual size of the leaf

2.

The electron micrograph shows parts of two cells.

Which labelled features identify these cells as eukaryotic?

a)

W, X and Y

b)

W and X only

c)

W only

d)

X only

3.

Plant cells are stained and viewed using a microscope. The light source is natural light.

What could be clearly visible at x400 magnification?

a)

cristae of mitochondria

b)

grana of chloroplasts

c)

nucleoli

d)

ribosomes

4.

Which lengths are equivalent to 1 μ\mu  m?

1- 1000 mm

2- 0.001 nm

3- 0.001 mm

4- 1 000 000 nm

5- 0.01 mm

6- 1000 nm

a)

1 and 4

b)

2 and 5

c)

3 and 4

d)

3 and 6

5.

Some secretory cells synthesize and release glycoproteins. What is the correct sequence of some of the events that occur in a secretory cell?

1 exocytosis

2 products accumulate in secretory vesicles

3 mRNA binds to ribosomes

4 synthesis of glycoproteins

a)

3, 4, 1, 2

b)

3, 4, 2, 1

c)

4, 3, 1, 2

d)

4, 3, 2, 1

6.

What is the function of the type of organelle extracted in pellet 3?

a)

digestion of old cell organelles

b)

production of ATP by respiration

c)

synthesis of mRNA

d)

synthesis of protein

7.

What is the general formula for amylose?

a)

(C5H10O5)n

b)

(C5H10O6)n

c)

(C6H12O6)n

d)

(C6H10O5)n

8.

Which statement describes how the molecular structure of starch is suited to its function?

a)

Amylose has a branched structure and amylopectin is coiled to give a compact molecule for transport

b)

In the breakdown of amylose and amylopectin, many condensation reactions release stored energy

c)

In the formation of amylose and amylopectin, many hydrolysis reactions allow the release of stored energy

d)

Amylose and amylopectin form a complex that is insoluble and so does not affect the water potential of the cell

9.

Which statement about the ratio of short fatty acids (4-16 carbon atoms) to long fatty acids (18 or more carbon atoms) in the milk of cows and whales is correct?

a)

The ratio in cow milk is higher because newborn cows need more energy than newborn whales

b)

The ratio in cow milk is lower because newborn cows need less energy than newborn whales

c)

The ratio in whale milk is higher because newborn whales need less energy than newborn cows

d)

The ratio in whale milk is lower because newborn whales need more energy than newborn cows

10.

The structure of phospholipids includes:

1 polar phosphate heads

2 hydrophobic fatty and chains

3 saturated fatty acid chains

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 3

c)

2 and 3

d)

3 only

11.

Which molecules would result from the complete hydrolysis of the peptide?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which row identifies the different parts of the molecule?

a)

1- ∝\propto  -helix

2- β\beta  -pleated sheet

3- oxygen binding site

4- hydrophobic amino acids

b)

1- oxygen binding site

2- hydrophilic amino acids

3-   ∝\propto -helix

4- hydrophobic amino acids

c)

1- haem group

2- hydrophobic amino acids  

3-   ∝\propto -helix

4- hydrophilic amino acids

d)

1- hydrophobic amino acids

2- β\beta  -pleated sheet

3- haem atom

4- oxygen binding site

13.

A student investigated the effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of hydrolysis of protein in milk.

When the enzyme and milk were mixed, the protein was hydrolysed and the mixture changed from cloudy to clear.

The student investigated five different enzyme concentrations and recorded the time taken for the mixture to become clear.

What is an appropriate control for this investigation?

a)

Carrying out an experiment where the enzyme solution is replaced with water

b)

Carrying out each experiment in a thermostatically controlled water-bath at 35C

c)

Repeating each experiment three times for each of the five enzyme concentrations

d)

Using the same volume of enzyme solution for each of the five experiments

14.

What determines the specificity of an enzyme?

1 the covalent and other bonding between R groups of the polypeptide

2 the optimum pH of enzyme

3 the covalent peptide bonds between amino acids of the polypeptide

4 the shape of the substrate molecule

a)

1, 2, 3 and 4

b)

1 and 3 only

c)

1 only

d)

2, 3 and 4 only

15.

Which statements explain the shape of the graph at temperatures higher than T?

1 Bonds are broken between the R groups of the amino acids in the polypeptide chains of the enzyme

2 There are more collisions between the enzyme and its substrate

3 The tertiary structure of the enzyme is altered

4 The shapes of the active site and the substrate are no longer complementary

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1, 2 and 4

c)

1, 3 and 4

d)

2, 3 and 4

16.

Which statement describes carrier proteins in cell surface membranes?

a)

Carrier proteins are found on the outer surface of the membranes allowing cell recognition.

b)

Carrier proteins are involved in moving substances through the membranes by either active transport or passive transport.

c)

Carrier proteins allow the binding of ligand molecules, which causes changes within cells

d)

Carrier proteins are involved in moving substances through membranes by passive transport through water-filled pores

17.

What happens to a typical bacterium when it is placed in surroundings that have a higher water potential than the water potential inside the cell?

a)

The bacterium bursts because the cell wall has no structural function

b)

The bacterium dies because water leaves the cell by osmosis

c)

There is no change because the cell wall is impermeable to water

d)

There is a net movement of water into the bacterium

18.

By which process do hydrogencarbonate ions leave red blood cells?

a)

active transport

b)

endocytosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

phagocytosis

19.

In an experiment, fluorescent dyes were attached to proteins on the outer surface of cell surface membranes. Fluorescent dyes of one colour were attached to proteins of a living human cell and fluorescent dyes of a different colour were attached to proteins of a living mouse cell.

The human and the mouse cell were fused to form a hybrid cell.

At first, the proteins attached to different fluorescent dyes remained separate, but after 40 minutes the proteins were distributed randomly across the hybrid cell surface membrane.

What does this experiment show?

a)

Proteins are found only the outer surface of cell surface membranes

b)

Proteins in the outer layer of a bilayer do not penetrate into the inner layer

c)

Proteins move freely in the phospholipids of a bilayer

d)

The cell surface membranes of the two cells are bilayers

20.

The diagram shows the mitotic cell cycle.

During which phase is DNA replicate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

21.

Bacterial cells divide by a process called binary fission.

Which macromolecules must be synthesized for binary fission?

1 cell membrane proteins and RNA

2 DNA and peptidoglycan

3 enzymes and cellulose

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

2 and 3 only

d)

3 only

22.

Which label is correct for each of the structures labelled W, X and Y?

a)

W- centriole

X- centromere

Y- chromatid

b)

W- centriole

X- centromere

Y- microtubule

c)

W- centromere

X- telomere

Y- chromatid

d)

W- centromere

X- telomere

Y- microtubule

23.

Which statement about the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis is correct?

a)

The attach to spindle fibers to contain them within the nucleus

b)

They condense to prevent further translation of genes

c)

They reach the poles of the cell and begin to uncoil

d)

They replicate to produce sufficient DNA to form two new nuclei

24.

Gene mutations can occur by substitution, deletion or insertion.

What is the smallest part of a DNA molecule that can be changed by a gene mutation?

a)

base

b)

codon

c)

gene

d)

nucleotide

25.

Which statements about mRNA are correct?

1 mRNA can form base pairs

2 mRNA can form hydrogen bonds

3 mRNA is single stranded

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

2 and 3 only

26.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

27.

Which type of sugar and which type of bond are found in a DNA molecule?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

28.

Which row is correct for phloem?

a)

root- 1

stem- 3

leaf- 5

b)

root- 1

stem- 4

leaf- 6

c)

root- 2

stem- 3

leaf- 6

d)

root- 2

stem- 4

leaf- 5

29.

Sucrose moves from a phloem sieve tube element into a root cell.

Which changes to the water potential and the volume of liquid in the phloem sieve tube element are correct?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

30.

Which statements about water movement in plants are correct?

1 Water can pass through cell walls containing layers of cellulose fibres

2 Water can pass through cell walls containing rings or spiral of lignin

3 Water cannot pass through a band of suberin in cell walls

a)

1, 2 and 3

b)

1 and 2 only

c)

1 and 3 only

d)

2 and 3 only

31.

Which labelled features are characteristic adaptations of many xerophytes?

a)

1, 3, 4 and 5

b)

1, 2 and 3

c)

1, 2 and 5

d)

2, 3, 4 and 5

32.

A maize crop is growing successfully in a field in which the water potential of the soil is -40kPa.

What is the most likely water potential of the cell sap in the root hair cell?

a)

-60kPa

b)

-40kPa

c)

-20kPa

d)

0kPa

33.

The contraction of the heart is coordinated through electrical impulses passing through the cardiac muscle.

What is the correct order of part of the sequence of these impulses?

a)

right and left atria -> sinoatrial node -> atrioventricular node -> ventricular walls

b)

sinoatrial node -> right and left atria -> atrioventricular node -> Purkyne tissue

c)

sinoatrial node -> right and left atria -> Purkyne tissue -> atrioventricular node

d)

right and left atria -> sinoatrial node -> Purkyne tissue -> ventricular walls

34.

Which features allow the aorta to withstand high blood pressures?

a)

collagen fibres and elastin fibres

b)

collagen fibres and smooth muscle

c)

elastin fibres and endothelium

d)

endothelium and smooth muscle

35.

Which row is correct for the pulmonary artery?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

36.

Which conditions could change the shape of curve 1 to the shape of curve 2?

a)

increased carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH

b)

increased carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH

c)

decreased carbon dioxide concentration causing a decrease in pH

d)

decreased carbon dioxide concentration causing an increase in pH

37.

What maintains the necessary concentration gradients for carbon dioxide and oxygen in the lungs?

a)

good ventilation of the lungs

b)

large surface area of the alveoli

c)

the capillaries are close to the walls of the alveoli

d)

the walls of the alveoli are thin

38.

Which cells and tissues are present in the trachea?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

How many millions of people died in 2013 from the bacterial diseases listed in the table?

a)

0.02

b)

1.42

c)

2.45

d)

2.90

40.

Why is it difficult for B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes to respond to antigens on pathogens that are intracellular parasites?

a)

The antigens are constantly mutating

b)

The antigens can destroy the lymphocytes

c)

The lymphocytes do not encounter the antigens

d)

The lymphocytes do not recognise the antigens

41.

What type of reaction is shown in the diagram?

a)

Anabolic Reaction

b)

Combination Reaction

c)

Catabolic Reaction

d)

All of the above

42.

Which illustrates the substrate?

a)

Galactose

b)

Lactose

c)

Glucose

d)

Lactase

43.

Which is NOT a product of the catalyzed reaction shown in the diagram?

a)

Galactose

b)

Lactase

c)

Glucose

d)

None of the above

44.

Digestion starts in the mouth, where amylase and lingual lipase in the saliva break down fats and starch in the food. Which enzyme-substrate pairing is correct?

a)

amylase :: fats

b)

lingual lipase :: fats

c)

amylase :: lingual lipase

d)

lingual lipase :: starch

45.

In which way/s are carbohydrates and lipids similar?

a)

They are both exclusively made out of C, H, O, and N.

b)

They both provide energy.

c)

Both are made out of C, H, and O.

d)

Both can be made into simpler molecules.

46.

What is the simplest unit of a nucleic acid?

a)

amino acid

b)

monosaccharide

c)

glycerol

d)

nucleotide

47.

Based on the picture above, what are the structural components of lipids?

a)

1 glycerol and 3 molecules of water

b)

1 glycerol and 3 molecules of fatty acid chains

c)

3 molecules of fatty acids

d)

3 molecules of water and 3 fatty acid chains

48.

The graph shows changing energy levels during a reaction, with and without an enzyme specific to this reaction. Which shows the activation energy WITHOUT an enzyme?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

49.

Dino mixed a certain amount of chicken liver with hydrogen peroxide in a water bath. His first water bath was with icy water; the second was with boiling water; and the last was with lukewarm water. Among all of the reactions, the one with the lukewarm water released more bubbles compared to the other two. Dino made his conclusions based on his results. Which material contains the enzyme? Which material is the substrate?

a)

chicken liver :: water

b)

hydrogen peroxide :: chicken liver

c)

water :: chicken liver

d)

water :: hydrogen peroxide

50.

Why did the lukewarm water setup present the most reaction?

a)

The lukewarm water setup has the most chicken liver.

b)

The lukewarm water setup has the most hydrogen peroxide concentration.

c)

The lukewarm water setup has the most ideal temperature for enzymes to react.

d)

The chicken liver in the lukewarm water was already denatured which resulted in a very reactive effect.

51.

Why did the boiling water setup display less reaction compared to the icy water setup and the lukewarm water setup?

a)

The chicken liver, not the boiling water, is the cause of non-reaction.

b)

The boiling water evaporated the hydrogen peroxide which hampered the reaction.

c)

The boiling water caused the enzymes to be deactivated in a process called denaturation.

d)

The amount of hydrogen peroxide in the boiling water setup is not enough to show an acceptable rate of reaction.

52.

Most enzymes are _________.

a)

lipids

b)

nucleotides

c)

carbohydrates

d)

nucleic acids

e)

protein

53.

Proteins are composed of __________.

a)

amino acids linked together by peptide bonds

b)

monosaccharides linked together by glycosidic bonds

c)

nucleotides linked together by hydrogen bonds

d)

fatty acids linked to a glycerol molecule via ester bonds

54.

The main function of ATP is to act as a source of energy for cellular processes. The diagram shows a simple outline of the structure of an ATP molecule. Which bond breaks to release the energy stored in it?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

55.

Based on the graph, what is the optimum pH of amylase?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

7

d)

9

56.

Based on the graph, what is the optimum temperature of enzyme Z?

a)

35oC

b)

36oC

c)

37oC

d)

38oC

57.

What do you think will happen to enzyme Z at high temperatures?

a)

The enzyme will produce more substance to speed up the reaction.

b)

The enzyme will double.

c)

The enzyme will swell up.

d)

The enzyme will be denatured.

58.

Which illustration shows a competitive inhibition of enzyme activity?

a)

b)

c)

59.

  1. Which diagram shows a non-competitive inhibition of enzyme activity?

a)

b)

c)

60.

  1. Which illustration will show an enzyme-substrate complex?

a)

b)

c)

61.

The diagram provided gives a basic outline of the relationship between ATP and ADP. What types of reactions are reactions X and Y?

a)

Reaction X - Anabolism; Reaction Y - Catabolism

b)

Reaction X - Catabolism; Reaction Y - Anabolism

c)

Reaction X - Anabolism; Reaction Y - Anabolism

d)

Reaction X - Catabolism; Reaction X - Catabolism

62.

What does ADP stand for?

a)

adenosine dihydrophosphate

b)

adenosine diphosphatase

c)

adenosine diphosphate

d)

adenosine di-phosphorylase

63.

Why is it advised to get the right amount of cholesterol from the food we eat and not in excess?

a)

i only

b)

i and iii

c)

ii and iii

d)

i, ii, iii, and iv

64.

plants : cellulose :: bacteria : __________

a)

chitin

b)

peptidoglycan

c)

glycogen

d)

starch

65.

glucose : monosaccharide :: guanine : __________

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleotide

c)

fatty acid

d)

triglyceride

66.

glucose : hexose :: ribose : __________

a)

hexose

b)

pentose

c)

monomer

d)

triose

67.

lactase : lactose :: trypsin : _________

a)

DNA

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

sugars

68.

maltase : maltose :: acetylcholinesterase : __________

a)

DNA

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

sugars

69.

All of the following are the results of inhibitors binding to enzymes, EXCEPT:

a)

Activate chemical reactions in our cells

b)

Decrease enzyme activity

c)

Increase activation energy of a chemical reaction

d)

Slow down metabolism

70.

Which is FALSE about non-competitive inhibition?

a)

Non-competitive inhibitors bind a site other than the active site

b)

Non-competitive inhibitors can be overcome by increasing substrate concentration

c)

Non-competitive inhibitors change the conformation of the active site

d)

Non-competitive inhibitors actively block the enzyme from attaching to the substrate.

71.

a)

Enzyme Concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Substrate Concentration

d)

pH

72.

a)

Enzyme Concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Substrate Concentration

d)

pH

73.

a)

Enzyme Concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Substrate Concentration

d)

pH

74.

a)

Enzyme Concentration

b)

Temperature

c)

Substrate Concentration

d)

pH

75.

Disulfiram is an example of an enzyme inhibitor that inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase (ALDH). It prevents acetaldehyde from attaching to ALDH to produce acetic acid. Which inhibitor is Disulfiram?

a)

Competitive Inhibitor

b)

Non- Competitive Inhibitor

c)

Both A and B

d)

Disulfiram Inhibitor

76.

Enzyme activity is affected by the amount/concentration of enzymes and substrates. At a saturation point, excess substrates cannot bind to available enzymes anymore. How can you overcome the saturation point and increase the rate of reaction?

4 lines
77.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
78.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
79.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
80.
The process of making an mRNA strand from a DNA template is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein Synthesis
81.
The process of using an mRNA to make a protein is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Cell Division
82.
Transcription takes place in the 
a)
cytoplasm
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
83.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
84.

STRUCTURE: One difference between RNA and DNA is -

a)

RNA has thymine where DNA has ademine

b)

DNA is single stranded where RNA is double stranded

c)

DNA is made in the nucleus where RNA is made in the ribosomes

d)

RNA is single stranded where DNA is double stranded

85.

STRUCTURE: What Nitrogenous Base does RNA contain that DNA does not?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Love

86.

STRUCTURE: Which 2 molecules form the sides of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose and adenine

b)

deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond

c)

sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate

87.

GENERAL: DNA is found in the:

a)

cell membrane

b)

vacuole

c)

chloroplast

d)

nucleus

88.

STRUCTURE: Nucleotides monomers are made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a:

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

nucleic acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

fatty acid

89.

STRUCTURE: The five-carbon sugar found in DNA.

a)

ribose

b)

guanine

c)

deoxyribose

d)

helicase

90.

TRANSLATION:

This is

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

DNA

d)

a ribosome

91.

TRANSCRIPTION: What is the mRNA complementary mRNA base sequence for: CAGTTCCAG

a)

GUCAAGGUC

b)

GTGAAGGTC

92.

HISTORY: Built the first correct model of DNA

a)

Watson and Crick

b)

Linnus Pauling

c)

Rosalind Franklin

d)

Hershey and Chase

93.

REPLICATION:

DNA replication is when:

a)

DNA makes DNA

b)

DNA makes RNA

c)

RNA makes Protein

d)

DNA makes Protein

94.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
95.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
96.
The following picture must be
a)
DNA because it's double stranded
b)
RNA because it's single stranded
c)
DNA because it's single stranded
d)
RNA because it's double stranded
97.
What does this picture represent?
a)
amino acid
b)
base pairing
c)
nucleotide
d)
the DNA molecule
98.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
99.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
100.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
101.
What is the correct complimentary strand for the following DNA?ATCGAG
a)
TACGAG
b)
ATCGAG
c)
TAGCTG
d)
TAGCTC
102.
Which type of RNA takes the instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA polymerase
103.
What is the product of translation?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
104.
What is the product of transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
105.
How many nucleotides make a codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
106.
What is the central dogma of molecular biology?
a)
RNA-protein-DNA
b)
RNA-DNA-protein
c)
DNA-protein-RNA
d)
DNA-RNA-prtein
107.

There are 3 types of RNA. What are they? (Select all that apply)

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

xRNA

108.

What combines together to make a protein?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

DNA

109.

What is the order for Protein Synthesis?

a)

Transcription -> Translation -> Protein

b)

Translation - > Transcription -> Protein

c)

Protein -> Transcription -> Translation

d)

Translation -> Protein -> Transcription

110.

What type of RNA is shown in this image?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

111.
I am arranged as a double helix or "twisted ladder".
a)
DNA
b)
RNA

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