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Biology STAAR Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

NUCLEOTIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

2.

AMINO ACIDS ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

3.

FATTY ACIDS AND GLYCEROL ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF..

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

4.

WHAT ELEMENTS DO ALL BIOMOLECULES (LIPIDS, PROTEINS, NUCLEIC ACIDS, CARBS) HAVE IN COMMON?

a)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, FLOURINE

b)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, CHLORINE

c)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, IODINE

d)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, OXYGEN

5.

This cell is a -

a)

PROKARYOTIC

b)

PLANT

c)

ANIMAL

d)

PROTIST

6.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
7.

What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...

a)

store genetic information

b)

have chloroplasts

c)

use glucose for cellular respiration

d)

have endoplasmic reticulum

8.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing (exploding)?

a)

lytic

b)

mitosis

c)

lysogenic

d)

S phase

9.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
10.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
11.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
12.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

13.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage

14.

Which of these is a function of the cell membrane in all cells?

a)

Producing cellular nutrients

b)

Maintaining homeostasis

c)

Neutralizing chemicals

d)

Preserving cellular wastes

15.

Which of the following is correct about the events of the cell cycle?

a)

Little happens during the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle.

b)

DNA replicates during the S phase of interphase.

c)

Mitosis is usually the longest phase of the cell cycle when the cell is growing.

d)

Interphase consists of G1, S, G2 phase and mitosis

16.

A segment of DNA is shown in the diagram. Which of these identifies the part of the DNA segment labeled X?

a)

Nucleotide

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Hydrogen bond

d)

Deoxyribose

17.

A segment of a DNA strand is shown.

3' AGGTCAGGT 5'

Which of these is the correct complementary DNA strand for the segment shown?

a)

5' AGGTCAGGT 3'

b)

5' ACCUGAGGU 3'

c)

5' TGGACTGGA 3'

d)

5' TCCAGTCCA 3'

18.

When crossed with the genotype AaBb, which genotype would result in a 50% chance of producing offspring with the alleles AA?

a)

AaBb

b)

AABb

c)

Aabb

d)

aaBB

19.

Delray has dimples and his wife does not. Delray has a homozygous dominant genotype for dimples, and his wife has a homozygous recessive genotype for no dimples.

If Delray and his wife decide to have children, then which Punnett square correctly shows the probability of them having a child with dimples?

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

What allele combination should go in the missing box of the Punnett square?

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

none of these

21.

A = Brown hair and a = blond hair

What are the phenotype percentages of the offspring?

a)

50% Brown hair and 50% Blond hair

b)

25% Brown hair and 75% Blond hair

c)

75% Brown hair and 25% Blond hair

d)

0% Brown hair and 100% Blond hair

22.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
23.
What is one way that a lysogenic infection differs from a lytic infection?
a)
A lysogenic virus does not act on bacteria as a lytic virus does.
b)
A lysogenic virus can remain in the host DNA for a longer period without becoming active.
c)
A lysogenic virus contains RNA instead of DNA.
d)
A lysogenic virus directs the production of new viruses right away.
24.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

25.

The image shows part of the humerus bone in different genera of primates.

Which statement is best supported by the observable structures of the different humerus bones?

a)

The primates lived in similar environments.

b)

The primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

The primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

The primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

26.

Researchers studying populations of lizards from the genus Gallotia on the Canary Islands compared the protein cytochrome b in different populations. The table shows the number of differences in the cytochrome b protein between different populations.


Which conclusion about the relatedness of the lizards do these data support?

a)

G. atlantica and G. stehlini are the least closely related. .

b)

G. simonyi and G. bravoana are the most closely related.

c)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti palmae are the most closely related.

d)

G. galloti eisentrauti and G. galloti galloti are the least closely related

27.

The graph shows the number of taxa of reptiles whose fossilized tracks have been found.

Which statement is best supported by these data?

a)

Competition for food and shelter among reptile species was very low during the Triassic period.

b)

A great extinction occurred during the Jurassic period.

c)

Environmental conditions for speciation were most favorable for reptiles during the Permian period.

d)

Reptiles adapted to a terrestrial environment during the Cretaceous period.

28.

The diagram shows light- and dark-colored beetles that live on a tree.

Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

29.

The white cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between the broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states. Which of these explains the success of the white cattail?

a)

Favorable genes from parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.

b)

Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments.

c)

Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.

d)

Hybrid species display more adaptations due to their reduced genetic diversity.

30.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage

31.

Common baboons live on the savanna in breeding groups called troops. While females tend to stay with the troop, younger or less dominant males may leave to join a neighboring troop. Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by young males?

a)

Gene flow occurs between populations.

b)

Allele frequencies suddenly change.

c)

Relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state.

d)

Intermediate phenotypes increase in the species.

32.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

33.

Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.

b)

Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.

c)

Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.

d)

Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.

34.
Name the phase
a)
metaphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
35.
DNA is replicated during the ______ phase of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
Synthesis
c)
G2
d)
G0
36.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
37.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
38.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that often feed on parasites that infest impala.  This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
39.
The reactants of photosynthesis are
a)
sugar and water.
b)
sugar and oxygen.
c)
carbon dioxide and water.
d)
carbon dioxide and oxygen.
40.
What occurs after a disturbance that leaves soil intact?
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax community
41.
How can you tell that Zebra Mussles are an invasive species from the graph shown?
a)
The population of rotifers goes up after zebra mussels they are introduced.
b)
The population of rotifers goes down after zebra mussels are introduced.
c)
The population of rotifers stays about the same after zebra mussels are introduced.
d)
The population of zebra mussels goes down after they are introduced.
42.

What are the offspring's possible phenotypes?

Brown fur is dominant. White fur is recessive.

One parent is homozygous for brown fur as the other is heterozygous.

a)

100% White fur

b)

50% Brown fur 50% White fur

c)

100% Brown fur

d)

75% Brow fur 25% White fur

43.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
44.

How do enzymes speed up chemical reaction?

a)

Increasing activation energy

b)

Decreasing activation energy

c)

Increasing deactivation energy

d)

Decreasing deactivation energy

45.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
46.

Influenza infects a cell and causes it to lyse immediately. What do they use the appendages on the outside of this picture for?

a)

Attachment

b)

Poison host

c)

Replicate dna

d)

Create a nucleus

47.

This diagram is demonstrating

a)

Mutation

b)

Non-random mating

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

e)

Natural Selection

48.
Crossing over helps promote 
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
49.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UAA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Isoleucine

d)

Stop codon

50.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
51.

Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism?

a)

Nitrogen Bases

b)

Phosphate

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Deoxyribose Sugar

52.
Which of the following are monomers of proteins?
a)
monosaccharides
b)
nucleotides
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
53.
a cell organelle composed of RNA and protein; the site of protein synthesis
a)
nucleotide
b)
protein
c)
ribosome
d)
RNA
54.
What process is occurring in the diagram?
a)
DNA replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
55.

What amino acid is represented by the codon TAC?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Methionine

d)

Isoleucine

56.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
57.

What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?

a)

the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases

b)

the order of the nitrogen bases

c)

the color of the nitrogen bases

d)

the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases

58.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
59.

When levels go above or below a set point a hormone is released to return the body to set point. When the body is restored to set point no more hormone is released. This is an example of...

a)

a positive feedback loop

b)

a negative feedback loop

c)

a neutral feedback loop

d)

not maintaining homeostasis

60.
Endocrine glands produce __________ which maintain the body in homeostasis
a)
oils
b)
neurotransmitters 
c)
tears
d)
hormones
61.

The major organ of the integumentary system is

a)

Skin

b)

Heart

c)

Hormones

d)

Lungs

62.
The Galapagos Islands, a small group of islands off the coast of Ecuador, is home to reptiles such as the giant tortoise and the iguana. The eastern islands are much older than the islands to the west.  Which statement about the origin of these reptiles is best supported by this information?
a)
The ancestor of each species came from different continents at different times.
b)
The common ancestors of the reptiles probably came from Equador.
c)
The common ancestor of each species evolved in Peru and came to the islands at the same time.
63.
The picture shows the members of the Camelidae family. The physical features and the geographical origin of these animals provide evidence that - 
a)
they live in the same type of environment.
b)
have slowly evolved to become herbivores.
c)
have a common ancestor.
d)
exchanged DNA in the past.
64.
What conclusions can be made based on this table shown?
a)
the American black bear and the giant panda are most closely related
b)
the giant panda and the red panda are most closely related
c)
the red panda and the racoon are the most closely related
65.
Scientists compare the limbs of organisms to look for evidence of common ancestry. These limbs provide evidence of common ancestry because they -
a)
perform the same function
b)
are the same size
c)
have the same basic structure
d)
are parts of the same animal
66.
Knowledge of which of the following would provide the best evidence regarding the evolutionary relationships of the species shown in the diagram?
a)
Neck Lengths
b)
Feeding patterns
c)
DNA sequences
d)
Common Predators
67.
The more similar the stages of embryonic development, the more likely that organisms share ____________
a)
a common ancestor.
b)
embryos.
c)
eggs.
d)
embryology.
68.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
69.
On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the human?
a)
Frog
b)
Hare
c)
Caiman
d)
Parrot
70.

A gene from organism A can be put into organism B and work because

a)

all organisms share the genetic code

b)

they have the exact same genome

c)

they lack a nucleus

d)

the eyes of texas are upon us

71.
In what way is the DNA of a nerve cell different from the DNA of a muscle cell?
a)
The DNA is the same but each cell contains different genes
b)
The DNA is the same but different genes are turned on and turned off in each cell
c)
The DNA is different, but the same genes are turned on and off in each cell
d)
The DNA is different, but each cell contains the same genes
72.
Which of these is responsible for the different morphologies of these cells?
a)
Metabolism
b)
Replication
c)
Gene Expression
d)
None of these account for the different morphologies
73.
Which of the following would be the most likely effect, if there were a sudden increase in the cricket population?
a)
There would be a decrease in the small bird population.
b)
There would be a decrease in the grass/flowers population.
c)
There would be a decrease in the mice population.
d)
There would be an increase in the grass/flowers population.
74.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
75.
Which part of the leaf allows gases to enter and exit the cell?
a)
mesophyll
b)
stomata
c)
cuticle 
d)
guard cells
76.
Thigmotropism is a plant's response to what stimuli?
a)
light
b)
touch
c)
water
d)
gravity
77.
Vascular Tissue that carries water and dissolved minerals  from the roots of a plant to its leaves
a)
Xylem
b)
Phloem
c)
Stem
d)
Stomata
78.
Small openings in the underside of a leave through which oxygen and carbon dioxide can enter and leave the plant
a)
Cuticle
b)
Stomata
c)
Phloem
d)
Xylem
79.
The part of the flower on which the pollen grains land.
a)
pistil
b)
stamen
c)
style
d)
stigma
80.
The part of a flower that produces the male reproductive cells.
a)
anther
b)
style
c)
stigma
d)
filament
81.

What condition absolutely must be present in a population before evolution can act upon it?

a)

more females than males

b)

a source of new alleles

c)

genetic variation

d)

a harsh environment

82.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light fur mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark fur mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark fur mice than light mice because they hunt by smell

c)

The hawks eat more light fur mice than dark fur mice because they can see the light fur mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark fur mice than light mice because they can see the dark fur mice more easily

83.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
84.
Which best describes the role of mutations in natural selection?
a)
Mutations help an organism to better survive in their environment
b)
An organism may acquire a helpful mutation by interacting with the environment
c)
A mutation may result in an adaptive trait that makes an organism more likely to survive and reproduce
d)
Organisms with certain traits are more likely to win competitions for mutations
85.

The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identify of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are -

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

complex carbohydrates

86.

​ ​ (a)   has one cell and​ (b)   has many cells​ ​

Choose from the below words
multicellular
unicellular
uniorganism
multiorganism
87.

In which part of the plant cell does photosynthesis take place?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Ribosome

88.

A. ​ (a)  

B. ​ (b)  

C. ​ (c)   ​​

D. ​ (d)  

Choose from the below words
hydrogen bonds
Phosphate Group
sugar
nitrogen base
89.

Label the Following Illustration of the Cell Cycle.

a)

G1-phase

b)

S-phase

c)

G2-phase

d)

M-phase

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
90.

5.A

This model of the cell cycle includes two arrows that each represent a process in the cycle. What stages of the cell cycle are represented by each arrow?

a)Interphase
b)M Phase
1
2
1)
2)

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