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WorksheetsPMG201c
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A project manager can defend against scope creep with a good ___________!
a)
Project management plan
b)
Risk management plan
c)
Change control process
d)
Procurement process
2.
Scope creep results in:
a)
Completion delays, decrease in costs, and increase in project complexity.
b)
On-time deliverables, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.
c)
Completion delays, escalation of costs, and decrease in project complexity.
d)
Completion delays, escalation of costs, and increase in project complexity.
3.
True or FALSE,: In the context of a project, change is always a bad thing.
a)
FALSE,
b)
True
4.
Your project team is customer focused and often agrees to incorporate many small scope changes throughout the project execution. The changes are documented in an issues log. Which of the following is not a potential problem?
a)
Management of product specifications and configuration become more difficult.
b)
Many small changes may accumulate to create trouble for one of the project objectives.
c)
Changes with impacts on cost or time will be elevated to the Change Control Board.
d)
Changes may not be integrated across the whole project
5.
To ensure control over the incidence and frequency of change, the project manager establishes a:
a)
Work breakdown structure
b)
Responsibility assignment matrix
c)
Work procedure schedule
d)
Change control process
6.
The purpose of capturing lessons learned is:
a)
To document who performed well on the project and who did not so that poor performers can be punished.
b)
To show stakeholders how difficult the project was so that next time their demands will not be so high.
c)
To capture what went well so that you can recreate the good and to capture what could have gone better so that next time it will go better.
d)
To show that you are following project management best practices and therefore you are a superior project manager.
7.
A good change process will:
a)
Be very complex in order to discourage changes.
b)
Have change thresholds that are appropriate for the type of change.
c)
Allow the project manager to approve all changes.
d)
Require the same level of approval for all changes.
8.
Which of these types of changes should be discouraged as a poor project practice:
a)
Stakeholders did not take the time to define scope earlier in the project.
b)
A new way to handle a problem is discovered after scope was documented and approved.
c)
Another project team is doing similar work and is farther along than your project.
d)
A team member discovers an issue and it makes good business sense to correct the issue as part of the project.
9.
True or FALSE,: Unregulated changes allow for innovation and flexibility. Regulating changes causes a lack of creativity.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
10.
Which one of these situations most closely represents scope creep:
a)
The project scope keeps changing and team members are not sure why and the project seems like it will never end.
b)
The project scope was used to create a WBS that was used to create estimates and a schedule.
c)
The scope of the project is clearly agreed upon by the key project stakeholders.
d)
The project scope changes through the use of a formal change control process.
11.
During a risk brainstorming session a team member identifies a risk. This particular risk does not seem to belong to any of the categories in you Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS). How should you respond?
a)
Ignore him and move on to another risk identified by a different team member.
b)
Thank him for his work, but inform him that the risk cannot be included because it does not fit any of the categories defined in the RBS.
c)
Record the list in the risk register, discuss potential responses and make a note to update the RBS.
d)
Chastise him for making up risks which cannot exist because there is not a category for such risks.
12.
True or FALSE,: The primary output from the identification of risks is the risk register.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
13.
A useful tool in identifying risks is the SWOT analysis. What does SWOT stand for?
a)
Scope, opportunities, weaknesses, and time
b)
Strengths, opportunities, weaknesses, and threats
c)
Strengths, opportunities, winners, and threats
d)
Strengths, obstacles, weaknesses, and threats
14.
The Risk Management Plan is a subsidiary to the __________ document.
a)
Project Communications Plan
b)
Project Scope Statement Plan
c)
Project Stakeholder Plan
d)
Project Management Plan
15.
In a project context, risk is defined as:
a)
An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a negative effect on at least one project objective.
b)
An uncertain event that, if it occurs, will have a positive or negative effect on at least one project objective.
c)
The probability of an event having a positive or negative effect on at least one project objective.
d)
The impact of not completing the project on time and within budget.
16.
Once you and your team identify and assess risks and develop responses you:
a)
Only update your risk register when you are preparing to share it with your stakeholders.
b)
Have completed your risk management responsibilities.
c)
Pay close attention to the risks identified and do not look for new risks.
d)
Continue to identify and monitor risks for the remainder of the project.
17.
If the response you choose is to avoid a risk this means that:
a)
You note the risk but do not talk about it.
b)
You change your plans so that you eliminate the risk.
c)
You simply do not consider the risk.
d)
You cancel the entire project.
18.
When you and your team know that a negative risk has a high likelihood of occurring and it will be very impactful if it does:
a)
You should all hope this risk does not occur.
b)
You should not document the risk; it will upset your stakeholders.
c)
You should develop a response to handle this risk.
d)
You should wait a few weeks and see what changes.
19.
True or FALSE,: A positive risk is an opportunity; a negative risk is a threat.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
20.
The purpose of project risk management is to:
a)
Eliminate the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to decrease the likelihood or impact of positive events.
b)
Minimize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of positive events.
c)
Minimize the likelihood or the impact of positive events or threats to your project and to increase the likelihood or impact of negative events.
d)
Neutralize the likelihood or the impact of negative events or threats to your project and to neutralize the likelihood or impact of positive events.
21.
Who should take the most responsibility for clear and effective communication?
a)
The Communications Manager
b)
The sender and the receiver
c)
The sender
d)
The receiver
22.
A Communications Management Plan does the following:
a)
Lays out the approach and method for delivering information effectively and efficiently.
b)
Lays out a plan on how to communicate with your Project Sponsor and other organizations
c)
Coordinates the communication between project leaders and uninterested project members
d)
Coordinates an effort to communicate in meetings effectively
23.
True or FALSE,: Effective project communication management creates a bridge between stakeholders based on a shared understanding of the project and the ongoing sharing of information needed for its success.
a)
FALSE,
b)
True
24.
Which of the following is not likely to be documented in a communications management plan?
a)
What information will be communicated
b)
How information will be communicated
c)
Person responsible for tracking risk events
d)
Time frame and frequency of communication
25.
You are beginning to staff your project. Which of the following will not be used in developing and/or communicating roles and responsibilities?
a)
WBS
b)
Responsibility Assignment Matrix
c)
Organization chart
d)
Pareto chart
26.
True or FALSE,: Earned value integrates scope, schedule and budget and uses monetary values to assess project status.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
27.
When you report project status you compare actual performance to:
a)
The performance of other similar projects.
b)
The planned performance or baseline.
c)
The performance of your competitors.
d)
The performance of previous projects.
28.
Upward communication is communication to/from:
a)
Your social groups.
b)
Your direct reports.
c)
Your senior management.
d)
Your peers.
29.
Which item would most likely NOT be part of a basic communication plan:
a)
The best medium for the communication.
b)
The amount of their annual bonus.
c)
With whom to communicate.
d)
What they need to know.
30.
True or FALSE,: A project manager spends 75% of his or her time communicating.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
31.
Once the logic of a network is laid out, the project manager will conduct a forward pass and a backward pass through the network. This will provide information regarding ______ and will identify the________.
a)
The slack for each activity, high risk activities
b)
Resource shortages, high risk activities
c)
The high risk activities, non-critical path
d)
The total duration of the project, critical path
32.
A significant event in a project that may indicate completion of a major phase is a/an:
a)
Milestone
b)
Deliverable
c)
Work package
d)
Activity
33.
In a project schedule, the sequence of activities which cannot be delayed during the course of the project without extending the project end date is referred to as the:
a)
Action plan
b)
Critical path
c)
Schedule baseline
d)
Slack line
34.
All of the following are inputs to estimating activity durations except:
a)
Activity list and activity attributes
b)
Requirements specifications
c)
Resource calendars and scope statement
d)
Organizational process assets
35.
The network diagram is the best tool for demonstrating:
a)
The sequence of project activities
b)
Schedule variances
c)
Resource requirements
d)
Schedule performance over time
36.
True or FALSE,: The critical path is the shortest path through the network and represents the work that can be delayed without delaying the end of the project.
a)
FALSE,
b)
True
37.
To calculate early start (ES) and early finish (EF) perform a:
a)
Forward pass
b)
Critical pass
c)
Backward pass
d)
Lateral pass
38.
If develop online modules needs to finish before review online modules can finish, that is called a:
a)
Start to start relationship.
b)
Finish to finish relationship.
c)
Start to finish relationship.
d)
Finish to start relationship.
39.
True or FALSE,: If develop online modules must be 100% completed before review online modules can begin, that is called a finish to start relationship.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
40.
When you schedule work in a specific order because it cannot be completed any other way this is what type of dependency?
a)
Discretionary
b)
Internal
c)
External
d)
Mandatory
41.
Earned value management integrates scope, cost, and schedule measures to:
a)
develop a preliminary budget.
b)
assess whether all requirements were met.
c)
assess project performance and progress.
d)
assess communication effectiveness among project team members.
42.
True or FALSE,: The S-Curve depicts the relationship between the cost baseline budget and the schedule because it shows the planned cost baseline budget across the planned project timeline.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
43.
True or FALSE,: The Project Budget is equal to only the cost baseline budget.
a)
FALSE,
b)
True
44.
What description defines Bottoms Up Estimating?
a)
A technique that analyzes activities on past projects and using them as a basis for estimating costs.
b)
A technique that uses a mathematical model to estimate costs.
c)
A technique that involves estimating the cost of individual work packages or individual schedule activities with the lowest level of detail.
45.
You are building an apartment complex with four, 10,000 square foot buildings based on the same drawings you used in another city two years ago. What is the danger of estimating using the same parametric model of $50 per square foot?
a)
It will take much more time than a bottoms up estimating.
b)
It's not very easy to scale.
c)
Historical cost relationships may no longer be applicable.
d)
The technical design is unstable.
46.
You are preparing an estimate of the cost for an IT system expansion for a new branch office location. It is a very similar to the IT system expansion undertaken for a branch office that opened six months ago. Which technique might you use if you are pushed for a quick estimate?
a)
Bottoms up
b)
Parametric
c)
Analogous
d)
Probabilistic
47.
Which one of these most correctly defines management reserve?
a)
Per our lesson, management reserve and contingency are exactly the same
b)
Management reserve is not tied to specific work packages it is for the entire project.
c)
Management reserve is tied to specific work packages.
d)
Management reserve is tied to a specific milestone or event.
48.
True or FALSE,: When you are concerned that your estimates might not be correct, especially if you think they are too low, you should pad the estimate and add extra.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
49.
When you have good historical information which can be used in a reliable formula or model, you will probably use:
a)
Parametric estimating
b)
Bottoms up estimating
c)
Analogous estimating
d)
Exact estimating
50.
An estimate created by looking at a similar project or activity and then adding or subtracting to or from the estimate based on the differences between the two is called:
a)
Parametric estimating
b)
Exact estimating
c)
Analogous estimating
d)
Bottoms up estimating
51.
True or FALSE,: Performing quality assurance within the context of a project involves applying the planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that the project correctly employs all processes needed to meet project objectives and product requirements.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
52.
The Process Improvement Plan is:
a)
a subsidiary, or component of the project management plan.
b)
The number one component of the project management plan.
53.
True or FALSE,: Product quality focuses on the project management processes used to meet project objectives
a)
FALSE,
b)
True
54.
The discipline of quality management complements the discipline of project management. Both recognize the importance of:
a)
Team satisfaction and inspection over prevention
b)
Responsibility of only the sponsor, continuous improvement, and inspection
c)
Company satisfaction, continuous improvement, and management protocol
d)
Customer satisfaction, prevention over inspection, continuous improvement, and management responsibility
55.
True or FALSE,: When it comes to projects, the emphasis is on strategic quality management. Quality is not an accident, quality is part of the plan, and quality is everyone's job.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
56.
The WBS is used to derive all but one of the following:
a)
The project cost performance baseline
b)
The activity list
c)
The business need for the project
d)
The project schedule baseline
57.
A work package is a/an:
a)
Deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS
b)
Activity that can be assigned to one or more organizational units
c)
Activity at the lowest level of the WBS
d)
Required level of reporting
58.
When you use the RACI or Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform version of the RAM, those who are responsible are:
a)
Supervising the work
b)
Not completing the work
c)
Completing the work
d)
Providing subject matter expertise
59.
"A Project is defined as being unique and temporary, with an undefined start and finish."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
60.
"We discussed three types of matrix organizations, they are:"
a)
Weak, Medium Strength and Strong
b)
Light, Mid-strength and Strong
c)
Weak, Balanced and Strong
d)
Light, Medium and Heavy
61.
"In a projectized organization:"
a)
Team members are never assigned to the project full time.
b)
A project manager is not assigned to the team.
c)
The functional manager has all of the power.
d)
The project manager acts as manager of the team.
62.
"The best organization to use to run a project will always be the projectized organization."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
63.
"The five project management process groups as described in the PMBOK® Guide and discussed in the preceding lesson are:"
a)
Kickoff, requirements, plan, schedule, control
b)
nitiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, closing
c)
Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
d)
Requirements, design, development, testing, implementation
64.
The three components of the triple constraint are:
a)
Scope, Performance, Time
b)
Scope, Quality, Cost
c)
Scope, Performance, Cost
d)
Scope, Cost, Time
65.
"You have finished planning and have begun executing the project when the client asks if you would add some important features to the product of the project. How are the triple constraints affected?"
a)
Cost must remain constant because resources are limited
b)
Adding features will require additional cost but not time
c)
Time and cost may both be affected
d)
Scope and quality would be affected but not cost
66.
"The primary role of the project manager is:"
a)
Project initiation
b)
Distributing work packages
c)
Measuring performance
d)
Communication
67.
"As discussed in the preceding lesson, The PMBOK® Guide knowledge areas that have processes in the Initiating process group are:"
a)
Project Integration Management and Project Stakeholder Management
b)
Project Integration Management and Project Time Management
c)
Project Integration Management and Project Quality Management
d)
Project Integration Management and Project Scope Management
68.
"As discussed in the preceding lesson, The PMBOK® Guide describes 10 Project Management Knowledge Areas. Identify 3 out of the 10:"
a)
Contracts, Process, Risk
b)
Cost, Scope, Time
c)
Cost, Integration, Process
d)
Quality, Process, Scope
69.
"If you are not certain who your stakeholders are, asking who will use the product or service being created can be helpful."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
70.
If a stakeholder has high interest and high power then as the project manager you:
a)
"Can try to move them to be low interest and low power so that they do not take up too much of your time."
b)
"Can try to move them to be high interest and low power so they do not get in your way."
c)
"Focus your time and attention on them, they are very impactful to your project and you want to keep them engaged and positive."
d)
"Can ignore them, they are as you need them to be."
71.
"You just came from a meeting with one of your project stakeholders, he knew about your project and was not against it, but did not seem to be particularly interested in it either. How would you classify him?"
a)
Unaware
b)
Resistant
c)
Neutral
d)
Supportive
72.
The Project Sponsor is responsible for stakeholder expectations management.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
73.
"Who is the stakeholder that will ultimately use the product or service you are creating?"
a)
Project Manager
b)
Project Team
c)
Sponsor
d)
Customer/User
74.
"One way to classify your stakeholders is to use the Power/Interest Grid. If a stakeholder is low interest / low power, what should the Project Manager do?"
a)
Manage closely
b)
Keep informed
c)
Monitor
d)
Keep satisfied
75.
Your stakeholder register is your primary output and should at least contain:
a)
"Job descriptions, identification information, and stakeholder classification"
b)
"Assessment information, scope information, and stakeholder classification"
c)
"Assessment information, identification information, and stakeholder classification"
d)
"Assessment information, identification information, and risk classificationKeep satisfied
76.
"You have a stakeholder on your project who has a reputation as being very difficult. He dislikes change and argues against any suggested updates to the way in which his department does their work. The project you are leading is going to significantly impact at least two processes used by his team. Which do you think is the best response to the situation?"
a)
"Start the project when you know he's out of town and send him a meeting invite to cover your tracks."Job descriptions, identification information, and stakeholder classification"
b)
"Ignore him and start the project without him. You will include him when you absolutely have to."Assessment information, scope information, and stakeholder classification"
c)
"Seek him out and begin to open communications with him about what is changing and why."
77.
Identify the five engagement levels of stakeholders:
a)
Unaware, resistant, strong-willed, supportive, leading
b)
Unaware, resistant, strong-willed, supportive, sponsor
c)
Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, leading
d)
Unaware, resistant, neutral, supportive, oblivious
78.
One of the ways a Project Charter can help you as a project manager is:
a)
"It keeps your authority level vague, so you can do what you want."
b)
It helps you hire team members.
c)
"It describes your authority level as the project manager."
d)
"It does not help you as a project manager because it is for the sponsor."
79.
"The Scope Management section of your project plan document would include information on:"
a)
How risks are to be managed.
b)
What type of scheduling software to use.
c)
How to ask for more money for the project.
d)
Who can suggest changes to the project.
80.
"An important part of the project scope statement is exclusions or out of scope items."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
81.
"As you plan your project, you do so thinking that all team members will be assigned to your project for at least 50% of their available time. This is an example of:"
a)
Wishful thinking.
b)
An assumption.
c)
A project demand.
d)
Poor planning.
82.
"The WBS should completely depict the scope of your project that if something is not in the WBS it is because it is NOT part of the project."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
83.
The 8-80 rule refers to:
a)
"Work packages should NOT be between 8 and 80 hours of effort."
b)
"Work packages over 80 hours should be split between multiple resources."
c)
"Work packages should be between 8 and 80 hours of effort."
d)
"Never allow your team to work more than 8 hours per day or 80 hours during a 10-day work period."
84.
Project scope differs from product scope in that:
a)
"Project scope is the work that needs to be accomplished to deliver a product, service, or result."
b)
"Project scope completion is measured against the features, functions, and product requirements."
c)
"Product scope completion is measured against the project management plan including all subsidiary plans."
85.
"The Project Charter is a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project. It provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
86.
The definition of a stakeholder includes:
a)
"Organizations impacted by your project but not people, they are all part of the impacted organizations."
b)
"People who are impacted by your project, but not organizations impacted by your project."
c)
"The people or organizations that are positively or negatively impacted by your project."
d)
"People and organizations that are not impacted by your project."
87.
The Project Scope Statement should include the following:
a)
Project deliverables, project constraints, project team members.
b)
Project deliverables, project constraints, project assumptions.
c)
Project exclusions, project charter, project assumptions.
d)
Project exclusions, project constraints, project plan.
88.
"A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed by the project team."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
89.
Influence means you have the right to apply resources, make decisions and give approvals.
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
90.
Which one of these is an example of role conflict:
a)
When a team member does not know how to do his or her job.
b)
When a team member does not know why he or she should do something.
c)
When two team members are trying to complete the same task.
d)
When a team member is late completing a task.
91.
"Two team members disagree on how to solve a project issue. They express their disagreement and then engage in a professional debate. This is an example of:"
a)
Unproductive conflict.
b)
Unrealistic conflict.
c)
Healthy conflict.
d)
Unhealthy conflict.
92.
"You and another project manager disagree over whether a team member should work on your team or on her team. You decide that the team member can work for the other project manager in the afternoon and the other project manager says it is OK for the team member to work for you in the morning. The truth is you both wanted this person fulltime. The conflict resolution approach you have both used is:"
a)
Confronting
b)
Forcing
c)
Smoothing
d)
Compromising
93.
"Conflict management is the process by which the project manager uses appropriate managerial techniques to deal with the inevitable disagreements that develop among those working toward project accomplishment."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
94.
"Some of the major sources of conflict that a project manager may influence are:"
a)
Project management, project priorities, project team
b)
Personality conflict, schedules, resources
c)
Personality conflict, network diagram, resources
d)
Project charter, schedules, resources
95.
"What are the 5 approaches to conflict discussed in the Project Human Resources Management Lesson?"
a)
Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.
b)
Communicating, Compromising, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.
c)
Confronting, Compromising, Smoothing, Uninterested, Challenging.
d)
Confronting, Challenging, Smoothing, Forcing, Avoiding.
96.
"Project Human Resource Management includes the processes that organize, manage, and lead the project team."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
97.
"Each person involved in the project should be assigned, but doesn't always need to know his or her role and responsibility."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
98.
What does RAM stand for:
a)
Responsibility Action Matrix
b)
Responsibility Assignment Matrix
c)
Responsibility Ambiguity Matrix
d)
Responsibility Activity Matrix
99.
"The term resources only refers to people, it does not include money or materials or equipment."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
100.
In our lessons the acronym RAM stands for:
a)
Responsibility Assignment Matrix
b)
Responsible Accountable Manageable
c)
Responsibility Accountability Matrix
d)
"Resource Aligned Management
Resource Acquisition Management"
101.
"When you use the RACI or Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform version of the RAM, those who are responsible are:"
a)
Supervising the work
b)
Not completing the work
c)
Completing the work
d)
Providing subject matter expertise
102.
A work package is a/an:
a)
Deliverable at the lowest level of the WBS
b)
Activity that can be assigned to one or more organizational units
c)
Activity at the lowest level of the WBS
d)
Required level of reporting
103.
The WBS is used to derive all but one of the following:
a)
The project cost performance baseline
b)
The activity list
c)
The business need for the project
d)
The project schedule baseline
104.
"When it comes to projects, the emphasis is on strategic quality management. Quality is not an accident, quality is part of the plan, and quality is everyone's job."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
105.
"The discipline of quality management complements the discipline of project management. Both recognize the importance of:"
a)
Team satisfaction and inspection over prevention
b)
Responsibility of only the sponsor, continuous improvement, and inspection
c)
Company satisfaction, continuous improvement, and management protocol
d)
Customer satisfaction, prevention over inspection, continuous improvement, and management responsibility
106.
Product quality focuses on the project management processes used to meet project objectives
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
107.
The Process Improvement Plan is:
a)
a subsidiary, or component of the project management plan.
b)
The number one component of the project management plan.
108.
"Performing quality assurance within the context of a project involves applying the planned, systematic quality activities to ensure that the project correctly employs all processes needed to meet project objectives and product requirements."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
109.
"An estimate created by looking at a similar project or activity and then adding or subtracting to or from the estimate based on the differences between the two is called:"
a)
Parametric estimating
b)
Exact estimating
c)
Analogous estimating
d)
Bottoms up estimating
110.
"When you have good historical information which can be used in a reliable formula or model, you will probably use:"
a)
Parametric estimating
b)
Bottoms up estimating
c)
Analogous estimating
d)
Exact estimating
111.
"When you are concerned that your estimates might not be correct, especially if you think they are too low, you should pad the estimate and add extra."
a)
True
b)
FALSE,
112.
Which one of these most correctly defines management reserve?
a)
Per our lesson, management reserve and contingency are exactly the same.
b)
Management reserve is not tied to specific work packages it is for the entire project.
c)
Management reserve is tied to specific work packages.
d)
Management reserve is tied to a specific milestone or event.
113.
"You are preparing an estimate of the cost for an IT system expansion for a new branch office location. It is a very similar to the IT system expansion undertaken for a branch office that opened six months ago. Which technique might you use if you are pushed for a quick estimate?"
a)
Bottoms up
b)
Parametric
c)
Analogous
d)
Probabilistic
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