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WorksheetsOPclass03
Total questions: 28
Worksheet time: 21mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The 24 hour period commences at in a local time.
a)
00:00 hrs
b)
6:00 hrs
c)
8:00 hrs
d)
12:00 hrs
2.
An operator received a new airplane which during initial certification did NOT specify the minimum cabin crew members required. If the maximum seating capacity is 160, what is the minimum cc required?
a)
One
b)
Three
c)
Four
d)
Six
3.
The FDP was extended to 9 hours. Provided that the crew is at their home base and the operator is not providing accommodation, when can the next flight duty commence?
a)
9 hours
b)
10 hours
c)
12 hours
d)
14 hours
4.
According to OPS regulations, the correct definition of Window Of Circadian Low (WOCL), is the period between:
a)
.00.00 hours and 06.59 hours.
b)
02.00 hours and 04.59 hours.
c)
22.00 hours and 07.59 hours.
d)
02.00 hours and 05.59 hours.
5.
A flight crew has been on standby duty for 4 hours at an airport. This standby Will count as duty time of
a)
None, (as airport standby does not count as duty time).
b)
2 hours (as airport standby counts as 50 % duty time).
c)
4 hours, (as airport standby counts in full as duty time).
d)
6 hours, (as airport standby counts as 150 % duty time).
6.
The total duty period to which a crew member may be assigned Shall not exceed..
a)
190 duty hours in any 30 consecutive days,
b)
100 hours in any 28 consecutive days.
c)
60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days.
d)
110 duty hours in any 15 consecutive days.
7.
A pilot is not assigned unless he/she has carried out:
a)
6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used.
b)
3 take-offs and 3 landings in the previous 90 days, as pilot flying in an aeroplane or in a flight simulator of the same type/class.
c)
3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the previous 6 months.
d)
6 take-offs and 6 landings during the previous 6 months.
8.
A pilot qualified for single pilot commercial operations both on land and sea is joining a CAT operator. How many types of aircraft can this pilot operate commercially?
a)
One reciprocating engine aircraft type.
b)
One reciprocating engine aircraft type and variant (sea only).
c)
Two reciprocating engine aircraft types or variants.
d)
Three reciprocating engine aircraft types or variants.
9.
Which of the following statements is correct regarding how often an operator proficiency checks should be performed?
a)
2 within a year, more than 3 months between checks.
b)
2 checks every 14 months.
c)
No less than 6 months between checks.
d)
3 checks within 12 months with no less than 4 months between checks.
10.
During a commander's upgrade course, the following must be accomplished:
1. Engine failure during take-off.
2. Engine failure during cruise.
3. One engine inoperative descent.
4. One engine inoperative go-around and missed approach.
5. One engine inoperative landing.
a)
1, 2 and 5.
b)
1, 4 and 5.
c)
2, 3 and 5.
d)
2 4 and 5.
11.
What must the operator arrange for crew on Airport standby duty?
a)
Food and beverage.
b)
Accommodation.
c)
Transport to and from the airport.
d)
Entertainment services.
12.
As a flight crew member, you are scheduled to perform your second Operator Proficiency Check on the 30th day of May. The original expiry date for the current proficiency check is the 31 st day of July. According to the EU-OPS regulations, the new validity period Shall be counted from the:
a)
30th of May
b)
31st of May
c)
1st of June
d)
31st of July
13.
Why might a pilot be required to follow familiarisation training?
1. To operate another aircraft of the same type
2. To convert to a different class of aircraft
3. To operate another version of an aircraft of the same type
4. When minor changes of equipment are introduced to the aircraft normally flown
a)
1 and 3.
b)
1 and 4.
c)
2 and 3.
d)
3 and 4.
14.
An aeroplane pilot is taking a course of training to upgrade from Co-Pilot to Commander. This command course contains many training elements, one of which is to complete:
a)
Line training under the supervision, in the aeroplane, for at least 10 hours, including at least 5 flight sectors.
b)
At least 5 hours of training in an FSTD, followed by line training in the aeroplane.
c)
Line training under the supervision, in the aeroplane, for at least 10 flight sectors
d)
At least 10 hours of training in an FSTD, which includes LOFT training
15.
A pilot has a total duty period of 180 hours in the last 27 days, he/she has a 8 hours duty period scheduled for the 28th. He/she can:
a)
Fly because the maximum duty period is 200 hours in 28 days.
b)
Fly because the maximum duty period is 190 hours in 28 days.
c)
Not fly because you can't fly 185 hours in 28 days.
d)
Not fly because the maximum duty period is 100 hours in 28 days.
16.
What is the latest time that a pilot can do his/her CRM Training?
a)
After the base training.
b)
Before the line training.
c)
After the simulator training.
d)
Before commencing unsupervised line flying.
17.
For a flight operated by 2 cabin crew members...
a)
The one with the most experience Will be Senior
b)
The Operator Will nominate one to be Senior
c)
The Commander Will nominate one to be Senior
d)
The State of design Will elect the Senior
18.
When does the standby duty time of a crew member start to count?
a)
At the arrival at the airport.
b)
When reporting at the reporting point.
c)
30 minutes before arrival at the airport.
d)
45 minutes before arrival at the airport.
19.
On a long haul flight, one of the pilots Will not be able to complete the flight duty. Can the duty be extended?
a)
At the commander's discretion.
b)
No, the duty cannot be extended.
c)
Yes, at the operator's discretion.
d)
Depending on the crew rest facilities available.
20.
Considering the provisions on flight crew training in the EU Regulation on Air Operations, familiarisation training requires:
a)
The acquisition of additional knowledge and training on the aircraft of an appropriate training device.
b)
Refresher training on types currently operated.
c)
Only the acquisition of additional knowledge.
d)
A conversion training course.
21.
The Operator is introducing a new aircraft that is considered a common type with the existing fleet, but a different variant to the existing aircraft. What Shall the pilot do in order to be able operate on both variants? The pilot:
a)
Must complete familiarisation training including theoretical knowledge training to acquire additional training.
b)
Does NOT require any additional training as both aircraft are considered the same type.
c)
Must complete differences training containing both theoretical and practical training.
d)
Must complete a type rating on the new variant and afterwards a skill test.
22.
Supplemental Oxygen in pressurised aeroplanes, during and following an emergency descent, are that for pilots supply Shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum. That minimum is:
a)
14000 ft
b)
25000 ft
c)
13000 ft
d)
15000 ft
23.
What is the flight level above which regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft?
a)
FL 100
b)
FL 140
c)
FL 250
d)
FL 300
24.
In accordance with OPS regulations, the amount of oxygen on-board a non-pressurised aircraft must be enough to fed the cabin crew members and all the passengers for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:
a)
15 000 ft
b)
10 000 ft
c)
13 000 ft
d)
14 000 ft
25.
An ELT of any type Shall be capable of transmitting..
a)
a signal that alternates between 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
b)
either on 121.5 MHz or 406 MHz.
c)
simultaneously on 121.5 MHz and 406 MHz.
d)
on 406 MHz only.
26.
An evacuation slide is inflated:
a)
Using a pressurized gas cylinder inside the slide itself.
b)
Using air from the aircraft's pneumatic system.
c)
Using air from the air conditioning system.
d)
Using the engine bleed air.
27.
MCTOM of more than 27 000 kg and certified on or after the 1 January 2021, cockpit voice recorder (CVR), must keep the conversations and sound alarms recorded during the last...
a)
60 minutes
b)
2 hours 30 minutes
c)
25 hours
d)
48 hours
28.
What is the first-aid (therapeutic) oxygen designed for in a pressurized aircraft?
a)
To protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
b)
To protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.
c)
To give medical assistance to passengers with pathological respiratory disorders.
d)
To protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for these people.
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