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Biology EOC Review

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 4hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things maintain homeostasis

d)

All living things grow

2.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
3.
The basic unit of structure and function in the human body is the....
a)
organ
b)
organ system
c)
cell
d)
tissue
4.

Which statement describes ALL living things?

a)

They are composed of one or more cells.

b)

They must reproduce sexually.

c)

They have organ systems to carry out the processes of life.

d)

They are capable of making their own food.

5.

A baby song bird hatches from its egg with both parent songbirds watching. Which characteristic of life does this represent?

a)

All living things reproduce

b)

All living things maintain homeostasis

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

6.

The following are all characteristics of life EXCEPT:

a)

made of cell(s)

b)

eat food

c)

respond stimuli

d)

reproduce

7.

Which of these is not true about all organisms?

a)

all living things are multicellular

b)

all living things obtain and use energy

c)

all living things reproduce

8.

Which item listed is NOT a characteristic of life?

a)

adjusting to stimuli

b)

getting and using energy

c)

growing and developing

d)

breathing

9.

A group of individuals belonging to the same species living in the same general area at the same time.

a)

population

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

biosphere

10.

Why don't populations grow indefinitely?

a)

limiting factors

b)

only biotic factors

c)

only abiotic factors

d)

none of the above

11.

One of the factors that can change the size of population is....

a)

Name of schools

b)

Number of dezs

c)

Jobs

d)

Numbers of births

12.

The exponential graph is a graph that shows us population size increasing quickly, which one below shows us that

a)
b)
c)
d)
13.

What is the carrying capacity mean?

a)

The number of individuals an area can carry

b)

the number of births

c)

The number of deaths an area has

d)

not sure

14.

parasites, disease, predators, are examples of what type of limiting factors?

a)

density dependent

b)

density independent

c)

survivorship

d)

type 1 curve

15.

What is the arrow pointing at?

a)

carrying capacity

b)

biotic potential

c)

density-independent

d)

density dependent

16.

An S-shaped curve is known as

a)

Exponential graph

b)

Logistic Graph

c)

Survivorship curves

d)

Graphs

17.

A bee receives nectar from a flower and carries the pollen to other flowers:

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

18.

Mistletoe grows and spreads on trees, taking their nutrients:

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

19.

What would be a good example of a primary consumer?

a)

carnivore

b)

detrivore

c)

decomposer

d)

herbivore

20.

Which organisms would be at the top or last trophic level?

a)

plant

b)

herbivore

c)

omnivore

d)

carnivore

21.

Barnacles do not affect whales as they grow, but receive the benefit of a food source. This is

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

d)

neutralism

22.

Mice might grow in population and destroy the community by eating all of the berry bushes if

a)

wolves and snakes were removed from the food web

b)

another predator migrated in to the community

c)

the snake population grew

d)

none of these

23.

A lion that eats a zebra that eats grass is a

a)

primary consumer

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

quaternary consumer

24.

90% of the energy that gets lost as you move up a food pyramid or chain gets lost as

a)

pollution to the environment

b)

heat to the environment

c)

energy for decomposers

d)

gets recycled

25.

What percentage of energy is passed on to the next trophic level?

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

50%

d)

90%

26.
What type of cell has a nucleus? 
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic 
27.
What type of cell does not have a nucleus?
a)
eukaryotic 
b)
prokaryotic 
28.
Which type of cell has no nucleus?
a)
Eukaryote
b)
Prokaryote
c)
Animal
d)
Plant
29.
Are prokaryotes multicellular or unicellular? 
a)
Multicellular
b)
Unicellular
30.

Which of the following is a characteristic of both Eukaryotic and Prokaryotic cells?

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

membrane bound organelles

d)

simple

31.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prokaryotic cell?
a)
unicellular
b)
floating DNA
c)
very small
d)
complex
32.
Prokaryotic cells include bacteria.
a)
True
b)
False
33.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
34.
Which of the following is found inside a prokaryote?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
DNA
c)
ribosomes
d)
all of these
35.
What kind of cell is this?
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
36.
Plants and animal cells are examples of ___ cells 
a)
prokaryotic cells 
b)
eukaryotic cells 
37.
Prokaryote are?
a)
simple, mostly single-celled organism that lacks a nucleus, or any other membrane-bound organelle.
b)
have a peptidoglycan cell wall and many have polysaccharide capsules.
c)
have a true nucleus, which means the cell's DNA is surrounded by a membrane.
d)
contain membrane-bound organelles, such as the nucleus
38.
plasma membrane
a)
consisting of a jelly-like cytosol within the cell which other cellular components are found
b)
the genetic material of the cell
c)
an outer covering that seperates the cell's interior from its surrounding environment
d)
synthesize proteins
39.
Where does photosynthesis happen?
a)
mitochondria
b)
chloroplast
c)
ribosomes
d)
on a lake during sunset
40.
ALL organisms can be divided into two groups.
a)
Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes
b)
Plants and Animals
c)
Us and Them
d)
Hot blooded or Cold Blooded
41.
Which cells DO NOT have a cell wall?
a)
animal cell
b)
plant cell
c)
bacteria cell
d)
prison cell
42.
Plants, fungus, animals, and protists are
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
43.
In the microscope you see a cell with a large central vacuole and rigid cell wall. What type of cell is this?
a)
animal cell
b)
plant cell
c)
human cheek cell
d)
the result of a strange science experiement
44.

These cells have cytoplasm

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Both

45.
What structures distinguish a plant cell from an animal cell?
a)
Plant cells have cell walls and ribosomes.
b)
Plant cells have cell walls and chloroplasts.
c)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and a nucleus.
d)
Plant cells have chloroplasts and mitochondria.
46.
What are the reactants (what's needed) for photosynthesis?
a)
glucose and oxygen
b)
light, water, and carbon dioxide
47.
What gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?
a)
sulfur
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
hydrogen
48.
What pigment absorbs sunlight for photosynthesis?
a)
chloroplast
b)
thylakoid
c)
grana
d)
chlorophyll
49.
What is another name for glucose?
a)
Chlorophyll
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Stomata
d)
Sugar
50.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
51.
In which way are photosynthesis and cellular respiration different?
a)
Cellular respiration stores ATP, while photosynthesis releases ATP.
b)
Cellular respiration produces oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen.
c)
Photosynthesis releases energy, while cellular respiration stores energy.
d)
Photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide, while cellular respiration produces carbon dioxide.
52.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
53.
After intense activity, your muscles feel sore because of 
a)
the accumulation of NAD+
b)
the accumulation of lactic acid 
c)
the accumulation of ATP
d)
the accumulation of carbon dioxide
54.

Fermentation enables ATP production to continue under 

a)
anaerobic conditions
b)
aerobic conditions
c)
photosynthetic conditions
d)
hydrophobic conditions
55.

Energy used in cells for life processes

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

lipids

d)

proteins

56.

Anaerobic means without ________?

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Phosphorus

57.
This process releases chemical energy from sugars and other carbon-based molecules to make ATP when oxygen is present.
a)
photosynthesis
b)
light-independent reaction
c)
cellular respiration
d)
light-dependent reaction
58.
Which is not a waste product of cellular respiration?
a)
Water
b)
Heat
c)
Carbon Dioxide
d)
Oxygen
59.
What is cellular respiration?
a)
the breakdown of glucose  to release ATP
b)
the breakdown of glucose to release NADH
c)
the breakdown of glucose to release FADH
d)
the breakdown of glucose to release carbon
60.
The energy in ATP is stored 
a)
in the bond between the second and third phosphate
b)
in the bond between the first and second phosphate
c)
in the bond between the adenosine and the first phosphate
d)
I like turtles
61.
The theory of Endosymbiosis explains
a)
The origin of eukaryotes
b)
How species develop
c)
How bacteria live
d)
Why cells rely on one another
62.
____________ & _________________ are organelles that definitely arose from endosymbiosis.
a)
Rough ER & Smooth ER
b)
Mitochondria & Flagellum
c)
Chloroplast & Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast and Golgi apparatus
63.

In this diagram, the endosymbiont (prokaryote being engulfed) is

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

purple

64.
What process is shown within this diagram?
a)
Natural selection
b)
Endosymbiosis
c)
Chemical evolution
d)
Abiogenesis
65.

How are mitochondria and chloroplasts like bacteria cells?

a)

They divide by meiosis

b)

They contain their own DNA

c)

They have the same membrane-bound organelles

d)

They can make their own food

66.

Which type of biological macromolecule is the main component of the plasma membrane?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

67.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
68.
Which statement best describes the cell membrane?
a)
The protective outer layer that controls what enters and leaves the cell.
b)
Stores information on DNA molecules / Directs and controls the activities of the cell.
c)
A folded membrane that moves materials around inside cells / Also acts as the site of manufacturing materials needed by the cell.
d)
The smallest organelle with a huge job / Makes proteins, which are the building blocks of the body.
69.
True or false:  Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis. 
a)
True
b)
False
70.
Something is ___________ ____________
when some molecules can cross the membrane while others cannot. 
a)
Selectively (or Semi) Permeable 
b)
Totally Transparent
c)
Liquid Licorice 
d)
Heavily Patrolled 
71.
A phospholipid has 2 parts. What are they called? 
a)
Hydrophilic Head, Hydrophobic Tail 
b)
Hydrophobic Head, Hydrophilic Tail 
72.
"Water Loving"
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
Hydrophilic 
c)
Hydroelectric 
d)
Hydroloric
73.
The picture below is an example of _________________.
a)
osmosis
b)
isotonic
c)
diffusion
d)
active transport
74.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
75.
During osmosis
a)
water moves from high to low concentration
b)
large or oddly shaped molecules move across a cell membrane
c)
water moves when energy is used
d)
proteins are built
76.
The picture is an example of...
a)
active tranport
b)
passive transport
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
77.
What is diffusion?
a)
when molecules move 
b)
when molecules move from a high concentration to a low.
c)
no movement 
d)
molecules move everywhere
78.
When particles move from areas of high concentration to areas less concentrated, this has taken place.
a)
diffusion
b)
mitosis
c)
endocytosis
d)
photosynthesis
79.

Why would the cell need energy to move molecules across the membrane?

a)

the molecule is going against the concentration gradient

b)

the molecule is to large to pass through the membrane

c)

the lipid membrane requires energy anytime something is moving across the membrane

80.

What is the definition of ACTIVE TRANSPORT?

a)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane against the concentration gradient

b)

Diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane

c)

Molecular structure that surrounds the cell and controls what enters and leaves the cell

d)

Movement of molecules across the cell membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

81.

Identify the following structure

a)

Phospholipid

b)

Cell

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Protein

82.

What is the name of 'B' found on the structure below

a)

Protein

b)

Lipic bilayer

c)

Phosphate hydrophilic heads

d)

Lipid hydrophobic heads

83.

In passive diffusion, substances always move...

a)

from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration

b)

from an area with more of the molecules to an area with fewer of the molecules

c)

from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher concentration

d)

from an area with fewer of the molecules to an area with more of the molecules

84.

If a gummy bear is placed in salt water, the mass of the gummy bear will decrease because water will move out of the gummy bear. What process does this represent?

a)

osmosis

b)

fermentation

c)

respiration

d)

diffusion

85.
Which way will the water molecules move during osmosis?
a)
Out of the cell, so the cell shrinks.
b)
Out of the cell, so the cell swells.
c)
Into the cell, so the cell shrinks.
d)
Into the cell, so the cell swells.
86.
Which diagram best shows the end result of diffusion?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
87.
What do monomers do?
a)
Bond to make a polymer
b)
Create essential proteins
c)
Stores energy
d)
Splits to make more cells
88.

Which organic molecule would a long-distance runner most likely choose to eat two hours before a race?

a)

A protein, because it builds muscle mass.

b)

A lipid because it provides long term energy storage.

c)

A carbohydrate because it releases energy quickly.

d)

A protein, because it transports oxygen into the blood stream.

89.

Monosaccharides are the building blocks of which group of biomolecules?

a)

protein

b)

lipid

c)

carbohydrate

d)

nucleic acid

90.

Which biomolecules transport oxygen and other substances and also form part of most organelles?

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

91.

Which biomolecules provide quick energy for the cell and also provide materials to build the cell membrane/wall?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

92.

Which biomolecules contains your genetic information?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

93.

Amino Acids are the monomers of __________.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

94.

Which biomolecules act as energy storage for the cell and also cushions and insulates organs?

a)

Carbohyrdates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

95.

The monomer of Nucleic Acids is known as _________.

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Fatty Acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Saccharide

96.

Which of the following contains the most lipid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
97.

Just under an orca's skin lies a thick layer of blubber. Blubber helps insulate a whale from heat loss. Based on this information, which biomolecule is blubber primarily made of?

a)

Lipids

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Proteins

d)

Carbohydrates

98.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

99.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
100.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
101.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme? 
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
102.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
103.

Undifferentiated cells that can become one or more specialized types of cell are called_________

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Body Cells

d)

Zygotes

104.

Arrange the following levels of hierarchy from LARGEST to SMALLEST

a)

Organism, Organ, Tissue, Cell

b)

Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organism

c)

Organism, Cell, Tissue, Organ

d)

Tissue, Cell, Organ, Organism

105.

The growth phase of the cell cycle is called

a)

Interphase

b)

Telophase

c)

Prophase

d)

Anaphase

106.

A continuous thread of DNA is called...

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromatid

c)

Gene

d)

Nucleic Acid

107.

What is a gene?

a)

A section of DNA with instructions for making a protein

b)

A section of DNA with instructions for making a carbohydrate

c)

One nucleic acid chain that codes for DNA

d)

One protein chain that codes for DNA

108.

Two identical chromatids are called...

a)

Daughter Chromatids

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Brother Chromatids

d)

Twin Chromatids

109.

How are the centromere and telomere different?

a)

The centromere is the center of the chromosome, the telomeres are the ends

b)

The centromere is at the ends of the chromosomes, the telomere is at the center

c)

The centromere is larger than the telomere

d)

The telomere is larger than the centromere

110.

The division phase of the cell cycle is called...

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Metaphase

d)

Cytokinesis

111.

What is the end result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical body cells

b)

2 gametes

c)

2 zygotes

d)

2 different body cells

112.

Why do cells remain small in size? (Select ALL that apply)

a)

Maintain high surface area to volume ratio

b)

More energy efficient

c)

Easier to destroy if something goes wrong

d)

Smaller cells divide quicker

113.

________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cell cycle

a)
Metastasis
b)
Checkpoint
c)
Malignant
d)
Benign
114.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
115.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
116.

In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell DNA is copied.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

mitosis/cytokinesis

117.

In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell grows bigger.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

mitosis/cytokinesis

118.

In this phase of the cell cycle, the cell prepares for cell division.

a)

G1

b)

S

c)

G2

d)

mitosis/cytokinesis

119.

In general, the purpose of a checkpoint in the cell cycle is:

a)

To allow the cell to rest

b)

To check for any errors

c)

To signal cell replication

d)

To signal DNA replication

120.
Cancer creates abnormal cells by disrupting
a)
the cell cycle
b)
red blood cell formation
c)
DNA replication
d)
ATP synthesis
121.
the uncontrolled division of cells that results in malignant growth 
a)
tissues
b)
cancer
c)
mitosis
d)
anaphase
122.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
123.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
124.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
125.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
126.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
127.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
128.

A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.

a)

Replication

b)

Translation

c)

Transcription

d)

Protein Synthesis

129.
Identify #2.
a)
nitrogen base
b)
phosphate group
c)
deoxyribose sugar
d)
nucleotide
130.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
131.

What is the correct order of DNA replication?

a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
132.
How does RNA differ from DNA?
a)
RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose
b)
RNA contains ribose and thymine
c)
RNA contains uracil and ribose
d)
RNA contains adenine and ribose
133.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
134.
The process by which the genetic code of DNA is copied into a strand of RNA is called
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
transformation
d)
replication
135.
Which of the following describes RNA?
a)
RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine
b)
RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil
c)
RNA is longer than DNA and uses five bases to encode information
d)
RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its functions
136.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
137.
Which of the following statements about the genetic code is true?
a)
A codon can specify more than one amino acid
b)
Every codon specifies a different amino acid
c)
Some codons specify the same amino acid
d)
Some codons have no function at all
138.
The process of making proteins on the ribosome based on instructions from messenger RNA is called
a)
transcription
b)
transformation
c)
translation
d)
molecular biology
139.
Changes is DNA sequences that affect genetic information are known as
a)
replications
b)
mutations
c)
transformations
d)
translations
140.
A single-base mutation in a messenger RNA molecule could transcribe the DNA sequence CAGTAT into
a)
GTCATA
b)
GUCAUA
c)
GTCUTU
d)
GUAAUA
141.
·  Copying and carrying the genetic code is the responsibility of which molecule?
a)
RNA
b)
Glucose
c)
Oxygen
142.
DNA never leaves the nucleus
a)
True
b)
False
143.
Proteins are made of which molecule?
a)
Amino Acids
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
144.
RNA is a double helix
a)
True
b)
False
145.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
146.
The process where DNA is transcribed to mRNA happens in what part of the cell?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
147.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
148.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
149.
What is the mRNA strand that would result from the DNA template strand CCTA?
a)
GGAT
b)
CCAT
c)
GGAU
d)
CCAU
150.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
151.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
152.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

153.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

154.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Inversion

155.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

156.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

157.

Which mutation will cause translation to stop?

a)

Mutations 1 and 3 only

b)

Mutation 1 only

c)

Mutation 2 only

d)

Muations 1, 2, 3

158.

A version of a gene is called a(n)

a)

allele

b)

characteristic

c)

specific gene

d)

trait

159.

A trait that is expressed if one copy of the allele is present is a(n)

a)

characteristic

b)

dominant trait

c)

gene

d)

recessive trait

160.

An organism’s genetic makeup; the pair of alleles for a trait is called a(n)

a)

dominant trait

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

recessive trait

161.

An organism’s physical expression of a trait is called a(n)

a)

dominant trait

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

d)

recessive trait

162.

What is it called when both alleles in a genotype are the same?

a)

Dominance

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Homozygous

d)

Recessiveness

163.

Which pair of alleles is an example of homozygous recessive?

a)

bb

b)

BB

c)

Bb

164.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
165.
What are chromosomes?
a)
different versions of genes
b)
condensed DNA 
c)
uncoiled DNA
166.

The end result of mitosis is

a)

4 Identical Cells are produced

b)

4 genetically different cells are produced

c)

2 identical cells are produced

d)

2 genetically different cells are produced

167.

The end result of meiosis is...

a)

4 identical cells

b)

4 genetically different cells

c)

2 identical cells

d)

2 genetically different cells

168.

If an organism reproduces asexually, its offspring will most likely be...

a)

genetically identical to the parent

b)

genetically different from each other

c)

produced from specialized cells known as gametes

d)

A mutant

169.

How many divisions are in meiosis?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

2

d)

4

170.

What is the correct definition of a haploid cell?

a)

A cell that only has a single set of chromosomes. (23 = n)

b)

A cell that has 2 sets of chromosomes (46 = 2n)

171.
What scientific process is being shown?
a)
Mixing
b)
Crossing under
c)
Crossing over
d)
square dancing
172.
The structure labeled B in the figure below is called the _____.
a)
Centromere
b)
Centrioles
c)
Sister Chromatids
d)
Spindles
173.

What process results in the division of 1 cell into 2 identical daughter cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

G1

d)

Cross-Over

174.
What type of inheritance do two alleles have if their traits blend together? 
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
c)
Mendelian Inheritance
d)
Homozygous Inheritance
175.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
176.

Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?

a)

XN YN

b)

Xn Yn

c)

XN Y

d)

Xn Y

177.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
178.

What would the genotype be of a colorblind male?

a)

XNY

b)

XNYn

c)

XnY

d)

XnYn

179.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

180.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
181.

What goes in box 15

a)

aabb

b)

AABB

c)

aaBB

d)

AAbb

182.
What is the genotype for a pea plant heterozygous for round seeds (R), and homozygous recessive for green seeds (y)?
a)
Ry
b)
RRyy
c)
RrYy
d)
Rryy
183.
In a dihybrid cross
a)
one trait is crossed.
b)
two traits are crossed.
c)
four boxes are needed for the punnett square.
d)
mom's alleles are dominant.
184.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

185.

What is the genotype for a pea plant homozygous for round seeds (R), and heterozygous for yellow seeds?

a)

RrYy

b)

RRyy

c)

RRYy

d)

rryy

186.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
187.
How many kids did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
188.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
189.

In preparation for an electrophoresis procedure, enzymes are added to DNA in order to

a)

convert the DNA into gel

b)

cut the DNA into fragments

c)

change the color of the DNA

d)

produce longer sections of DNA

190.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram

below. Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

191.
Which suspect is likely guilty?
a)
Suspect #1
b)
Suspect #2
c)
Suspect #3
192.

Guppies are small fish that live in South American rivers. They can have different- sized spots on their bodies.

The river bottoms are covered in rocks. Guppies with spots that are the same size as the rocks on the bottom are harder for bigger fish to see and catch.

The diagram below shows a population of guppies that live in a river. At time 1, the population had the same number of guppies with small and large spots. At time 2, after many generations, there were many more guppies with small spots and fewer guppies with large spots in the population.


How did the environment change between time 1 and time 2? How did the population change?

a)

You cannot tell how the environment changed. With each generation, more guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

b)

The rocks became smaller. With each generation, more guppies with small spots survived long enough to pass on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

c)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so the guppies with large spots changed to have small spots.

d)

The rocks became smaller. Guppies with small spots are more likely to survive, so both kinds of guppies passed on the gene for small spots to their offspring.

193.

What is the process where animals live or die based on their adaptations to their environment.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Natural Selection

c)

The Circle of Life

d)

Mammoth

194.

Which word best describes the following definition?


The process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce than other members of the same species.

a)

Trait

b)

Generation

c)

Adaptive Trait

d)

Natural Selection

195.

SELECT ALL THAT APPLY: Which of the following must be true in order for organisms to be considered the same species?

a)

They must be able to mate

b)

They must be able to produce viable offspring

c)

They must have structural similaries

d)

They must have the same bone structure

196.
Variations in a population are caused by:
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection
d)
Random Mutations
197.

Genetic diversity is decreased through this process.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

198.

What is the human most closely related to?

a)

Fish

b)

mouse

c)

Salamander

d)

Human

199.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

200.

Where is the alligator and T. rex's common ancestor?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

201.

Which scientific name is TYPED correctly

a)

carcharhinus melanopterus

b)

Carcharhinus Melanopterus

c)

Carcharhinus melanopterus

d)

Carcharhinus melanopterus

202.

Which taxa are used in a scientific name?

a)

Domain

b)

Genus

c)

Phylum

d)

Species

e)

Class

203.

What is the largest taxa?

a)

Domain

b)

Kingdom

c)

Genus

d)

Species

204.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

205.

What distinguishes zebras from from giraffes?

a)

un-branching horns (in males)

b)

even number of toes

c)

fur

d)

carnivorous teeth

206.
A table of arachnid and insect characteristics is shown. Which characteristic could be used to distinguish between
arachnids and insects?
a)
Jointed legs
b)
Body segments
c)
Presence of eyes
d)
Presence of antennae
207.

According to the cladogram, which organism is most distantly related to the chimpanzee?

a)

salmon

b)

salamander

c)

lizard

d)

hamster

208.

Which trait should go where A is on the cladogram?

a)

eyes

b)

feet

c)

lips

d)

hat

209.

Which trait(s) do conifers have?

a)

vascular tissue only

b)

vascular tissue and seeds

c)

vascular tissue, seeds and flowers

d)

seeds only

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