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Evolution & Classification Test Review

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A queen honeybee can lay up to 2,000 eggs in one day. This is an example of overpopulation. One benefit to laying so many eggs is to-

a)

increase competition among honeybees for finding nectar

b)

increase the chance of honeybees to survive and repoduce

c)

increase the amount of honey produced for human consumption

d)

decrease competition among honeybees so bumblebees can share resources

2.

Okapi are strange animals that look like a combination of a giraffe and a zebra. They live in the Democratic Republic of Congo, where it's very hot and predators, such as leopards, are always lurking. The okapi use their 14-18 inch-long tongues to wash their eyes and ears to better see and hear the leopards in the dry, sandy environment. The features of the okapi are evidence of natural selection because the adaptation -

a)

causes an increased rate of extinction due to eye infections

b)

shows DNA mutations do not increase the survival of organisms with variations

c)

helps individuals compete for survival to pass down traits through their DNA

d)

creates a disadvantage which decreases the organisms chances for survival

3.

According to evolution, what happens to the frequency of traits in a population of species over time?

a)

The frequency of traits randomly changes

b)

The frequency of traits never changes

c)

The frequency of advantageous traits increases over time

d)

The frequency of advantageous traits decreases over time

4.

What is evolution?

a)

An idea that all species are related and change gradually over time

b)

it is a fight between species

c)

An idea that all organisms are alike

d)

Man came from gorillas

5.

Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence of evolution?

a)

Fossil record

b)

DNA evidence

c)

Embryology

d)

Asteroids

6.

The science that investigates the development of organisms from fertilized egg to time of birth or hatching.

a)

Ecology

b)

fossil records

c)

homologous strcutures

d)

embryonic development

7.

Random changes in a DNA sequence, which may or may not impact the organism and be considered an adaptation, are called

a)

migrations

b)

mutations

c)

genetic drift

d)

natural selection

8.

A hurricane swept through a beach ecosystem, wiping out all organisms in its path. The gene frequency in the area will be impacted for future generations because of this; this phenomenon is known as

a)

gene migration

b)

gene mutation

c)

genetic drift

d)

natural selection

9.

Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding DNA comparison as evidence for evolution.

a)

Species with a more distant common ancestor have more similarities in gene sequences.

b)

Species with a more recent common ancestor have more similarities in gene sequences.

c)

DNA comparison is not totally accurate or useful in determining common ancestor's between species.

10.

Which does NOT increase genetic variation?

a)

Mutations

b)

Gene flow

c)

Mitosis

d)

Crossing over

11.

When members of one population migrate to another they create

a)

Gene pool

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genotype

d)

Genetic Drift

12.

The image shows peppered moth variants. What would be most likely to happen to these moths in a forest made of white birch trees?

a)

Both variations would survive and reproduce in equal numbers

b)

The light variant would be more successful

c)

The dark variant would be more successful

d)

Nothing at all

13.

Which of the following was NOT present in earth's early atmosphere

a)

Carbon Dioxide

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Ammonia

14.

Process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than less well adapted individuals do.

a)

Transformational theory

b)

Theory of natural selection

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Gradualism

15.

Blue catfish are going extinct. A dam in a lake full of blue catfish bursts due to poor engineering and kills some of the blue catfish. This is an example of:

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Gene Flow

c)

Mutation

d)

Genetic Drift

16.
The diagram illustrates an embryonic stage of two organisms.

Which of the following can be determined by observing the embryos shown in the diagram
a)

The organisms share a common ancestry.

b)

The organisms belong to the same genus.

c)

The organisms are native to the same geographic areas.

d)

The organisms will grow into anatomically similar adults.

17.
Which scientist designed a special flask that allowed air in but kept microbes out and once and for all disproved spontaneous generation?
a)
Redi
b)
Needham
c)
Spallanzani
d)
Pasteur
18.

The Endosymbiotic Theory explains

a)

the origin of prokaryotes

b)

how bacteria lives

c)

the origin of eukaryotes

d)

how species develop

19.

Which of these is the best is the best definition of adaptive radiation?

a)

The process by which a species changes to better fill an available niche.

b)

The process by which a single species evolves into many new species to fill available niches.

c)

The process by which a species becomes better suited for a niche than another forcing it to specialize or go extinct.

d)

none of these are definitions of adaptive radiation.

20.

Which of these is the best definition of biogeography?

a)

The study of how and why plants and animals live where they do.

b)

The study of how and why plants affect each other and the environment.

c)

The study of how and why plants evolve to compensate for changes in habitats.

d)

None of these are definitions of biogeography.

21.

A German Shepard would probably not survive in the wild because...

a)

the dog is mixed

b)

the dog is a product of artificial selection and not adapted for the wild.

c)

the dog is a product of natural selection and is not well fit for the environment

22.

Match the following pictures with the words they represent

a)
1.

Analogous Structure

b)
2.

Homologous Structure

c)
3.

Artificial selection

d)
4.

Natural selection

23.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
24.

A bumble bee has just enough mass to pull down and open up the snapdragon flower to get to the nectar inside. Other insects cannot do this. This adaptation is an example of:

a)

convergent evolution

b)

co-evolution

c)

divergent evolution

d)

speciation

25.

Which best describes punctuated equilibrium?

a)

Speciation occurs due to natural selection

b)

Speciation occurs due to isolation

c)

Speciation occurs slowly in geologic time, followed by long periods with very fast evolutionary change.

d)

Speciation occurs suddenly and rapidly in geologic time, followed by long periods with little evolutionary change.

26.

The Miller-Urey experiment of 1953 was designed to test the hypothesis that lightning supplied the energy needed to turn atmospheric gases into organic molecules such as amino acids. Which of the following describes why the Miller-Urey theory is widely accepted today?

a)

Amino acids spontaneously form from molecules in the atmosphere today.

b)

Organic molecules are present today in extremely high concentrations.

c)

The process of synthesizing organic molecules from a mixture of gases has been successfully modeled in the laboratory. 

d)

No other alternative hypotheses have been introduced.

27.
If two organisms have similar traits of DNA they are probably
a)
share a common ancestor
b)
share a common environment
c)
share a common population
d)
speciation
28.

Match the following

a)

Analogous Structure

1.

Same function different structure

b)

Homologous Structure

2.

Same structure different function

c)

Comparative Embryology

3.

Comparing embryological development of different species

d)

Biochemical Evidence

4.

Comparing DNA and amino acid sequences of different species

e)

Vestigial Structures

5.

Structures in the body of an organism that no longer work.

29.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
30.

Which of the following statements makes an accurate correlation between stages of hominid evolution?

a)

The brain increased in size which resulted in hominids developing tools.

b)

The brain decreased in size allowing for hominids to use tools.

c)

As the brain decreased in size the skull increased in size.

d)

Language developed as a result of increasing the size of the skull.

31.

Scientists have found evidence that about 2.4 million years ago a gene regulating jaw muscles mutated and may have led to the more graceful human jaw we see today. The diagram below shows the skulls of 3 hominid species.

Which statement below most closely explains the link between jaw size and hominid evolution? 

a)

The jaws of hominids changed over time due to a change in brain size. 

b)

There appears to be no change in the jaws of hominids over time.

c)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be larger and more protruding over time. 

d)

The jaws of hominids evolved to be smaller and less protruding over time. 

32.

One of the accepted scientific theories describing the origin of life on Earth is known as chemical evolution. According to this theory, which of the following events would need to occur first for life to evolve?

a)

onset of photosynthesis

b)

origin of genetic material

c)

Synthesis of organic molecules

d)

formation of the plasma membrane

33.

How did taxonomy change over time?

a)
By ignoring new scientific discoveries
b)

By creating new kingdoms and domains.

c)
By classifying organisms based on their habitat
d)
By relying solely on physical characteristics
34.

What distinguishes the archaebacteria from the eubacteria kingdom? (2 are correct)

a)

how they reproduce offspring

b)

type of environment they live in

c)

presence or absence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

d)

number of cells they are composed of

35.

What do the plant and animal kingdoms have in common? (2 are correct)

a)

autotrophic

b)

eukaryotic

c)

contain cell walls

d)

mostly multicellular

36.

Leaf S

a)

Eastern white pine

b)

balsam poplar

c)

sweet gum

d)

ginko

37.

Which leaf is shown in the drawing?

a)

Magnolia

b)

Redbud

c)

Sweetgum

d)

None of the above

38.

What distinguishes zebras from from giraffes?

a)

un-branching horns (in males)

b)

even number of toes

c)

fur

d)

carnivorous teeth

39.

Where is the alligator and T. rex's common ancestor?

a)

Point A

b)

Point B

c)

Point C

d)

Point D

40.

Which trait(s) do conifers have?

a)

vascular tissue only

b)

vascular tissue and seeds

c)

vascular tissue, seeds and flowers

d)

seeds only