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Neet

Total questions: 235

Worksheet time: 10hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In stem there are pores present that also help gaseous exchange they are called

a)

Alveoli

b)

Lenticells

c)

Both alveoli and lenticells

d)

None of this

2.

In mitochondria chondria means

a)

Thread

b)

Bundle

c)

Granules

d)

Mitos

3.

Krebs cycle is also known as

a)

Citric acid cycle

b)

TCA cycle

c)

Amphibolic pathway

d)

All of this

4.

Last product found in glycolysis

a)

Phosphoenolpyruvate

b)

Enolase

c)

Pyruvate

d)

2-phospoglycerate

5.

In anaerobic respiration one glucose molecules break down to release only

a)

38 Atp

b)

8 Atp

c)

2 Atp

d)

16 Atp

6.

Inner membrane has folded finger like projection known as

a)

Matrix

b)

Cristae

c)

Stalk

d)

Lipoprotein

7.

In glycolysis-------enzyme play important role in splitting stage

a)

Hexokinase

b)

Aldoses

c)

Phospho fructo kinase

d)

Both A and B

8.

The matrix shows presence of DNA hence mitochondria is called

a)

Chondriaome

b)

Sacrosome

c)

Self-duplicating unit

d)

Non self-Duplicating unit

9.

Krebs cycle takes place in

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Outer membrane of mitochondria

c)

Mitochondrial matrix

d)

Cristae

10.

AMP + 1 phosphate group =

a)

Atp

b)

Adp

c)

Amp

d)

None of this

11.

What volume of oxygen gas (O2) is required to completely burn 2L of propane (C3H8) measured under the same conditions?

a)

7L

b)

6L

c)

5L

d)

10L

12.

The number of moles of (KMnO4) reduced by one mole of (KI) in an alkaline medium is:

a)

One fifth

b)

Five

c)

One

d)

Two

13.

The number of moles of oxygen in 1L of air containing 21% oxygen by volume, under standard conditions, is:

a)

0.0093 mole

b)

2.10 moles

c)

0.186 mole

d)

0.21 mole

14.

The number of atoms in 0.5 moles of aluminium (Atomic mass = 27 u) is:

a)

3.01 x 10^23 atoms

b)

6.02 x 10^23 atoms

c)

9.03 x 10^23 atoms

d)

1.20 x 10^24 atoms

15.

The mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is:

a)

0.00177

b)

0.0344

c)

0.0177

d)

0.1770

16.

The mass of carbonic anhydride (CO2) formed by the complete combustion of 3.2g of carbon is:

a)

8.8g

b)

11.7g

c)

4.4g

d)

5.6g

17.

6.02x10^20 molecules of urea are present in 100mL of its solution. The concentration of the solution is:

a)

0.02M

b)

0.01M

c)

0.001M

d)

0.1M

18.

Concentrated nitric acid is 70% (HNO3). The amount of concentrated nitric acid solution that should be used to prepare 250 mL of 2.0 M (HNO3) would be:

a)

90.0 g conc. (HNO3)

b)

70.0 g conc. (HNO3)

c)

54.0 g conc. (HNO3)

d)

45.0 g conc. (HNO3)

19.

1 g of magnesium is burnt with 0.56g of oxygen in a closed vessel. The left-out reactant and its quantity are (At. weight of Mg = 24, O=16):

a)

Mg, 0.16g

b)

(O2), 0.16g

c)

Mg, 0.44g

d)

(O2), 0.28g

20.

Which of the following has the maximum number of molecules?

a)

7g (N2)

b)

2g (H2)

c)

16g (NO2)

d)

16g (O2)

21.

Animals accumulate following products produced either by metabolic activities or excessive ingestion

a)

Ammonia,Urea,uric acid.

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

Ions like Na,k,Cl , phosphate, Sulphates etc

d)

All of the above

22.

Major forms of Nitrogenous waste products excreted by animals are

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

d)

All of the above

23.

Most toxic form of Nitrogenous waste requiring large amount of water for excretion is

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

d)

None of the above

24.

Ammonotelism is process of excreting

a)

Ammonia

b)

Urea

c)

Uric acid

d)

None of the above

25.

Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians and aquatic insects are ammonotelic

a)

True

b)

False

26.

As ammonia is readily soluble, it is generally excreted by

a)

Diffusion

b)

Osmosis

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

27.

Ammonia is excreted through gill surfaces in fish in which form

a)

Ammonium ions

b)

Ammonia

c)

All of the above

d)

None of the above

28.

Kidneys donot play significant role in removal of ammonia in

a)

Fish

b)

Man

c)

Birds

d)

None of the above

29.

Terrestrial adaptation necessitated the production of

a)

Urea

b)

Uric acid

c)

Both a and b

d)

Ammonia

30.

For conservation of water terrestrial adaptation necessitated production of less toxic Nitrogenous wastes like

a)

Urea and Uric acid

b)

Ammonia

c)

Ammonia, urea and Uric acid

d)

None of the above

31.

Diamond is a

a)

Good thermal conductor

b)

Good Electrical conductor

c)

thermal Insulator

32.

All polymers are

a)

Crystalline

b)

Amorphous

33.

Dry Ice is

a)

CO

b)

CO2

c)

SiC

d)

Graphite

34.

As temperature Increase, Conductivity of Ionic solids

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Remains same

35.

Most unsymmetrical Crystal is

a)

Cubic

b)

Triclinic

c)

Hexagonal

d)

Monoclinic

36.

SiO2 (Silica) is ​ ​

a)

Amorphous

b)

Crystalline

c)

metallic

d)

Ionic

37.

SiO4 (quartz) is ​ ​

a)

Crystalline

b)

amorphous

c)

Both

38.

Z effective of Body Centered Cell is

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

39.

Coordination Number of Simple Cubic Unit cell and Body centered cell is respectively

a)

6,7

b)

7,6

c)

6,8

d)

8,6

40.

What is the electrostatic force between two protons, in comparison With the electrostatic force between two electrons?

a)

greater

b)

smaller

c)

zero

d)

same

41.

If electric flux through a closed surface is zero. What does it mean?

a)

the net charge inside the surface is zero.

b)

the electric field is necessarily zero at all points on the surface.

c)

no charge exists inside the surface.

d)

no charge exists outside the surface.

42.

How does Static electricity is produced?

a)

induction only

b)

friction

c)

chemical reaction only

d)

friction and induction both.

43.

When distance between two charges is reduced to one-half of the original distance, the force between them will remain the same if one of the charges is made:

a)

one fourth

b)

four times

c)

double

d)

one-halftimes

44.

A unit Coulomb charge is one which when placed in air at a distance of 1 m from an equal and similar charge repel it with a force of

a)

9 × 109 N

b)

1 N

c)

1 dyne

d)

none

45.

When two charged spheres are connected with a wire, How is the electric charge on them shared?

a)

inversely as their capacity

b)

equally

c)

in proportional to their capacity

d)

None

46.

An electric dipole of moment p is placed in the position of stable equilibrium in a uniform electric field E⃗ . The couple required to rotate it through an angle 6 the initial position is

a)

-PE cos θ

b)

PE tan θ

c)

PE cos θ

d)

PE sin θ

47.

Two point charges each of 20 µC are placed 50 cm apart in air. What is the electric field intensity at the mid point on the line joining the centre of two point charges?

a)

5 × 106 NC-1

b)

18 × 106 NC-1

c)

zero

d)

19 × 106 NC-1

48.

Two charges 10 pC and 5 pC are placed 20 cm apart. What the ratio of Coulomb’s force is experienced by them?

a)

2 : 5

b)

1 : 1

c)

√3 = √7

d)

2 = √7

49.

The figure here shows electric field lines. The electric field strength at P1 is E1 and that at P2 is E2 If distance between P1, P2 is r, then which of the following statement is true?

a)

E1 > E2

b)

E1 < E2

c)

E2 = rE1

d)

E2 = E1/r²

50.

Dielectric strength of a medium is 2 KV mm-1. What is the maximum potential difference that can be set up across a 50 µm specimen without puncturing it.

a)

1000 V

b)

100 V

c)

10 V

d)

10,000 V

51.

A charge q is distributed over two spheres of radii r1 and r2 such that their surface densities are equal. What is the ratio of their potential

a)

r1/r2

b)

U31/r32

c)

r2/r1

d)

U1/r2

52.

A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 V. The potential at a distance of 2 cm from the centre of sphere is:
(

a)

5 V

b)

10 V

c)

15 V

d)

20 V

53.

Electric potential V due to an electric dipole is related to the distance r of the observation point as:

a)

V ∝ r

b)

V ∝ r-1

c)

V ∝ r²

d)

V ∝ r-2

54.

Two insulated charged spheres of radii 20 cm and 25 cm respectively and having an equal charge q are connected by a copper wire and then they are separated.

a)

Both spheres will have the same charge q.

b)

Charge on sphere of radius 20 cm will be more than that of radius 25 cm.

c)

Charge on sphere of radius 20 cm will be lesser than that of 25 cm.

d)

Charge on each will be zq.

55.

A parallel plate air capacitor is given a charge of 3 µC. A sheet of dielectric constant 3 is inserted so that it completely fills the gap between the plates. The induced charge on each face of the sheet is numericaly:

a)

2 µC

b)

3 µC

c)

0

d)

9 µC

56.

Three capacitors of capacitances 3µF, 9µF and 18 µF are conected once in series and then in parallel. The ratio of equivalent capacitances Cs/Cp will be:

a)

1 : 15

b)

15 : 1

c)

1 : 1

d)

1 : 3

57.

Five equal capacitors, each with capacitance C are connected as shown. The equivalent capacitance between A and B is.

a)

5 C

b)

C

c)

C/5

d)

3C.

58.

The maximum potential upto which the conductor can be charged in Q12 is

a)

9 × 105 V

b)

9 × 106 V

c)

9 × 107 V

d)

9 × 108 V

59.

Kirchhoff s second law is based on the law of conservation of

a)

charge

b)

mass

c)

energy

d)

momentum

60.

When there is an electric current through a conducting wire along its length, then an electric field must exist:

a)

outside the wire but normal to it.

b)

inside the wire but parallel to it.

c)

inside the wire but normal to it.

d)

outside the wire but around it.

61.

The terminal potential difference of a cell when short circuited is

a)

zero

b)

E

c)

E/2

d)

E/3

62.

For which of the following dependence of drift velocity electric field E is Ohm’s law obeyed.

a)

vd < √E

b)

vd ∝ E

c)

vd ∝ E²

d)

vd = constant

63.

In 10 minutes, 3000 Coulombs of free electrons enter one end of a conductor and 3000 Coulomb of then leave the conductor at its other end. The current in the conductor is:

a)

5 A

b)

10 A

c)

0 A

d)

30 A

64.

A current I flows in a wire of circular cross-section with the free electrons travelling with a drift velocity v. The drift velocity of electrons when a current 21 flows in another wire of twice radius and of the same material is:

a)

v/2

b)

v

c)

2v

d)


√2 v

65.

The temperature coefficient of resistance of a wire is 0.00125° C-1. At 27°C, its resistance is 1Ω. The temperature of the wire at which its resistance becomes 2Ω is:

a)

1400 K

b)

854°C

c)

1127 K

d)

1154 K

66.

The heating element of an electric heater should be made of a material that should have:

a)

low specific resistance and low melting point

b)

high specific resistance and high melting point

c)

high specific resistance and low melting point

d)

low specific resistance and high melting point.

67.

The effective wattage of 60 W and 40 W lamps connected in: (A) series is equal to:

a)

24 W

b)

20 W

c)

100 W

d)

80 W

68.

Which of the following quantities cannot be an axial vector

a)

Velocity

b)

Torque

c)

Angular velocity

d)

Angular acceleration

69.

A body is moving along a circular path with constant speed υ. What is the change in velocity, when the angle described by the body at the centre of the circle is Ɵ?

a)

Zero

b)

2υ sin Ɵ/2

c)

2υ sin Ɵ

d)

2υ sin 2Ɵ

70.

Vector A and B include an angle Ɵ between them. If (A+B) and (A-B) respectively subtend angles α and β with A, then (tan α+ tan β) is:

a)

(AB sin Ɵ)/(A2+B2 cos2Ɵ)                                                  

b)

(2AB sin Ɵ)/(A2-B2cos2Ɵ)

c)

(A2 sin2Ɵ/A2+B2cos2Ɵ)     

d)

(B2sin2Ɵ)/A2-B2cos2Ɵ)

71.

A vector Q which has a magnitude of 8 is added to the vector P which lies along x – axis . The resultant of two vectors lies along y – axis and has magnitude twice that of P. The magnitude of P is :

a)

6/√5

b)

8/√5

c)

12/√5

d)

16/√5

72.

Out of following which resultant not possible by 10 N &15 N

a)

6N

b)

24N

c)

2N

d)

20 N

73.

If ‘A’ is a unit vector in a given direction then, the value of Ậ . dẬ/dt is:

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0

d)

none

74.

A physical quantity X is related to four quantities as x = a2bc1/2d3. If % error in the measurement of a, b, c and d is 2%, 2%, 4% and 1% respectively. The maximum percentage error in X could be

a)

13%

b)

5%

c)

3%

d)

11%

75.

The mass and volume of a body are found to be 5.00± 0.05 kg and 1.00±0.05 m3 respectively. Then the maximum possible percentage error in its density is

a)

5%

b)

6%

c)

9%

d)

11%

76.

If in measurement of radius of sphere, error is 1% then error in calculation of its volume will be

a)

1%

b)

3%

c)

4%

d)

5%

77.

A physical quantity P is given by P=A3B ½ /C-4D 3/2. The quantity which brings the maximum percentage error in P is

a)

A

b)

C

c)

B

d)

D

78.

A force is given by F = αsin (βt2). If ‘t’ is time then dimension of α and β is

a)

[ML2T-2] and [T2]

b)

[MLT-2] and [T2]

c)

[MLT-2] and [T-2]

d)

[M2LT-2] and [T-2]

79.

A coin and a bag full of rocks are thrown in a gravity less environment with the same initial speed. Which one of the following statements is true about the situation?

a)

The bag will travel faster

b)

The coin will travel faster

c)

Both will travel with the same speed

d)

Bag will not move

80.

Time taken to complete one Oscillaton is called as

a)

TIME PERIOD

b)

FREQUENCY

c)

AMPLITUDE

d)

DISPLACEMENT

81.

In SHM whether displacement and velocity are

a)

Opposite direction

b)

same direction

c)

May be Opposite direction

d)

I don't Know

82.

The motion which repeats itself after equal intervals of time

a)

Periodic Motion

b)

Oscillatory Motion

c)

Non harmonic motion

d)

Simple Harmonic Motion

83.

In SHM displacement and acceleration are in

a)

Same direction

b)

Opposite direction

c)

May be same direction or opposite

d)

I cannot answer

84.

Define the term force Constant .

a)

f.x

b)

f/x

c)

x/f

d)

x.f

85.

The number of oscillations taking place in one second is called as

a)

Wave

b)

Time Period

c)

frequency

d)

Energy

86.

Radian /sec is the unit of

a)

angular displacement

b)

angular Velocity

c)

Angular Accelaeration

d)

None of the above

87.

What is the other name of initial phase ?

a)

State

b)

Dimension

c)

Epoch

d)

position

88.

What is the potential energy at the Extreme Position of the pendulum?

a)

Minimum

b)

Double

c)

Half of the total energy

d)

Maximum

89.

What is the kinetic energy of the pendulum at the highest or extreme position ?

a)

Maximum

b)

Minimum

c)

Zero

d)

half

90.

In the formula X = 3YZ2, X and Z have dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction respectively. What are the dimensions of Y in MKSQ system ?

a)

M−3L−1T3Q4M^{-3}L^{-1}T^3Q^{\text{4}}

b)

M−3L−2T4Q4M^{-3}L^{-2}T^4Q^{\text{4}}

c)

M−2L−2T4Q4M^{-2}L^{-2}T^4Q^{\text{4}}

d)

M−3L−2T3Q4M^{-3}L^{-2}T^3Q^{\text{4}}

91.

The dimension of (12)ϵ0E2 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)\epsilon_0E^2\  is ( ϵ0\epsilon_0  :premittivity of free space,electric field)

a)

MLT−1MLT^{-1}  

b)

ML2T−1ML^2T^{-1}  

c)

ML−1T−2ML^{-1}T^{-2}  

d)

ML−2T−2ML^{-2}T^{-2}  

92.

The sum of the magnitudes of two forces acting at point is 18 and the magnitude of their resultant is 12. If the resultant is at 90° with the force of smaller magnitude, what are the, magnitudes of forces 

a)

12, 5

b)

14, 4 

c)

 5, 13 

d)

 10, 8

93.

The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.203,0.0003 and 2.1 X  10310^3  are :

a)

4,1,2

b)

5,1,2

c)

3,1,5

d)

4,5,1

94.

A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the diameter of a wire.

Main scale reading : 0 mm

Circular scale reading : 52 divisions

given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale .find the diameter of the wire

a)

0.026 cm

b)

0.005 cm

c)

0.52 cm

d)

.0.052 cm

95.

The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is given by  T=2π lgT=2\pi\ \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}   where l is about 100 cm and is known to have 1mm accuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured by a stop watch of least count 0.1 s. The percentage error in g is 

a)

0.1%

b)

2%

c)

0.2%

d)

8%

96.

The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2% and 3% respectively. How much will be the maximum error in the estimation of the kinetic energy obtained by measuring mass and speed

a)

11 %

b)

8%

c)

5%

d)

1%

97.

The random error in the arithmetic mean of 100 observations is x; then random error in the arithmetic mean of 400 observations would be

a)

4x

b)

14x\frac{1}{4}x

c)

2x

d)

12x\frac{1}{2}x

98.

Which of the following is the dimensionless quantity:

a)

force of surface tension

b)

strain

c)

stress

d)

co-efficient of viscosity

99.

Dimensions of velocity gradient are same as that of

a)

time period

b)

frequency

c)

angular acceleration

d)

acceleration

100.

The values of electronegativity of atoms A and B are 1.20 and 4.0 respectively. The percentage of ionic character of A ? B bond is

a)

50 %

b)

55.3%

c)

40%

d)

72.24%

101.

O22−O_2^{2^-}  is the symbol of __________ ion ?

a)

Hydroxide

b)

super oxide

c)

peroxide

d)

monoxide

102.

The number of electrons that are paired in oxygen molecule is

a)

7

b)

8

c)

14

d)

16

103.

When N2N^2   goes to N2+N^{2^+}  , the N−N bond distance ..... and when  C2C_2^{ }   goes to O2+O_{2^+}  , the O−O bond distance ....... 

a)

Decrease, increase  

b)

  Increase, increase 

c)

Increase, decrease

d)

None of these 

104.

Which of the following contains smallest bond angle in its molecule ?

a)

OH2OH_2

b)

SH2SH_2

c)

NH3NH_3

d)

SO2SO_2

105.

The pair of species having identical shapes for molecules of both species is

a)

XeF2,CoXeF_{2,}Co

b)

BF3 , PCl3BF_3\ ,\ PCl_3

c)

PF5 , IF5PF_5\ ,\ IF_5

d)

CF4 ,SF4CF_4\ ,SF_4

106.

Which One of the following species is diamagnetic in nature

a)

He2+He_2^+

b)

H2H_2

c)

H2+H_2^+

d)

H2−H^{2^-}

107.

Which of following molecules/ion does not contain unpaired electrons ?

a)

O22−O_2^{2^-}

b)

B2B_2

c)

N2+N_2^+

d)

O2O_2

108.

 Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g  Na2SO4.10H2ONa2SO4.10H2O  

a)

20.8

b)

22.4

c)

2.24

d)

2.08

109.

Using molecular orbital theory find which of the following has the shortest wave length ?

a)

O22−O_2^{2^-}

b)

O2+O_2^+

c)

O2−O_2^-

d)

O22+O_2^{2^+}

110.

Which of the following is an example of super octet molecule ?

a)

ClF3

b)

PCl5

c)

IF7

d)

all of the above

111.

Which of the following substances has the highest melting point?

a)

NaCl

b)

KCl

c)

MgO

d)

BaO

112.

What is the valency of carbon in CO32- ?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

-3

113.

In allene structure, three carbon atoms are joined by

a)

Three sigma bonds and three pi bonds

b)

Two sigma bonds and one pi- bond

c)

Two sigma bonds and two pi bonds

d)

Three pi bonds only

114.

The nodal plane in the π-bond of ethene is located in

a)

The molar plane

b)

A plane parallel to the molecular plane

c)

A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon-carbon sigma bond at right angle

d)

A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-carbon σ-bond.

115.

Which one of the following molecules has the smallest bond angle?

a)

NH3

b)

PH3

c)

H2Se

d)

H2S

116.

In terms of polar character, which of the following order is correct?

a)

NH3 < H2O < HF < H2S

b)

H2S < NH3 < H2O < HF

c)

H2O < NH3 < H2S < HF

d)

HF < H2O < NH3 < H2S

117.

Which of the following pair of molecules will have permanent dipole moment for both members?

a)

NO2 & CO2

b)

NO2 & O3

c)

SiF4 & CO2

d)

SiF4 & NO2

118.

Two hybrid orbitals have a bond angle of 120°. The percentage of s character in the hybrid orbital is nearly

a)

25%

b)

33%

c)

50%

d)

66%

119.

The hybrid state of C atom in C2H2 is same as that of carbon in

a)

C2H6

b)

CO2

c)

BENZENE

d)

C (diamond)

120.

NEET 2022 Phase 2

Na2B4O7 ⟶ℎ��� X + NaBO2

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

121.

NEET 2022

match the pair borax

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

122.

NEET 2022

Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

123.

NEET 2022

Given below are two statements

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

124.

NEET 2022

Which of the following reactions is a part of the large scale industrial preparation of nitric acid?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

125.

NEET 2022

match list 1 with 2 mgh2

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

126.

neet 2021

Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

127.

Noble gases are named because of their inertness towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement about them.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

128.

neet 2021

In which one of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the properties indicted against it?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

s

129.

neet 2020

Which of the following is not correct about carbon monoxide?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

130.

neet 2020

Urea reacts with water to form A which will decompose to form B. B when passed through Cu2+ (aq), deep blue colour solution C is formed. What is the formula of C from the following?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

131.

neet 2020

Match the following and identify the correct option.

(A)CO(g) + H2(g)(i)Mg(HCO3)2 + Ca(HCO3)2(B)Temporary hardness of water

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

132.

Identify the correct statements from the following :(A) CO2(g) is used as refrigerant for ice-cream and frozen food.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

133.

Which of the following oxoacid of sulphur has − O− O− linkage?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

134.

neet 2019

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

135.

Which of the following species is not stable?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

136.

neet 2019

which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

137.

neet 2019

Identify the incorrect statement related to PCl5 from the following :

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

138.

Match the following :

(a) Pure nitrogen(i) Chlorine

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

139.

neet 2019

Match the Xenon compounds in Column-I with its structure in Column-II and assign the correct code :

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

140.

Which one of the following elements is unable to form MF63– ion?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

141.

Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

142.

neet 2017

t is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the valence shell to participate in bonding that

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

143.

neet 2017

Match the interhalogen compounds of column-I with the geometry in column-II and assign the correct code.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

144.

In which pair of ions both the species contain S − S bond?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

145.

neet 2016

Boric acid is an acid because its molecule

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

146.

neet 2016

AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the formation of

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

147.

Match the compounds given in column I with the hybridisation and shape given in column II and mark the correct option Column I

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

148.

neet 2016

Which is the correct statement for the given acids?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

149.

neet 2016

When copper is heated with conc. HNO3 it produces

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

150.

The hybridisation of carbon atom in C — C single bond of H2C = CH — CH = CH2 is

a)

(a) sp3 — sp

b)

(b) sp2 — sp

c)

(c) sp2 — sp2

d)

(b) sp3 — sp3

151.

In the hydrocarbon, the state of hybridization of carbons 1, 3 and 5 are in the following sequence

a)

(a) sp2 , sp, sp3

b)

(b) sp, sp3 , sp2

c)

(c) sp, sp2 , sp3

d)

(d) sp3 , sp2 , sp

152.

The percentage of s- character of the hybrid orbitals in ethane, ethene and ethyne are respectively

a)

(a) 50, 75, 100

b)

(b) 10, 20, 40

c)

(c) 25, 33, 50

d)

(d) 25, 50, 75

153.

Select the molecule which has only one Π-bond

a)

b)

c)

d)

154.

The successive members in a homologues series differ from each other by ________

a)

(a) – CH2 CH2 – unit

b)

(b) – CH2 unit

c)

(c) – OCH3 unit

d)

(d) – CH3 unit

155.

The state of hybridisation of C2 ,C3 ,C 5 and C6 of the hydrocarbonis in the following sequence

a)

sp3 sp2 sp, sp3

b)

sp3 sp2 sp2, sp3

c)

sp sp3 sp2, sp3

d)

sp sp2 sp3, sp2

156.

8 The correct order regarding the electronegativity of hybrid orbitals of carbon is

a)

a) sp >sp2 < sp3

b)

sp >sp2 > sp3

c)

sp <sp2 >sp3

d)

sp < sp2 < sp3

157.

Which of the following possesses a sp-carbon in its structure?

a)

b)

c)

d)

158.

Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

a)

Burning of candle

b)

Dissolving salt in water

c)

Dissolving Zinc in dil. H2SO4

d)

Rusting of iron

159.

In the reaction

3Br2 + 6CO32- + 3H2O → 5Br – + BrO3– + 6HCO3–

a)

Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced.

b)

Bromine is reduced and water is oxidised.

c)

Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised.

d)

Bromine is both reduced and oxidised.

160.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

161.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

162.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

163.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

164.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

165.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

166.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

167.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

168.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

169.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

170.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

171.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

172.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

173.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

174.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

175.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

176.

Blood is a kind of

a)

Fluid connective tissue

b)

Skeletal tissue

c)

Areolar tissue

d)

Glandular epithelial tissue

177.

Adult RBCs are produced by

a)

Thymus

b)

Yellow bone marrow

c)

Red bone marrow

d)

Heart

178.

Most abundant cells in the human blood are

a)

Leucocytes

b)

Plasma cells

c)

Erythrocytes

d)

Platelets

179.

Lymph contains

a)

Some proteins

b)

Calcium and phosphorus

c)

Glucose

d)

All

180.

The heart sound dub is caused by the

a)

Opening of maitral valve

b)

Closing of mitral valve

c)

Closing of semilunar valve

d)

Opening of tricuspid valve

181.

Pulmonary veins are those which

a)

Carry impure blood from lungs to the heart

b)

Carry pure blood from lungs to heart

c)

Carry impure blood from heart to lungs

d)

Carry pure blood from heart to lungs

182.

Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?

a)

Stethoscope

b)

Barometer

c)

Sphygmomanometer

d)

None

183.

William Harvey is credited with discovery of

a)

Bloodclotting

b)

blood circulation

c)

Process of digestion

d)

Mechanism of respiration

184.

Diastole occurs due to

a)

Elastic recoli of arteries

b)

Relaxation of heart muscles

c)

Nerve impulse from Vagus

d)

All

185.

Which of the following carries the blood from lungs to heart?

a)

Carotid artery

b)

Pulmonary vein

c)

Cardiac whessel

d)

Pulmonary artery

186.

Human heart is

a)

Myogenic

b)

Neurogenic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Digenetic

187.

The hormone that stimulates heart beat is

a)

Thyroxine

b)

Adrenalin

c)

Glucagon

d)

Gastrin

188.

Arteriosclerosis is mainly due to

a)

Intake of protein rich diet

b)

Inelasticity of arteries

c)

Malfunctioning of heart

d)

Deposition of potassium salt

189.

Congestion of lungs is one of the main symptom in

a)

Hypertension

b)

Coronary artery diseases

c)

Angina pectoris

d)

Heart failure

190.

pH of blood is

a)

Greater than 9

b)

Less than 7

c)

Ranges between 7 to 8

d)

None

191.

Who proposed cascade theory of blood coagulation?

a)

Wiener

b)

Landsteiner

c)

William Huxley

d)

Macfarlane

192.

Blood does not clot inside blood vessels due to the presence of

a)

Hepatin

b)

Fibrinogen

c)

Vitamin k

d)

Thrombin

193.

The role of pacemaker in heart is to

a)

Initiate heartbeat

b)

Control blood pressure

c)

Control atherosclerosis

d)

Purify blood

194.

Which of the following parts of heart first receives deoxygenated blood?

a)

Right ventricle

b)

Right auricle

c)

Left auricle

d)

Left ventricle

195.

Which vertebrate organ receives only oxygenated blood?

a)

Gill

b)

Spleen

c)

Lungs

d)

Liver

196.

Increase in blood pressure is

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hypotension

c)

Glucosuria

d)

Angina

197.

In an incident there is a great loss of blood and there is no time to analyse the blood group which blood can be safely transferred?

a)

O n Rh negative

b)

O and Rh pasitive

c)

B and Rh negative

d)

AB and Rh positive

198.

The production of red blood cells in the bone marrow is regulated by

a)

Renin

b)

Rennin

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

None

199.

If a person is undergoing artificial pace make transplant, then at which of the following structure of heart electrodes are connected

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Left ventricle

d)

Right ventricles

200.

Which of the following are not a true cells in the blood?

a)

Platelets

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Monocytes

d)

Basophils

201.

Which of the following substances can initiate blood coagulation?

a)

Prothrombin

b)

Fibrinogens

c)

Thromboplastin

d)

Heparin

202.

Which of the following is correct about human heart?

a)

The volume of both atria >the valume of both ventricles

b)

The volume of both ventricles < the volume of both atria

c)

The volume of both atria = the volume of both ventricles

d)

Ventricles are upper chambers and atria are lower chambers in our heart

203.

Which of the following is incorrect statement?

a)

Cardiac arrest is sudden stopping of heartbeat

b)

Heart attack is when the cardiac muscles injured or damaged by an insufficient supply blood

c)

Heart failure is the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively to satisfy the needs of the body

d)

None

204.

If the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg the pulse pressure is

a)

120×80=9600 mm Hg

b)

120+80=200 mm Hg

c)

120-80=40 mm Hg

d)

120/80=1.5 mm Hg

205.

What will happen if a person has taken a vitamin k and antagonist by mistake?

a)

Leukaemia

b)

Anticoagulation

c)

Thrombocythemia

d)

Inhibition of RBC formation

206.

Identify the given figure and select the correct option

a)

Neutrophil

b)

Lymphocytes

c)

Monocytes

d)

Eosinophils

207.

Given below are the figures of blood vessels identify them and select the correct option.

a)

Capillary, vein, artery

b)

Artery ,capillary, vein

c)

Vein, capillary, artery

d)

Vein, artery, capillary

208.

Refer to the given figure showing ventral view of human heart and select the correct options for P,Q,R and S

a)

Aorta ,pulmonary vein ,superior Vena cava, inferior Vena cava

b)

Pulmonary artery,aorta, inferior Vena cava, superior Vena cava

c)

Pulmonary vein, aorta ,superior Vena cava ,inferior Vena cava

d)

Aorta, pulmonary artery ,superior Vena cava, inferior Vena cava

209.

The given figure is of circulatory system.Identify the labelled parts A - D from the list

(I) pulmonary circulation ii)systemic circulation iii)superior Vena cava iv) inferior Vena cava v) aorta vi)veins and venules vii)arterioles and capillaries

a)

v,iii,I,vii

b)

vii,iv,I,vi

c)

v,iii,ii,vii

d)

vii,v,I,vi

210.

Persons with AB blood group are called as "universal recipients" this is due to

a)

Absence of antibodies anti A and anti B in plasma

b)

Absence of antigens A and B and the surface of RBCs

c)

Absence of antigens A and B in plasma

d)

Presence of antibodies, anti A and anti B on RBCs

211.

Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins

a)

Thrombo kinase

b)

Thrombin

c)

Renin

d)

Epinephrine

212.

The QRS complex in a standard ECG represents

a)

Repolarisation of auricles

b)

Depolarisation of auricles

c)

Depolarization of ventricles

d)

Repolarisation of ventricles

213.

The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from

a)

Stomach

b)

Kidney

c)

Intestine

d)

Heart

214.

Phagocytosis is shown by

a)

Lymphocytes and neutrophils

b)

Monocytes and Eosinophils

c)

Monocytes and basophills

d)

Neutrophils and monocytes

215.

The cation/anion responsible for blood clotting is

a)

Ca2+

b)

PO4

c)

Mg2+

d)

Cl-

216.

What is diabedesis?

a)

A kind of amoeboid movement

b)

The process of filtration of urea in kidney

c)

A type of locomotion found in hydra

d)

Migration of WBC into the tissues spaces from blood capillaries

217.

An artificial pacemaker implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients

a)

Having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries

b)

Having a very high blood pressure

c)

With irregularity in the heart rhythm

d)

Suffering from arteriosclerosis

218.

Purkinje fibres are present in

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Liver

d)

Kidney

219.

From the following which are not present in the walls of the heart?

a)

Cells

b)

Tissues

c)

Neurons

d)

None

220.

Blood is red in colour because of the presence of

a)

Lymph

b)

Plasma

c)

Hemoglobin

d)

Bone marrow

221.

Read the different components from I to IV in the list given below and tell the correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side to inner side in a woody dicot stem

I. Secondary Cortex

II. Wood

III. Secondary phloem

IV. Phellem

The correct order is

a)

III, IV, II, I

b)

I, II, IV, III

c)

IV, I, III, II

d)

IV, III, I, II

222.

Chromatophores take part in

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Growth

c)

Movement

d)

Respiration

223.

Which of the following joints would allow no movement?

a)

Fibrous joint

b)

Cartilaginous joint

c)

Synovial joint

d)

Ball and socket joint

224.

The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as

a)

epiblast

b)

coleorrhiza

c)

scutellum

d)

coleoptile

225.

A gene showing co-dominance has

a)

One allele dominant on the other

b)

Alleles tightly linked on the same chromosome

c)

Alleles that is recessive to each other

d)

Both alleles independently expressed in the heterozygote

226.

A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field B, moving at right angles to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be

a)

4 MeV

b)

0.5 MeV

c)

1.5 MeV

d)

1 MeV

227.

A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches 30o, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0 m down the plank in 4.0 s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively

a)

0.6 and 0.6

b)

0.6 and 0.5

c)

0.5 and 0.6

d)

0.4 and 0.3

228.

An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes. Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas?

a)

Adiabatic

b)

Isobaric

c)

Isochoric

d)

Isothermal

229.

A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20m with an initial velocity v0. It collides with the ground, losses 50% of its energy in collision and rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity v0 is

[Take, g = 10 ms-1]

a)

14 ms-1

b)

20 ms-1

c)

28 ms-1

d)

10 ms-1

230.

In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the Balmer series is

a)

4/9

b)

9/4

c)

27/5

d)

5/27

231.

In which of the following pairs, both the species are not is isostructural?

a)

SiCl4,PCl^-4

b)

Diamond, carbide

c)

NH3,PH3

d)

XeF4,XeO4

232.

Reaction of phenol with chloroform in the presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces, which one of the following functional group?

a)

-CH2Cl

b)

-COOH

c)

-CHCl2

d)

-CHO

233.

Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides?

a)

I, III and IV

b)

I and II

c)

Only IV

d)

III and IV

234.

In an SN1 reaction on chiral centers there is

a)

100% racemisation

b)

Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemisation

c)

100% retention

d)

100% inversion

235.

Number of possible isomers for the complex will be (en=ethylenediamine)

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4