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UIL SCIENCE PRACTICE TEST

Total questions: 49

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In a plasma the electrons are no longer associated with a particular nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

2.
My glass of ice water is sitting in the sun and has droplets of water on the outside of the glass. What is happening?
a)
condensation
b)
evaporation
c)
melting
d)
freezing
3.
What phase change occurs between points B and C if heat is added?
a)
Freezing
b)
Melting
c)
Boiling
d)
Condensing
4.

What letter on the diagram represents a gas?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.

What is the role of auxin that causes a plant to bend towards light?

a)

The concentration of auxin in the plant increases when there is light.

b)

Auxin causes uniform growth on every stem.

c)

Auxin causes cells that are on the dark side to grow faster.

d)

Auxin causes the increase in the number of plant cells.

6.

The growth hormone that is used to speed up the ripening of fruits for export is

a)

giberellin.

b)

ethylene.

c)

cytokinin.

d)

auxin.

7.
Which hormone promotes seed germination?
a)
abscisic acid
b)
ethylene
c)
gibberellin
d)
auxin
8.

The total current through this circuit is

a)

0.02 amps

b)

0.09 amps

c)

50 amps

d)

9 amps

9.

V = 40 volts and R = 4 ohms. What is the current?

a)

160 amps

b)

10 amps

c)

4 amp

d)

1 amp

10.

What is the unit for current?

a)

Ohms

b)

Amps

c)

Volts

d)

Watts

11.
What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?
a)
Transription
b)
Translation
c)
Folding
d)
Coding
12.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

13.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
14.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
15.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
16.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
17.

Which of these are involved in cutting out the introns? SELECT TWO.

a)

Spliceosomes

b)

Lactase

c)

snRNPs

d)

Antitrons

18.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds prior to transcription.

a)

operator

b)

promoter

c)

initiator

d)

repressor

19.

An organism that inherits two of the same alleles for

a single trait is

a)

homozygous.

b)

haploid.

c)

heterozygous.

d)

hemizygous.

e)

polyploid.

20.

Replicate the following DNA template strand: 3’-CAGGTTCAAG-5’

a)

5’-CAGGTTCAAG-3’

b)

5’-GUCCAAGUUC-3’

c)

3’-GTCCAAGTTC-5’

d)

5’-CAGGUUCAAG-3’

e)

5’-GTCCAAGTTC-3’

21.

All of the following cell division processes generate

haploid cells in humans, except

a)

mitosis.

b)

meiosis.

c)

oogenesis.

d)

gametogenesis.

22.

Which of these statements describes the process of

translation?

a)

The flow of genetic information from DNA to

RNA.

b)

The copying of DNA to transmit the genetic

information to daughter cells during cell

division.

c)

The generation of an amino acid sequence from

a specific order of codons on messenger RNA.

d)

The expression of a gene on DNA into tRNA or

rRNA.

e)

Vertical gene transfer during mitosis.

23.

A Mendelian dihybrid cross in which both parents

are heterozygous for both traits would yield a

phenotypic ratio of_________________ .

a)

1:2:1

b)

3:1

c)

1:1

d)

9:3:3:1

e)

none of the above

24.

Inserting or deleting a base from a DNA coding

region would result in which type of mutation?

a)

nonsense

b)

missense

c)

frameshift

d)

silent

e)

substitution

25.

All of the following answer choices are examples of

symbiosis. Which is the best example of

mutualism?

a)

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria residing within root

nodules of leguminous plants.

b)

A domesticated dog having fleas.

c)

Tapeworms inside a mammal’s intestines,

consuming nutrients and leading to malnutrition

and weight loss.

d)

Fungi growing on the side of a dead tree by

secreting enzymes and absorbing the digested

products.

e)

A viral infection in a human cell.

26.

What is the correct volume reading for the liquid in

this burette?

a)

20.84 mL

b)

20.96 mL

c)

20.90 mL

d)

21.05 mL

e)

21.16 mL

27.

A piece of silvery metal measuring 2.0 cm × 2.0 cm

× 5.0 cm has a mass of 178.60 g. Which of these

metals is it most likely to be?

a)

Aluminum

b)

Iron

c)

Cobalt

d)

Nickel

e)

Copper

28.

How many atoms are in one mole of C6H14? 1 mole of molecules = 6.02 x 1023 molecules Hint: note that this question is asking for number of atoms.

a)

6.022 × 1023

b)

1.204 × 1024

c)

6.022 × 1024

d)

1.204 × 1025

e)

6.022 × 1025

29.

Calculate the molar mass of Ba(OH)2.

a)

154.33 g/mol

b)

170.33 g/mol

c)

171.34 g/mol

d)

155.34 g/mol

30.

In a phospholipid, the fatty acid tails are________________ and

the “head,” which is made of phosphate and choline,

is ____________________________ .

a)

hydrophobic; hydrophobic

b)

hydrophobic; hydrophilic

c)

hydrophilic; hydrophilic

d)

hydrophilic; hydrophobic

31.

Which tissue is excitable, conductive, and under

voluntary control?

a)

skin

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

autonomic neurons

d)

nervous tissue

e)

cardiac muscle

32.

Anything associated with a microbial pathogen that

enhances its disease-causing ability is called a/an

a)

antigen.

b)

antibody.

c)

etiologic agent.

d)

virulence factor.

e)

growth factor.

33.

The esophagus is a muscular tube that belongs to

which body organ system?

a)

lymphatic

b)

digestive

c)

nervous

d)

respiratory

e)

endocrine

34.

How many atoms are in one mole of C6H14?

a)

6.022 × 1023

b)

1.204 × 1024

c)

6.022 × 1024

d)

1.204 × 1025

e)

6.022 × 1025

35.

What is the molar mass of gaseous dinitrogen

tetroxide?

a)

30.01 g/mol

b)

44.02 g/mol

c)

46.01 g/mol

d)

88.04 g/mol

e)

92.02 g/mol

36.

What is the sum of the coefficients when this

chemical equation is balanced?

Fe + H2SO4 → Fe2(SO4)3 + H2

a)

12

b)

9

c)

8

d)

7

e)

4

37.

What is the mass percent iron in Fe2O3?

a)

30.06%

b)

34.97%

c)

55.85%

d)

69.94%

e)

111.70%

38.

How do the intermolecular forces in solid wax

compare to the intermolecular forces in molten

wax?

a)

Solid wax has hydrogen bonding but molten

wax only has dipole-dipole forces.

b)

Solid wax has hydrogen bonding but molten

wax only has dispersion forces.

c)

Solid wax has dipole-dipole attractions, but

molten wax only has dispersion forces.

d)

Solid wax has dispersion forces and molten wax

has no intermolecular forces.

e)

The intermolecular forces in solid wax and in

molten wax are the same.

39.

What is the name of the compound Cu2O?

a)

copper oxide

b)

copper(I) oxide

c)

copper(II) oxide

d)

cupric oxide

e)

dicopper monoxide

40.

Analyze the following answer choices. Which one

is not a catabolic pathway?

a)

fermentation

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

protein synthesis

e)

glycolysis

41.

The _______________structure of a protein encompasses ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, disulfide bridges, and hydrogen bonds to generate a three dimensional shape.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

42.

The MMR combination vaccine is designed to

protect against all of the following viral infections,

except

a)

measles

b)

roseola

c)

mumps

d)

rubella

e)

German measles

43.

What is the pH of a 0.0075 M Ba(OH)2 solution?

a)

12.18

b)

11.88

c)

7.5

d)

2.12

e)

1.82

44.

What is the net ionic equation for the reaction of

lead(II) nitrate with potassium iodide?

a)

2 PbNO3(aq) + KI(aq) → 2 PbI(s) + KNO3(aq)

b)

Pb2NO3(aq) + KI(aq) → Pb2I(s) + KNO3(aq)

c)

Pb2+(aq) + 2 NO3-(aq) + 2 K+(aq) + 2 I-(aq) → PbI2(s) +

2 KNO3(aq)

d)

Pb2+(aq) + 2 I-(aq) → PbI2(s)

e)

K+(aq) + NO3-(aq) → KNO3(s)

45.

If you sprinkled table salt into a saturated solution

of lead(II) chloride, what would happen to the

concentrations of the dissolved lead and chloride

ions?

a)

The lead ion concentration would decrease and

the chloride concentration would increase.

b)

The chloride concentration would increase but

the lead ion concentration would stay the same.

c)

The table salt would not dissolve, so the lead and chloride concentrations would remain unchanged.

d)

The lead ions would precipitate out the added chloride ions, so both the lead and chloride ion concentrations would decrease from their initial levels.

e)

The chloride concentration would increase until

it was equal to the lead concentration, then no

more table salt would dissolve.

46.

If a piece of dry ice (solid CO2) weighing 2.85

grams is allowed to sublimate in a tied-off

balloon at 25°C and 1 atm pressure, what will

the final volume of the balloon be?

a)

2.85 mL

b)

0.44 L

c)

1.45 L

d)

1.58 L

e)

22.4 L

47.

Three ice cubes with a total mass of 48.22 g are

placed in a glass of tea. How much heat will be

absorbed from the tea in order to completely melt

the ice?

a)

16.1 kJ

b)

8.01 kJ

c)

2.25 kJ

d)

5.37 kJ

e)

10.1 kJ

48.

How many σ bonds and how many π bonds are in

one molecule of trans-2-butene?

a)

4 σ bonds and 2 π bonds

b)

5 σ bonds and 1 π bond

c)

5 σ bonds and 0 π bonds

d)

10 σ bonds and 2 π bonds

e)

11 σ bonds and 1 π bond

49.

When hydrocarbons are burned in the presence

of limited oxygen, carbon monoxide is formed.

Calculate the heat of reaction for the incomplete

combustion of one mole of methane. The balanced

incomplete combustion reaction is


2 CH4(g) + 3 O2(g) → 2 CO(g) + 4 H2O(l)

a)

‒1214 kJ

b)

‒607 kJ

c)

‒1456 kJ

d)

+1456 kJ

e)

‒324 kJ