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Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Besides coal and natural gas, another fossil fuel  is
a)
petroleum/oil
b)
biomass
c)
electricity
d)
uranium
2.
Fossil fuels are nonrenewable  resources because they
a)
take millions of years to form
b)
are easily replaced
c)
are in high demand
d)
don't pollute the air
3.
The source of energy that comes from the intense heat beneath Earth's surface is
a)
nuclear fusion
b)
geothermal energy
c)
solar energy
d)
chemical energy
4.
All of the following are renewable except
a)
uranium
b)
solar
c)
hydropower
d)
food crops (biomass)
5.
The original source of energy for fossil fuels comes from the
a)
sun
b)
Earth's crust
c)
geothermal energy
d)
oceans
6.
Moving water, tides, and dams are examples of
a)
hydropower
b)
fossil fuels
c)
geothermal energy
d)
radiant energy
7.
This fossil fuel releases the least amount of air pollution
a)
natural gas
b)
coal
c)
nuclear
d)
oil
8.
When steam or water are used to turn a turbine, it can generate
a)
electricity
b)
oil
c)
geothermal energy
d)
uranium
9.
According to the graph, what sector is the greatest user of energy?
a)
industry
b)
commercial
c)
transportation
d)
residential
10.
Approximately how much energy does the transportation sector use?
a)
27%
b)
52%
c)
14%
d)
8%
11.
What is the best title for the following?
geothermal
solar
wind
a)
fossil fuels
b)
nonrenewable energy
c)
heat energy
d)
renewable energy
12.
What is the largest concern we have with adding too much CO2 to the atmosphere?
a)
makes too many clouds
b)
contributes to a warmer planet
c)
affects our breathing
d)
disrupts solar energy
13.
One disadvantage to using coal to produce electricity is that coal -
a)
forms in a short amount of time.
b)
is abundant over a wide area.
c)
is not environmentally friendly.
d)
is relatively quite affordable.
14.
Look at the graph provided. What percent of the total energy used in the United States in 2009 came from fossil fuels?
a)
16%
b)
83%
c)
46%
d)
54%
15.
Which of the following recommendations could a community make to its citizens that would do the most to conserve energy resources?
a)
Carpool, bicycle, or walk whenever possible
b)
Keep lighting turned on when they are not in use
c)
Drivers and all passengers should wear seatbelts
d)
Recycle papers and plastics whenever possible
16.

Why is the inner core of the Earth solid?

a)

it's very hot

b)

high pressure

c)

it is metal

d)

it is molten rock

17.

Where can convection currents be found?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

18.

Which layer of the earth is divided into pieces called tectonic plates?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

19.

Why do the tectonic plates move?

a)

ocean currents in the hydrosphere

b)

winds in the atmosphere

c)

gravity

d)

convection currents in the mantle

20.

In which type of plate boundary do the tectonic plates move apart?

a)

conservative or transform

b)

constructive or divergent

c)

destructive (collision zone)

d)

destructive (subduction zone)

21.

Which type of plate boundary has mainly volcanoes and few large earthquakes

a)

conservative or transform

b)

constructive or divergent

c)

destructive (collision zone)

d)

destructive (subduction zone)

22.

Which type of plate boundary involves one piece of oceanic crust sliding under a piece of continental crust

a)

conservative or transform

b)

constructive or divergent

c)

destructive (collision zone)

d)

destructive (subduction zone)

23.

Which type of crust is older and less dense?

a)

continental

b)

collision

c)

oceanic

24.

Which type of plate boundary is found on the West coast of Mexico and South America

a)

conservative or transform

b)

constructive or divergent

c)

convergent(collision zone)

d)

destructive (subduction zone}

25.

Where is the Ring of Fire

a)

round the Atlantic Ocean

b)

round the Pacific Ocean

c)

Round the Mediterranean Sea

d)

Around the Himalayan Mountains

26.

How fast are the tectonic plates moving (more or less)?

a)

5cm a year

b)

5m a year

c)

50cm a year

d)

500cm a year

27.

Which is an example of a convergent plate boundary (collision zone)

a)

Mid-Atlantic Ridge

b)

West coast of Mexico

c)

San Andreas Fault in California

d)

Himalayas

28.

Which type of plate boundary formed Iceland?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

29.

When do fold mountains form?

a)

when plates collide or move towards each other

b)

when plates slide past each other

c)

when plates move apart

30.

Which scale is used to measure earthquakes?

a)

Richfort

b)

Decimal

c)

Beaufort

d)

Richter

31.

What is the name for the place where an earthquake originates below the ground?

a)

Richter

b)

crust

c)

focus

d)

epicentre

32.

What is the name of the instrument used to measure earthquake waves?

a)

barometer

b)

thermometer

c)

anemometer

d)

seismometer

33.

Which is an example of a secondary effect of an earthquake?

a)

lava bombs

b)

tsunami

c)

houses collapse

d)

deaths

34.

What is the name of the tube that lava rises through in a volcano?

a)

crater

b)

magma chamber

c)

vent

d)

magma

35.

What is a composite volcano made of?

a)

just lava

b)

just ash

c)

ash and pyroclastic flows

d)

lava and ash

36.

What is the name for a hot, fast moving cloud of gas and ash released by a volcano?

a)

lava

b)

magma

c)

lava bomb

d)

pyroclastic flow

37.

Which mountain range does not have volcanoes?

a)

Himalayas

b)

Andes

c)

Sierra Madre

38.

Which is an example of a response to an earthquake?

a)

digging deeper foundations on buildings

b)

automatic shutters on windows

c)

alarm systems

d)

sending aid such as tents, food and water

39.

How many times is an earthquake of 7 on the richter scale than an earthquake of 5?

a)

2

b)

10

c)

100

d)

20

40.
Which is NOT a method of transportation?
a)
Abrasion
b)
Saltation
c)
Traction
d)
Suspension
41.
Where would you find a waterfall?
a)
Upper course
b)
Middle Course
c)
Lower Course
42.
"Rocks rolled along the river bed" is what type of transportation?
a)
Saltation
b)
Suspension
c)
Traction
d)
Solution
43.
"When rocks scrape along the river bank and bed" is what type of erosion?
a)
Attrition
b)
Abrasion
c)
Solution
d)
Hydraulic Action
44.
"This is where plants, trees, or buildings collect the precipitation" What am I?
a)
Interception
b)
Infiltration
c)
Percolation
d)
Surface runoff
45.
"Where the water filters into the ground and into the tiny pores in the soil" What am I?
a)
Infiltration
b)
Percolation
c)
Precipitation
d)
Interception
46.
"I am the movement of water sideways through the soil" What am I?
a)
Throughflow
b)
Rock flow
c)
Soil flow
d)
Groundwater flow
47.
"I am a smaller river joining a larger river" What am I?
a)
Confluence
b)
Tributary 
c)
Drainage Basin
d)
Watershed
48.
I am the land that gets flooded when the river overflows. What am I?
a)
Levee
b)
Delta
c)
Floodplain
d)
Meander
49.

A river's ________________ is the starting point of the river.

a)

source

b)

triutaries

c)

mouth

d)

drainage basin

50.

________________ are streams that flow together to make a river.

a)

source

b)

tributaries

c)

mouth

d)

drainage basin

51.

The place where the river end in the sea or large lake is called the ___________.

a)

source

b)

tributaries

c)

mouth

d)

drainage basin

52.

The area of land DRAINED by a river system is called the _____________

a)

drainage basin

b)

mouth

c)

tributaries

d)

source

53.
What are three things that rivers do naturally?
a)
a.erode, transport, and deposit
b)
b. dissolve, precipitate, sublime
c)
c. evaporate, percolate, infiltrate
d)
d.none of these
54.
 Deposition is a process that
a)
Dissolves sediment
b)
Breaks down rock to form sediment
c)
Removes sediment from land forms
d)
Drops sediment to form landforms
55.

What landform can you see in the picture?

a)

U shaped valley

b)

V Shaped Valley

c)

Floodplain

d)

Waterfall

56.
What river is this?
a)
Colorado
b)
Ohio
c)
Rio Grande
d)
Mississippi
57.

Name this river feature

a)

Ox-bow lake

b)

Meander

c)

Delta

d)

Waterfall and Gorge

58.

Which river process happens on the outisde of this meander?

a)

Erosion

b)

Transportation

c)

Deposition

59.

What do we call the point where one river joins another?

a)

confluence

b)

tributary

c)

delta

d)

erosion

60.

The force of the moving water and air wears away the banks and bed of the river. Water forces air to be trapped in the banks and the pressure eventually cracks and breaks the banks.

a)

attrition

b)

abration

c)

solution

d)

hydraulic action

61.

The image shows deforestation. How does this increase flooding risk?

a)

Less interception and more surface runoff.

b)

More interception

c)

More groundwater flow

62.

Which of the following are not an example of hard engineering? (Select 2)

a)

Dams

b)

Afforestation

c)

River staightening

d)

Land-use zoning

63.

rocks and pebbles in the river crash against each other and become smaller

a)

corrosion

b)

hydraulic action

c)

attrition

d)

abrasion

64.
Transportation in river systems has four main categories. These are ...
a)
Suspension, Solution, Attrition, Abrasion.
b)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, Abrasion.
c)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, Attrition.
d)
Suspension, Solution, Saltation, traction.
65.
A mega-city is defined as
a)
a city with more than 10 million people
b)
a city with more than 20 million people
c)
a city that has global influence
d)
a city that receives more migrants than loses emmigrants
66.
Urbanization is
a)
The process of urbaning
b)
When an increasing percentage of a country's population lives in cities
c)
When more people move from one city to another
d)
When the size of cities grow
67.
the two ways that urban areas grow are
a)
nitrogen and phospherous
b)
natural increase and migration
c)
increasing birth rates and migration
68.
In the last few years, the % of people in the world living in urban areas has surpassed
a)
25%
b)
-25%
c)
65%
d)
50%
69.
Examples of centrifugal movement are
a)
spinning, twirling and whizzing
b)
Suburbanisation, Counter-urbanization, urban sprawl
c)
rural-urban migration, re-urbanization
70.
reasons for counter-urbanization include
a)
high land prices, pollution, high crime
b)
reinvestment into inner-city areas, gentrification
c)
attractions such as the olympics and new skyscapers
71.
megacities comprise around what % of the world population?
a)
1%
b)
20%
c)
7%
d)
30%
72.
Which is NOT considered a megacity
a)
Hong Kong
b)
Tokyo
c)
Osaka
d)
Shanghai
73.
According to moedls,  as you move away from the city center, quality of life
a)
Increaes in MEDC, Decreases in LEDC
b)
Increases in LEDC, Decreases in MEDC
c)
Does not change 
74.
One argument to suggest that slums are can be a positive force is
a)
They are a base for many informal entrepreneurs 
b)
They make use of hazardous land
c)
They help provide CAS opportunities for IB students
75.
Which is not typically features of CBD in MEDC
a)
High density of pedestrians, PLVI
b)
concentration of banks and businesses
c)
low residential areas, areas of high shopping quality
d)
low rents, poor transport links
76.
Which are NOT factors leading to the decline of the CBD
a)
congestion reduces accessibility of CBD
b)
city centers perceived to be unsafe and dirty
c)
gov't policies that increase infrastructure spending in the CBD
77.
which is NOT a strategy to improve shanty towns
a)
legalize them 
b)
improve water infrastructure
c)
relocate familes in especially high risk areas (like landslide zones)
d)
charging higher rents
78.
The urban area modifies the climate in several ways:
a)
wind speed, temperature, precipitation
b)
noise levels, waste overburden, congenstion
c)
termperature
79.
the urban heat island is most evident
a)
in rural areas
b)
in the summer time
c)
at night
80.
urban areas are often warmer than the surrounding rural areas because
a)
changes in surface to less reflective ones
b)
tall building can block wind movement
c)
increased airconditioner use and low level pollution increase trapped heat
d)
All of these
81.
Systems generally include
a)
urban and rural areas
b)
curvy lines and straight lines
c)
inputs, processes and outputs
d)
connected parts that communicate with each other
82.
cities can be said to have a metabolism. Which best describes a sustainable metabolism
a)
linear
b)
circular
c)
sustainable
83.
Which is NOT a strategy to increase a city's sustainablity
a)
reduce reliance on fossil fuels
b)
increase/improve greenspace
c)
increase recycling rates
d)
build more shopping malls
84.
A good case study for sustainable city strategies is
a)
Hong Kong
b)
Curitiba
c)
Mumbai
85.

What is a natural hazard?

a)

One produced by environmental processes

b)

One produced by humans

c)

A destructive event that is produced by natural processes

d)

an area of damage

86.

How does a tropical cyclone begin?

a)

Cold air

b)

Humid weather

c)

high temperatures causing air to rise

d)

Fast moving air

87.

The coriolis force is

a)

A circulatory motion of air

b)

A round motion of air

c)

hot air moving

d)

cold air moving

88.

How far do Tropical Cyclones stretch?

a)

300-400 KM

b)

500-600 KM

c)

600-700 KM

d)

800-900 KM

89.

Where are the majority of Cyclones found?

a)

Antartica

b)

Europe

c)

Equator

d)

New Zealand

90.

Types of weather during a cyclone

a)

Strong winds, light rain, waves

b)

Very strong winds, torrential rain, storm surges

c)

light wind, torrential rain, strong waves

d)

Very Strong winds, Storm Surges, rain

91.

What is used to assess cyclones?

a)

Richter scale

b)

Seismograph

c)

Saffir-simpson scale

92.

What is the strongest category of cyclone?

a)

Level 5

b)

Level 2

c)

Level 1

d)

Level 4

93.
A __________ is an overflow of water over land that is usually not submerged.
a)
Hurricane 
b)
Tornado
c)
Flood
d)
Blizzard
94.
A __________ is a massive storm system that can cover a stretch of 500 to 600 miles and can last a week or more.
a)
Tornado
b)
Hurricane 
c)
Blizzard
d)
Fog
95.
Sandbags can help to prepare a home for which of the following?
a)
Floods 
b)
Hurricanes
c)
Both floods and hurricanes
d)
Neither
96.

What characteristic of volcanic eruptions contributes to their potentially greater impact compared to earthquakes?

a)

Their frequency of occurrence

b)

The magnitude of seismic activity associated with eruptions

c)

The potential for widespread ash and gas emissions

d)

Their predictable nature

97.

How do volcanic eruptions differ from earthquakes in terms of duration?

a)

Volcanic eruptions typically last for shorter durations than earthquakes.

b)

Volcanic eruptions and earthquakes have similar durations.

c)

Volcanic eruptions can last for days, weeks, or even months, whereas earthquakes are generally brief events.

d)

The duration of volcanic eruptions depends on the tectonic setting, while earthquakes are uniformly brief.

98.

How do volcanic hazards like lahars and pyroclastic flows differ from seismic hazards associated with earthquakes?

a)

Volcanic hazards are less predictable than seismic hazards.

b)

Volcanic hazards primarily affect coastal areas, while seismic hazards occur inland.

c)

Volcanic hazards involve fast-moving flows of debris, while seismic hazards primarily involve ground shaking.

d)

Volcanic hazards occur in regions with low population density, whereas seismic hazards occur in densely populated areas.

99.

What characteristic of large-scale atmospheric disturbances makes high winds a significant hazard?

a)

Their ability to predictably dissipate before making landfall

b)

The widespread availability of sturdy infrastructure to withstand wind impacts

c)

Their rapid intensification and potential for destructive force

d)

The tendency for these disturbances to primarily affect uninhabited regions

100.

What is the primary hazard associated with cyclones, hurricanes, and typhoons?

a)

High winds and storm surge

b)

Heavy rainfall and flooding

c)

Seismic activity and tsunamis

d)

Extreme temperatures and heatwaves

101.

Which secondary hazard is commonly associated with the aftermath of cyclones, hurricanes, and typhoons in urban areas?

a)

Wildfires and forest degradation

b)

Disease outbreaks and public health concerns

c)

Soil erosion and desertification

d)

Industrial accidents and chemical spills

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