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Biology Final Lab - Study Guide

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

FMN (flavin mononucleotide) is:

a)

a unilateral integral protein

b)

a transmembrane protein

c)

a peripheral protein

2.

When the products of a reaction are at a higher energy level than the reactants, the reaction is:

a)

Endergonic

b)

Spontaneous

c)

Exergonic

d)

Catalytic

3.

Glycolysis takes place in:

a)

The Golgi Stacks

b)

The Mitochondria

c)

The Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

The Cell Cytoplasm

4.

Chloroplasts are found in:

a)

Mesophyll Cells

b)

Bundle Sheath Cells

c)

Vascular Tissues of plants

d)

Photoautotrophic Bacterial Cells

5.

What is the function of light in the light dependent reaction of photosynthesis?

a)

It splits ATP into ADP and phosphate to power the light dependent reactions.

b)

It is a source of electrons for the electron transport chain of photosynthesis.

c)

It excites electrons in the reaction center.

d)

It transfers electrons to FAD.

6.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic that chloroplasts and mitochondria share.

a)

They both have light harvesting pigments.

b)

They have their own DNA.

c)

They are capable of reproducing themselves.

d)

They have a double membrane system.

7.

How many carbon atoms are present in one molecule of ribulose biphosphate?

a)

4

b)
3
c)

6

d)
5
e)

2

8.

During which stage of mitosis do the kinetochore microtubules attach to the centromere?

a)

Prometaphase

b)
Metaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
e)
Anaphase
9.

What are the three cell cycle checkpoints?

a)

G0

b)

M

c)

S

d)

G1

e)

G2

10.

Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of a(n):

a)

Cell Plate

b)

Cleavage Furrow

c)

Centrosome

d)

Central Vacuole

11.

A woman has a blood type of A+. Her daughter is O+ and her son is B negative. Rh positive is a simple dominant over Rh negative. What is the woman's genotype?

a)

AO+-

b)

AA++

c)

AO++

d)

AO--

12.

What is the expected probability of getting two heads (HH) when you flip two coins simultaneously?

a)

50%

b)

33%

c)

75%

d)

25%

13.

A man with blood type A whose mother has type O, hasa child by a woman with blood type AB. What is the probability that the baby will have blood type B?

a)

12.5%

b)

50%

c)

0

d)

25%

14.

What is the genotype of an individual who shows the recessive trait in dominant/recessive inheritance?

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

15.

Which of the following disorders is a result of aneuploidy?

a)

Cri du chat

b)

Klinefelter's Syndrome

c)

Sickle Cell anemia

d)

Angelman's Syndrome

16.

Trisomy 18 is known as:

a)

Edward's syndrome

b)

Down's syndrome

c)
Patau syndrome
d)

Klinefelter's syndrome

17.

What is the karyotype for Turner's Syndrome?

a)

Monosomy of the X-Chromosome

b)

Trisomy of the sex chromosome

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Monosomy 22

e)

Trisomy 21

18.

What is the karyotype for Down's Syndrome?

a)

Monosomy 21

b)

Trisomy 21

c)

Trisomy 18

d)

Trisomy 13

19.

In Module 8, we covered cellular respiration. What did we use as test organism?

a)

Mold

b)

Bacteria

c)

Yeast

d)

Spinach

20.

In Module 8, we covered cellular respiration. What did we measure using various substrates?

a)
Rate of glucose synthesis
b)
Level of ATP production
c)

Carbon Dioxide production

d)

Rate of Carbon Dioxide consumption

21.

Magnesium is cofactor for _____ and the _____ of glycolysis:

a)

Kinases, Ribose

b)

Hydroxylamine, Enolases

c)

Ribose, Kinases

d)

Enolase, Kinases

22.

Select two inhibitors of glycolysis:

a)

Azide

b)

Fluoride

c)

Hydroxylamine

d)

Carbon Dioxide

23.

Module 9 was over photosynthesis. We measured spinach at which wavelengths?

a)

800-900

b)

500-600

c)

550-650

d)

400-700

24.

Module 9 was over photosynthesis. Spinach is green, what wavelength intervals were present?

Near estimate.

a)

720-900

b)

430-550

c)

520-560

d)

430-700

25.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis does DNA condense to chromosomes and nuclear membrane dissolve?

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
26.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis do centrosomes go to opposite poles?

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
27.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis do centrosomes go to opposite poles?

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
28.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up in the center or middle

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
29.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis are sister chromatids pulled away from each other?

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
30.

Module 10 was over mitosis. In what stage of mitosis do chromosomes uncoil and form a nucleus

a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)

Prometaphase

e)
Prophase
31.

In what stage of meiosis does crossing over take place?

a)
Metaphase I
b)
Anaphase I
c)
Telophase I
d)
Prophase II
e)
Prophase I
32.

In what stage of meiosis does synapsis take place?

a)
Metaphase I
b)
Prophase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase I
e)
Telophase I
33.

In what stage of meiosis does reduction division take place?

a)
Telophase II
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase I
d)
Metaphase II
e)
Anaphase I
34.

Module 11 was over genetics. Define Dominance:

a)

The same as recessiveness in genetics.

b)

Refers to the blending of two alleles in an individual.

c)

Only occurs in homozygous individuals.

d)

The relationship between two versions of a gene where one allele is expressed over the other in a heterozygous individual.

35.

Module 11 was over genetics. Define Recessive:

a)
A genetic trait that is expressed only when an individual has two copies of the recessive allele.
b)
A genetic trait that skips generations.
c)
A genetic trait that is dominant in nature.
d)
A genetic trait that is expressed only when an individual has one copy of the recessive allele.
36.

Module 11 was over genetics. Define Codominance:

a)
Codominance is when only one allele is expressed in a heterozygous individual
b)
Codominance results in a phenotype that shows a blend of both traits
c)
Codominance occurs when alleles are not expressed at all
d)
Both alleles in a heterozygous individual are fully expressed, resulting in a phenotype that shows both traits distinctly.
37.

Module 11 was over genetics. Define Incomplete Dominance:

a)

When one allele completely masks the expression of the other allele.

b)

Results in a phenotype that is a combination of the two alleles in a 3:1 ratio.

c)

Genetic concept where one allele is always dominant over the other.

d)

Genetic concept where neither allele is completely dominant over the other, resulting in a phenotype that is a blend of the two alleles.

38.

What is the Chi Square Test?

a)
A statistical test used to determine if there is a significant association between two categorical variables.
b)
A technique used to analyze text data
c)
A test to determine the correlation between two continuous variables
d)
A method to calculate the mean of a dataset
39.

Name a sugar that yeast was able to use a substrate:

a)

Lactose

b)

Galactose

c)

Azide

d)

Glucose

40.

When citrate was added to yeast with sodium fluoride, why was there still gas production if fluoride blocks glycolytic enzyme?

a)

Citrate is an intermediate of Krebs cycle which can be processed in the absence of glycolysis

b)

Citrate tied up the fluoride ions, so glycolysis was no longer inhibited.

c)

Citrate is a coenzyme for the glycolytic enzyme, enolase.

d)

Magnesium was added with the citrate to tie up the fluoride ions.

41.

The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis function to:

a)

Occur in all plant and animal cells

b)

Convert light energy into chemical energy

c)

Take place in both chloroplasts and mitochondria

d)

Produce ADP from ATP

42.

Why are leaves green?

a)

Because they absorb the color green.

b)

Because they reflect the color green

c)

Because they transmit green light

43.

Visible light, the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to humans, occupies what part of the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

The lower half of the spectrum

b)

A small portion in the middle

c)

The entire electromagnetic spectrum

d)

The entire upper middle portion of the spectrum

44.

The spindle of mitosis is responsible for separating sister chromatids. This spindle is made up of:

a)

DNA

b)

Microtubles

c)

Chromatids

d)

Phospholipids

e)

RNA

45.

During which stage of mitosis do the kinetochore microtubules attach to the centromeres?

a)

Prophase

b)

Prometaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

e)

Telophase

46.

When rolling a die (singular of dice), what is the probability of getting a 5?

a)
1/6
b)

5/6

c)

20%

d)

3/6

47.

A man with blood type A whose mother is type O, has a child by a woman who is blood type AB. What is the probability that their baby will have blood type B?

a)

0%

b)

12.5%

c)

25%

d)

50%

48.

When flipping a coin, what is the probability of getting a tail? Use whole numbers and no percent sign.

(a)  

49.

A failure of chromosomes to separate in either Meiosis I or Meiosis II is known as:

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Translocation

c)

Synapsis

d)

Meiosis Interruptus

50.

Why doesn't aneuploidy of the sex chromosomes result in extreme abnormalities when compared with aneuploidy of the autosomes?

a)

No genes necessary to maintain life are present on the X chromosomes

b)

A person can survive without X chromosomes

c)

Extra X chromosomes from Barr bodies which are functionally inactive

d)

The sex chromosomes contain very few genes