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WorksheetsPrivate Pilot Test Chapter 2
Total questions: 127
Worksheet time: 32hrs 45mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Where can the operating limitations for an aircraft be found?
a)
On the airworthiness certificate.
b)
In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.
c)
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
2.
Which of the following are required to be carried in the aircraft during flight?
a)
Pilot's information manual (PIM).
b)
Pilot's operating handbook (POH).
c)
FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM).
3.
How long does the airworthiness certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
a)
As long as the aircraft has a current registration certificate.
b)
Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
c)
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as trequried by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
4.
In addition to a valid airworthiness certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
a)
Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.
b)
Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
c)
Operating limitations and registration certificate.
5.
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, you should refer to the
a)
airworthiness certificate.
b)
registration certificate.
c)
aircraft maintenance records.
6.
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction?
a)
Annual and 100-hour inspections.
b)
Biannual and 100-hour inspections.
7.
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
a)
1349.6 hours.
b)
1359.6 hours.
c)
1369.6 hours.
8.
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3303 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3300 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
a)
3400 hours.
b)
3403 hours.
c)
3413 hours.
9.
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
a)
3312.5 hours.
b)
3395.5 hours.
c)
3402.5 hours.
10.
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection is due no later than
a)
September 30, 2015.
b)
September 1, 2016.
c)
September 30, 2016.
11.
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
a)
A certificated aircraft mechanic.
b)
The pilot in command.
c)
The owner or operator.
12.
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the
a)
pilot in command.
b)
owner or operator.
c)
mechanic who performs the work.
13.
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the
a)
owner or operator.
b)
pilot in command.
c)
mechanic who performed the work.
14.
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?
a)
Repair station.
b)
Certified mechanic.
c)
Owner or operator.
15.
During the preflight inspection who is responsible for determining the aircraft is safe fo flight?
a)
The owner or operator.
b)
The certificated mechanic who performed the annual inspection.
c)
The pilot in command.
16.
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
a)
Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
b)
Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.
17.
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot before each flight?
a)
Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries.
b)
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
c)
Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.
18.
When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable?
a)
After any inadvertent activation of the ELT.
b)
When the ELT has been in use for more than one cumulative hour.
c)
When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.
19.
When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced?
a)
Every 24 months.
b)
When 50 percent of their useful life expires.
c)
At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.
20.
You discover inoperative equipment on an airplane that you are planning to fly. Under what conditions can you complete the flight under VFR?
a)
The equipment is not required by FAR 91.205.
b)
The pilot in command, who has at least a private pilot certificate, determines the airplane is in a safe condition for flight.
c)
The equipment is not required by FAR 91.205, an equipment list or KOEL, the VFR-day type certificate requirements, or an AD.
21.
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable airworthiness directive?
a)
Aircraft maintenance records.
b)
Airworthiness certificate and pilot's operating handbook.
c)
Airworthiness and registration certificates.
22.
What should an owner or operator know about airworthiness directives (ADs)?
a)
They are for informational purposes only.
b)
They are mandatory.
c)
They are voluntary.
23.
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an airworthiness directive (AD)?
a)
Yes, under VFR conditions only.
b)
Yes, ADs are only voluntary.
c)
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
24.
Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance?
a)
Repair of landing gear brace struts.
b)
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
c)
Repair of portions of skin sheets by making additional seams.
25.
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
a)
A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.
b)
The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.
c)
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
26.
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
a)
14 CFR 43.7.
b)
14 CFR 91.403.
c)
14 CFR 61.113.
27.
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
a)
Student or Recreational pilot.
b)
Private or Commercial pilot.
c)
None of the above.
28.
Who is responsible for ensuring that airworthiness directives (ADs) are complied with?
a)
Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA).
b)
Owner or operator.
c)
Repair station.
29.
Completion of an annual inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by
a)
the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate
b)
an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
c)
an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.
30.
Excessively high engine temperatures will
a)
cause damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of the cylinder cooling fins.
b)
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
c)
not appreciably affect an aircraft engine.
31.
If the engine oil temperature and cylinder head temperature gauges have exceeded their normal operating range, the pilot may have been operating with
a)
the mixture set too rich.
b)
higher-than-normal oil pressure.
c)
too much power and with the mixture set too lean.
32.
One purpose of the dual-ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
a)
improved engine performance.
b)
uniform heat distribution.
c)
balanced cylinder head pressure.
33.
Float-type carburetors operate based on
a)
automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains altitude.
b)
the difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.
c)
increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an increase in air pressure.
34.
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
a)
decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to compensate for increased air density.
b)
decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.
c)
increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air.
35.
During the runup at a high elevation airport, you notice a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
a)
Check the results obtained with a leaner setting of the mixture.
b)
Taxi back to the flight line for a maintenance check.
c)
Reduce manifold pressure to control detonation.
36.
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
a)
The fuel/air mixture can become excessively lean.
b)
There can be more fuel in the cylinders than is needed for normal combustion, and the excess fuel will absorb heat and cool the engine.
c)
The excessively rich mixture creates higher cylinder head temperatures and can cause detonation.
37.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
a)
Any temperature below freezing and a relative humidity of less than 50 percent.
b)
Temperature between 32°F and 50°F and low humidity.
c)
Temperature between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.
38.
The risk of carburetor ice is
a)
high when the ambient temperature is between 20°F and 70°F and the relative humidity is high.
b)
nonexistent at 95°F even when there is visible moisture.
c)
high at 0ºF when the relative humidity is high.
39.
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
a)
a drop in oil temperature and cylinder head temperature.
b)
engine roughness.
c)
loss of RPM.
40.
Applying carburetor heat will
a)
result in more air going through the carburetor.
b)
enrich the fuel/air mixture.
c)
not affect the fuel/air mixture.
41.
What change occurs in the fuel/air mixture when carburetor heat is applied?
a)
A decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture.
b)
The fuel/air mixture becomes richer.
c)
The fuel/air mixture becomes leaner.
42.
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
a)
decrease engine performance.
b)
increase engine performance.
c)
have no effect on engine performance.
43.
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
a)
an increase in RPM and then a gradual decrease in RPM.
b)
a decrease in RPM and then a constant RPM indication.
c)
a decrease in RPM and then a gradual increase in RPM.
44.
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
a)
more susceptible to icing.
b)
equally susceptible to icing.
c)
less susceptible to icing.
45.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
a)
detonation.
b)
a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
c)
lower cylinder head temperatures.
46.
Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when
a)
the spark plugs are fouled or shorted out or the wiring is defective.
b)
hot spots in the combustion chamber ignite the fuel/air mixture in advance of normal ignition.
c)
the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.
47.
Detonation may occur at high-power settings as
a)
the fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly.
b)
an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power.
c)
the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder.
48.
You suspect that your engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climbout after takeoff. Your initial corrective action would be to
a)
lean the mixture.
b)
lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.
c)
apply carburetor heat.
49.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
a)
combustion.
b)
preignition.
c)
detonation.
50.
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
a)
Using fuel that has a lower-than-specified fuel rating.
b)
Using fuel that has a higher-than-specified fuel rating.
c)
Operating with higher-than-normal oil pressure.
51.
What type fuel can be substituted for an aircraft if the recommended octane is not available?
a)
The next higher octane aviation gas.
b)
The next lower octane aviation gas.
c)
Unleaded automotive gas of the same octane rating.
52.
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
a)
force any existing water to the top of the tank away from the fuel lines to the engine.
b)
prevent expansion of the fuel by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
c)
prevent moisture condensation by eliminating airspace in the tanks.
53.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
a)
a properly functioning thermostat.
b)
air flowing over the exhaust manifold.
c)
the circulation of lubricating oil.
54.
An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by
a)
the oil level being too low.
b)
operating with a too high viscosity oil.
c)
operating with an excessively rich mixture.
55.
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
a)
Reduce rate of climb and increase airspeed.
b)
Reduce climb speed and increase RPM.
c)
Increase climb speed and increase RPM.
56.
What is one procedure to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating?
a)
Enrichen the fuel mixture.
b)
Increase the RPM.
c)
Reduce the airspeed.
57.
How is engine operation controlled on an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
a)
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates engine RPM
b)
The throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge and the propeller control regulates a constant blade angle.
c)
The throttle controls engine RPM as registered on the tachometer and the mixture control regulates the power output.
58.
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will
a)
increase fuel consumption and may increase power due to the increased heat.
b)
result in damage to heat-conducting hoses and warping of cylinder cooling fans.
c)
cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.
59.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
a)
Permits the pilot to select and maintain a desired cruising speed.
b)
Permits the pilot to select the blade angle for the most efficient performance.
c)
Provides a smoother operation with stable
d)
RPM and eliminates vibrations.
60.
A precaution for the operation of an engine equipped with a constant-speed propeller is to
a)
avoid high RPM settings with high manifold pressure.
b)
avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.
c)
always use a rich mixture with high RPM settings.
61.
Which preflight checks should you make on an airplane with full-authority digital engine control (FADEC)?
a)
Verify proper operation of both ECUs as well as their back-up power sources.
b)
Ensure that engine RPM drops sufficiently when the propeller control is pulled back.
c)
Ensure that the mixture control is adjusted for highest RPM with smooth engine operation.
62.
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
a)
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.
b)
Place the magneto or ignition switch momentarily in the OFF position to check for proper grounding.
c)
Test each brake and the parking brake.
63.
If it becomes necessary to hand-prop an airplane engine, it is extremely important that a competent pilot
a)
call "contact" before touching the propeller.
b)
be at the controls in the cockpit.
c)
be in the cockpit and call out all commands.
64.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
a)
fuel strainer drain.
b)
lowest point in the fuel system.
c)
fuel strainer drain and the fuel tank sumps.
65.
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
a)
VA.
b)
VLo.
c)
VNE.
66.
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
a)
V FE.
b)
VLOF.
c)
VFC.
67.
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
a)
VLE•
b)
VLO.
c)
VFE•
68.
Vno is defined as the
a)
normal operating range.
b)
never-exceed speed.
c)
maximum structural cruising speed.
69.
Vso is defined as the
a)
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.
b)
stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration.
c)
stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed.
70.
If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?
a)
The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.
b)
The elevation of the departure area.
c)
Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
71.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to
a)
the current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.
b)
the corrected density altitude of the departure airport.
c)
the corrected pressure altitude for the departure airport.
72.
If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
a)
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
b)
The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.
c)
The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator.
73.
Which instrument becomes inoperative if the pitot tube becomes clogged?
a)
Altimeter.
b)
Vertical speed.
c)
Airspeed.
74.
Which instruments) become inoperative if the static vents become clogged?
a)
Airspeed only.
b)
Altimeter only.
c)
Airspeed, altimeter, and vertical speed.
75.
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 1 indicates
a)
500 feet.
b)
1,500 feet.
c)
10,500 feet.
76.
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 2 indicates
a)
1,500 feet.
b)
4,500 feet.
c)
14,500 feet.
77.
(Refer to Figure 3.) Altimeter 3 indicates
a)
9,500 feet.
b)
10,950 feet.
c)
15,940 feet.
78.
(Refer to Figure 3.) Which altimeters) indicate(s)
a)
more than 10,000 feet?
b)
1, 2, and 3.
c)
1 and 2 only.
d)
1 only.
79.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
a)
calibrated altitude at field elevation.
b)
absolute altitude at field elevation.
c)
true altitude at field elevation.
80.
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
a)
Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
b)
Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
c)
Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
81.
What is true altitude?
a)
The vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level.
b)
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
c)
The height above the standard datum plane.
82.
What is absolute altitude?
a)
The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
b)
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.
c)
The height above the standard datum plane.
83.
What is density altitude?
a)
The height above the standard datum plane.
b)
The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.
c)
The altitude read directly from the altimeter.
84.
What is pressure altitude?
a)
The indicated altitude corrected for position and installation error.
b)
The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92.
c)
The indicated altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure.
85.
Under what condition is indicated altitude the same as true altitude?
a)
If the altimeter has no mechanical error.
b)
When at sea level under standard conditions.
c)
When at 18,000 feet MSL with the altimeter set at 29.92.
86.
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
a)
70-foot decrease in indicated altitude.
b)
700-foot decrease in indicated altitude.
c)
700-foot increase in indicated altitude.
87.
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
a)
Altimeter.
b)
Vertical-speed indicator.
c)
Airspeed indicator.
88.
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will
a)
decrease as the true airspeed decreases.
b)
decrease as the true airspeed increases.
c)
remain the same regardless of altitude.
89.
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
a)
Maneuvering speed.
b)
Turbulence or rough-air speed.
c)
Never-exceed speed.
90.
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the full flap operating range for the airplane?
a)
55 to 100 knots.
b)
55 to 208 knots.
c)
55 to 165 knots.
91.
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the caution range of the airplane?
a)
0 to 55 knots.
b)
100 to 165 knots.
c)
165 to 208 knots.
92.
(Refer to Figure 4.) The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
a)
100 knots.
b)
165 knots.
c)
208 knots.
93.
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which marking identifies the never-exceed speed?
a)
Upper limit of the green arc.
b)
Upper limit of the white arc.
c)
The red radial line.
94.
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies he power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
a)
Upper limit of the green arc.
b)
Upper limit of the white arc.
c)
Lower limit of the green arc.
95.
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum flaps-extended speed?
a)
58 knots.
b)
100 knots.
c)
165 knots.
96.
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
a)
The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
b)
The green arc.
c)
The white arc.
97.
(Refer to Figure 4.) Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration?
a)
Upper limit of the green arc.
b)
Upper limit of the white arc.
c)
Lower limit of the white arc.
98.
(Refer to Figure 4.) What is the maximum structural cruising speed?
a)
100 knots.
b)
165 knots.
c)
208 knots.
99.
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
a)
Never-exceed speed.
b)
Maneuvering speed.
c)
Maximum structural cruising speed.
100.
(Refer to Figure 5.) A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
a)
angle of bank up to but not exceeding 30°.
b)
movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes.
c)
attitude of the aircraft with reference to the longitudinal axis.
101.
(Refer to Figure 7.) The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
a)
horizon bar to the level-flight indication.
b)
horizon bar to the miniature airplane.
c)
miniature airplane to the horizon bar.
102.
(Refer to Figure 7.) How should a pilot determine the direction of bank from an attitude indicator such as the one illustrated?
a)
By the direction of deflection of the banking scale (A).
b)
By the direction of deflection of the horizon bar (B).
c)
By the relationship of the miniature airplane
d)
(C) to the deflected horizon bar (B).
103.
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
a)
magnetic deviation.
b)
magnetic variation.
c)
compass acceleration error.
104.
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
a)
presence of flaws in the permanent magnets of the compass.
b)
difference in the location between true north and magnetic north.
c)
magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting the lines of magnetic force.
105.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if
a)
a left turn is entered from a north heading.
b)
a right turn is entered from a north heading.
c)
an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
106.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if
a)
an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading.
b)
an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
c)
a left turn is entered from a north heading.
107.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
a)
a right turn is entered from an east heading.
b)
an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
c)
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
108.
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when
a)
a left turn is entered from an east heading.
b)
a right turn is entered from a west heading.
c)
the aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading.
109.
In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
a)
a turn momentarily.
b)
correctly when on a north or south heading.
c)
a turn toward the south.
110.
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
a)
Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.
b)
As long as the airspeed is constant.
c)
During turns if the bank does not exceed 18°.
111.
What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?
a)
The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.
b)
The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.
c)
The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the airplane.
112.
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
a)
a northerly turning error.
b)
certain metals and electrical systems within the aircraft.
c)
the difference in location of true north and magnetic north.
113.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
a)
a left turn is entered from a west heading.
b)
an aircraft is decelerated while on an east or west heading.
c)
an aircraft is accelerated while on an east or west heading.
114.
If the outside air temperature (OAT) at a given altitude is warmer than standard, the density altitude is
a)
equal to pressure altitude.
b)
lower than pressure altitude.
c)
higher than pressure altitude.
115.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
a)
15°C and 29.92 inches Hg.
b)
59°C and 1013.2 millibars.
c)
59°F and 29.92 millibars.
116.
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
a)
Altimeter will indicate .15 inches Hg higher.
b)
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.
c)
Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.
117.
Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?
a)
When standard atmospheric conditions exist.
b)
When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.
c)
When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 inches Hg.
118.
Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?
a)
At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F.
b)
When the altimeter has no installation error.
c)
At standard temperature.
119.
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
a)
the actual altitude above sea level.
b)
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
c)
lower than the actual altitude above sea level
120.
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of low pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
a)
lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
b)
higher than the actual altitude above sea level.
c)
the actual altitude above sea level.
121.
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?
a)
In colder than standard air temperature.
b)
In warmer than standard air temperature.
c)
When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.
122.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
a)
Air temperature lower than standard.
b)
Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.
c)
Air temperature warmer than standard.
123.
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
a)
An increase in barometric pressure.
b)
An increase in ambient temperature.
c)
A decrease in relative humidity.
124.
If the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information for the instruments on a PFD, what occurs?
a)
The system reverts to reversionary mode and PFD information is displayed on the MFD.
b)
A red X is placed over the display of the affected instrument (attitude indicator or HSI.)
c)
After an alert message appears, you must determine the affected instrument by comparing the indications of all instruments.
125.
You are flying an airplane with an integrated digital flight display and the PFD screen fails. What is a back-up options for the PFD instruments?
a)
Display the PFD instruments on the MFD screen.
b)
Monitor traditional back-up instruments that are powered from the main electrical bus.
c)
Reset the AHRS and the ADC and observe whether the PFD turns back on.
126.
How do you perform a standard-rate turn in an airplane with digital instruments on a PFD?
a)
Monitor the digital turn coordinator and adjust the angle of bank as needed.
b)
Monitor the trend vector on the HSI and adjust the angle of bank as needed.
c)
Monitor the trend indicator on the digital attitude indicator and adjust the bank as needed.
127.
Which digital flight instruments are related to the air data computer (ADC)?
a)
Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and turn indicator.
b)
Compass, magnetometer, and ground track indicator.
c)
Airspeed indicator, altimeter, and VSI.
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