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Spring 2024 Final Exam Ultimate Review

Total questions: 260

Worksheet time: 4hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A rabbit with white fur was crossed with a rabbit with black fur.  The cross produced offspring with black and white fur. This type of inheritance is known as
a)
dihybrid recessive
b)

incomplete dominance

c)
codominance
d)
multiple alleles
2.
Which is the genotype of a male with a dominant sex-linked trait carried on the X chromosome? 
a)
XDY
b)
XDXD
c)
XDYD
d)
XdY
3.

People with Type AB blood have two dominant alleles, IA and IB.  Since the two alleles are equally dominant, they are called

a)
multiple alleles
b)
incomplete alleles
c)
codominant alleles
d)

sex-linked alleles

4.
Which two genotypes would have the same blood type?
a)
IAIA and IAi
b)
IBIB and IAIB
c)
IBi and ii
d)
IAIA and IAIB
5.

Hemophilia is more common in males than in females because

a)
fathers can only pass the allele for hemophilia to their sons
b)
mothers cannot pass the allele for hemophilia to their daughters
c)
the allele for hemophilia is dominant and located on the Y chromosome
d)
the allele for hemophilia is recessive and located on the X chromosome
6.

A baby has type AB blood.  What could the genotypes of the baby’s parents be?

a)
IAi x ii
b)
IBIB x IBIB
c)
IAIA x IBi
d)
ii x ii
7.
Look at Figure 2 above.  The genotype of individual 1 could be
a)
EE only
b)
Ee only
c)
ee only
d)
EE or Ee
8.

The Figure 3 pedigree shows a disease found equally in males and females. All children who had the disease had at least one parent who also had the disease.  The gene coding for the disease is ________.

a)
autosomal recessive
b)
autosomal dominant
c)
sex-linked recessive
d)
sex-linked dominant
9.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)

Codominance

10.

When two alleles are dominant resulting in both being fully expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

11.

When neither allele is completely dominant and neither is fully expressed in a heterozygous individual, which results in a mix/blend of the two alleles

a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)

Codominance

12.

This image is an example of

a)
codominance
b)

sex-linked traits

c)
incomplete dominance
13.

This image is an example of

a)
codominance
b)

sex-linked traits

c)
incomplete dominance
14.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)
Recessive inheritance
15.

The different forms/versions of a gene are called

a)
traits
b)
pollinators
c)
alleles
d)
hybrids
16.

A woman with curly hair and a man with straight hair produced a child with wavy hair. This is an example of _______.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

d)

Sex-linked traits

17.
Which of the following statements is true regarding blood types?
a)
A and O are codominant, B is recessive.
b)
B and O are codominant, A is recessive.
c)
A and B are codominant, O is recessive.
d)

A , B, and O are all codominant.

18.

Who is more likely to have an X-linked recessive trait like colorblindness or hemophilia?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Both males and females

19.

What type of inheritance is determined by multiple genes and results in a range of traits?

a)

Monogenic inheritance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Polygenic inheritance

d)

Multiple Alleles

20.

Examples include skin color and height (the individual's phenotype exists somewhere along a spectrum)

a)

polygenic inheritance

b)

multiple alleles

c)

linked genes

d)

incomplete dominance

21.

Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?

a)

XN YN

b)

Xn Yn

c)

XN Y

d)

Xn Y

22.

There are multiple alleles for the ABO blood group. Why are only two of these alleles present in any one individual?

a)

Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring.

b)

There are not enough nucleotides in a red blood cell to produce a third allele.

c)

Each allele in the ABO group must be dominant or recessive

d)

Blood group alleles are not segregated during meiosis.

23.

If a person has type O blood, the phenotype is O. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

24.

If a person has type AB blood, the phenotype is AB. What can the genotype be?

a)

IBIB or IBi

b)

IAIA or IAi

c)

IAIB

d)

ii

25.

If a person's genotype is AABbCc for height. How many genes do they have for this trait?

a)

6

b)

3

c)

4

d)

1

26.

Which blood type(s) can receive blood from anyone?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

27.

The blood type that is the universal donor because anyone can receive it is _______.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

O

d)

AB

28.

Which of the following are possible human blood types? (Select all that apply.)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

O

e)

AB

29.

Blood type is determined by the proteins on the surface of red blood cells.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The proteins found on the surface of red blood cells that determine blood type are called __________.

a)

antibodies

b)

antigens

c)

marker proteins

d)

antibiotics

31.

Match the following. Hemophilia is a sex-linked recessive trait passed down on the X chromosome. XH = Healthy (no hemophilia), Xh = hemophilia

a)

Healthy male

1.

XHY

b)

Female with hemophilia

2.

XhXh

c)

Healthy female (Carrier)

3.

XHXh

d)

Male with hemophilia

4.

XhY

e)

Healthy female (NOT a carrier)

5.

XHXH

32.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex-linked trait.  Red (R) is dominant to white (r).

Which genotype shows a female fly with white eyes?

a)

XRXrX^{R^{ }}X^r

b)

XRXRX^RX^R

c)

XrXrX^rX^r

d)

XrYX^rY

33.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)

XBXb

b)

XbXb

c)

XbY

d)

XBY

34.

​ (a)   are more likely to have an x-linked recessive trait because males have only ​ (b)   X chromosome. Females can be ​ (c)   of an X-linked recessive trait because they can be ​ (d)   for the trait since they have ​ (e)   X chromosomes.

Choose from the below words
Males
one
carriers
heterozygous
two
homozygous
Females
Dominant
Recessive
35.

What is the term for a trait that allows an organism to survive better in its environment?

a)

variation

b)

adaptation

c)

homologous structure

d)

vestigial structure

36.

The combined alleles/genes of all individuals in a population is called

a)
phenotype
b)
gene pool
c)
gene flow
d)
allele frequency
37.

The connection between fitness and adaptation is --

a)

fitness leads to the formation of an adaptation

b)

adaptations lead to fitness

c)

an organism must be "fit" to develop an adaptation

d)

there is no connection

38.

Which one INCREASES genetic variation in a population?

a)

genetic drift

b)

bottleneck effect

c)

gene pool

d)

gene flow

39.

The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n) --

a)

genotype

b)

mimicry

c)

mutation

d)

variation

40.

Over time, adaptations can lead populations to experience --

a)

environmental changes

b)

genetic changes

c)

geological changes

d)

extinction

41.

In natural selection, the selective agent which determines who survives is --

a)

humans

b)

mutations

c)

homologous structures

d)

the environment

42.
All of the cottontail rabbits living in a particular area (such as Plano, TX) would be an example of a(n)
a)
population
b)
species
c)
homologous structures
d)
individual organism
43.

The ability of the cottontail rabbits living in a particular area to survive and reproduce would be called --

a)

artificial selection

b)

speciation

c)

fitness

d)

descent with modification

44.

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?

a)

the wings of a red-tailed hawk

b)

the hind (back) limbs of a cat

c)

the fins of sharks

d)

the pelvic bone in a whale or snake

45.
Some organisms that share a common ancestor have features that have different functions, but similar structures.  These are known as --
a)
vestigial structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
homologous structures
d)
embryology structures
46.

If you compared the amino acid sequence of two organisms that are closely related you would find --

a)

very few differences in the amino acid sequence

b)

You can't compare the amino acid sequences of two different organisms

c)

many differences in the amino acid sequence

47.
Mutations and gene shuffling are important because they bring about --
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, but not for the population
d)
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (no evolution) within a population
48.

Why are mutations a significant part of natural selection and evolution?

a)

mutations occur when a population needs a new trait to survive

b)

mutations are the source of new alleles (variations) in the gene pool of a population

c)

mutations occur more often when a population is very small

d)

mutations are the main reason for the extinction of a population

49.

Which of the following describes a group of similar organisms that can reproduce and create fertile offspring?

a)

individual

b)

population

c)

species

d)

fossil

50.
Which of the following in NOT a part of the theory of evolution by natural selection?
a)
all species have inherited genetic variation
b)

more offspring are produced than can survive

c)
there is competition for limited environmental resources
d)
organisms with fewer adaptations survive best
51.

____________ affects the genetic makeup of the population and reduces genetic variation because of a catastrophic event (tsunami, tornado, etc.)

a)

gene flow

b)

embryology

c)

competition

d)

genetic drift (bottleneck effect)

52.
The similarities in embryos of different species at early stages of development suggests that --
a)
they share the same DNA
b)
they have a probable common ancestor
c)
they will develop homologous structures
d)
they are not closely related species
53.
Which of the following is NOT evidence in support of the theory of evolution?
a)
embryology
b)
fossil record
c)
homologous structures
d)
gene flow
54.
Which of the following leads to the "survival of the fittest"?
a)
adaptations
b)
bottleneck effect
c)
DNA sequence comparisons
d)
over-hunting and tornados
55.

True or False. One of the reasons Charles Darwin developed the theory of evolution was to explain the large biodiversity found on the planet today compared to million of years ago.

a)
True
b)
False
56.

Which image shows disruptive selection?

a)
b)
c)
57.

On a population growth curve, natural selection is best seen when the population --

a)

is in the lag phase

b)

has plenty of resources available

c)

has reached carrying capacity

d)

is in the exponential growth phase

58.

The pelvic bone of whales is not needed for movement within the water. This is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

59.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

60.

Which group of animals has claws or nails?

a)

hagfish, perch, chimpanzee, pigeon

b)

hagfish, salamander

c)

lizard, pigeon, mouse, chimpanzee

d)

salamander, lizard, pigeon, mouse

61.

Which trait separates a perch from a salamander?

a)

jaws

b)

lungs

c)

claws or nails

d)

fur, mammary glands

62.

The diagram shows light- and dark-colored beetles that live on a tree.

Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

63.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which two organisms are the MOST closely related?

a)

Organism 1 and Organism 2

b)

Organism 2 and Organism 3

c)

Organism 3 and Organism 4

d)

Organism 1 and Organism 4

64.

Click on the image to see the question.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

I

65.

All the animals to the right of the salamander would have the common characteristic of...

a)

Fur

b)

Claws or nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Jaws

66.

What is the common ancestor of species A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

67.

A phylogenetic tree shows the evolutionary history of species and displays the common ancestors shared among species. Species that are more closely related have a more recent common ancestor.

Which of the following species are most closely related?

a)

C and D

b)

A and C

c)

B and C

d)

D and E

68.

Which group of animals on this phylogenetic tree is most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these groups are related to birds

69.

The butterfly diagram on the right (diagram b) refers to which model of evolution?

a)
Selection
b)
Gradualism
c)
Punctuated Equilibrium
d)
Adaptive
70.

The hypothesis that evolution occurs slowly over a long period of time is represented by the _____________ model of evolution.

a)

speciation

b)

punctuated equilibrium

c)

gradualism

d)

microevolution

71.

Describes a pattern of long, stable periods of no change (stasis) interrupted by brief periods of rapid change

a)

convergent evolution

b)

gradualism

c)

punctuated equilibrium

d)

adaptive evolution

72.

Which fossils are the oldest and why?

a)

B, C - because they are closest to the top

b)

A, B - because they are closest to the bottom

c)

A, B, C - because they are all found in rock layer 2

d)

A, B- because they are found closest to the top

73.

The organisms in rock layer C and rock layer D lived in an aquatic (water) environment. The organism in layer A does not look like it lived in the water. What is the most likely explanation for this?

a)

The organism in layer A died on land and was carried to the water

b)

The organisms in layer C and D did not live in the same location as the organism in layer A.

c)

The organism in layer A lived on Earth after the organisms in layer C and D. The environment changed over a long period of time. It used to be under water, but it is not anymore.

74.

If finches with large beaks and finches with small beaks increase in a population while finches with average sized beaks decrease, which pattern of natural selection has occurred?

a)
Directional selection
b)
Disruptive selection 
c)
Stabilizing selection
75.

Robins typically lay four eggs. If more than four eggs are produced, then the baby chicks cannot be properly fed/nourished. On the other hand, producing less than four eggs decreases the probability that any baby chicks will survive. This is an example of

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

d)
none of the above
76.

Environmental factors that limit the growth of a population (such as food, water, space, and predators) are called ______________

a)

carrying capacity

b)

limiting factors

c)

competitive factors

d)

mutations

77.

Someone steps on some bugs and randomly removes their alleles from the population. This is an example of

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

speciation

d)

allele frequency

78.

A drastic reduction in the size of a population that results from a major event (e.g., a natural disaster) and changes allele frequencies is called

a)

the bottleneck effect

b)

the founder effect

c)

the gene flow effect

d)

the Thanos effect

79.

A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer have ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population. This is an example of ______________.

a)

the founder effect

b)

extinction

c)

gene flow

d)

the bottleneck effect

80.

Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium is a condition in which populations of organisms do not evolve because there are no evolutionary pressures. Which of the following is included in the five assumptions of Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium? Select all that apply.

a)

No mutations

b)

Natural selection does occur

c)

Random mating

d)

Small population

e)

No migration

81.

The 3 butterflies in the top right of the image left the original population and started a new population. This is an example of:

a)

gene flow

b)

founder effect

c)

bottleneck effect

82.

A population of purple flowers on one side of a river transports pollen to a population of blue flowers of the same species on the other side of the river. This is an example of ______________.

a)

Gene Flow

b)

Genetic Drift

c)

Natural Selection

d)

Extinction

83.

Using biogeography evidence, which two cat species are probably most closely related?

a)

D and B

b)

C and E

c)

A and C

d)

D and C

84.

What is the main difference between gene flow and genetic drift?

a)

Gene flow DECREASES genetic variation in a population, while genetic drift INCREASES genetic variation.

b)

Gene flow DECREASES the size of the gene pool, while genetic drift INCREASES the size of the gene pool.

c)

Gene flow changes allele frequencies in the gene pool, while genetic drift DOES NOT change allele frequencies.

d)

Gene flow INCREASES genetic variation in a population, while genetic drift DECREASES genetic variation.

85.

Based on the figure, which antibiotic inhibited/stopped the growth of the bacteria the most?

a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
The area where bacteria cannot survive because of the antibiotic:
a)
zone of inhibition
b)
zone of prohibition
c)
the friend zone
d)

zone of conjugation

87.

If you take antibiotics, the non-resistant bacteria die while the resistant bacteria survive and pass their antibiotic resistance trait to their offspring. This is an example of...

a)

DNA replication

b)

natural selection

c)

meiosis

d)

a virus

88.

Bacteria develop antibiotic resistance through ______________.

a)

mutations & artificial selection

b)

mutations & natural selection

c)

mitosis &

meiosis

d)

apples and bananas

89.
What is antibiotic resistance?
a)
The ability for humans to resist antibiotics.
b)
The ability for humans to repel bacteria. 
c)

The ability for bacteria to survive the effects of antibiotics.

d)
The ability for bacteria to become weak from antibiotics.
90.

Which of the following are causes of antibiotic resistance? Select all that apply.

a)

Using antibiotics incorrectly, such as to treat viruses

b)

Overuse of antibiotics in livestock farming

c)

Patients not finishing their antibiotic treatment

d)

Over-prescribing antibiotics/using antibiotics when not necessary

91.
Which domain is capable of living in extreme environments like hot springs, geysers, or very salty waters?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Archaea
c)
Eukarya
92.
Which domain includes all animals and plants?
a)
Archaea
b)
Eukarya
c)
Bacteria
93.

Archaebacteria and Eubacteria are two kingdoms which contain organisms that are

a)

Unicellular

b)

Multicellular

c)

Both unicellular and multicellular

94.
Which two kingdoms are entirely multicellular?
a)
Animalia and Plantae
b)
Animalia and Protista
c)
Protista and Plantae
d)

Archaebacteria and Eubacteria

95.
To say that an organism is heterotrophic means...
a)
it cannot reproduce asexually
b)
it cannot make its own food
c)
it cannot breathe oxygen gas
96.

Which two kingdoms have organisms that can make their own food (autotrophic)?

a)

Plantae and Animalia

b)

Fungi and Plantae

c)

Protista and Plantae

d)

Eubacteria and Fungi

97.

What is the genus name for Canis lupus?

a)

Canis

b)

lupus

c)

both are the genus name

98.

Choose the correct way to write the scientific name for a human:

a)

homo sapien

b)

Homo Sapien

c)

Homo sapien

d)

Homo Sapien

99.

Molds and yeasts all belong to the Kingdom _______.

a)

Archaebacteria

b)

Fungi

c)

Eubacteria

d)

Protista

100.

The scientific name for an organism is made from the:

a)

class and family name

b)

genus and species name

c)

domain and kingdom name

d)

kingdom and phylum name

101.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)

Domain, Kingdom, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species

b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
102.
Cladograms are constructed by grouping organisms together based on their____________ characteristics.
a)
shared
b)
different
c)

unique

d)
opposite
103.
According to this cladogram, sharks are MOST closely related to which organism? 
a)
Amphibians
b)

Ray-finned fish

c)
Crocodiles
d)
Birds
104.

Which two organisms have eggs with shells? 

a)
Sharks & Ray Finned Fish
b)
Primates & Rodents
c)
Birds & Crocodiles
d)

Primates & Birds

105.

All organisms that have a nucleus but do not fit into the plant, fungi, or animal kingdoms are:

a)
archaebacteria
b)
eubacteria
c)
protists
d)

viruses

106.

Which kingdoms are eukaryotic?

a)

Archaebacteria and Animalia

b)

Eubacteria and Archaebacteria

c)

Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalia

d)

Eubacteria, Protista, and Plantae

107.

Which phrase best describes the classification of these two organisms?

a)

same kingdom, same species

b)

same kingdom, different species

c)

different kingdoms

d)

different kingdoms, same species

108.

Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?

a)

organisms that share a class

b)

organisms that share a family

c)

organisms that share a genus

d)

organisms that share a species

109.

Look at the image. At what level do the bears and the fox diverge?

a)

order

b)

family

c)

class

d)

genus

110.

Which 2 organisms have the MOST characteristics in common?

a)

2 organisms in the same kingdom

b)

2 organisms in the same genus

c)

2 organisms in the same class

d)

2 organisms in the same family

111.

Organisms that are in the same ___________ can have fertile offspring.

a)

class

b)

family

c)

species

d)

genus

112.

Which two organisms are the most closely related?

a)

American badger and leopard

b)

coyote and gray wolf

c)

European otter and leopard

d)

coyote and american badger

113.

Which of the following is a rule for writing scientific names?

a)

capitalize all letters

b)

lowercase letters for the genus name only

c)

capitalize the first letter of the genus name

d)

capitalize the first letter of both genus and species names

114.

Why do scientists use a standardized, universal system of naming organisms (Binomial Nomenclature)?

a)

They want to make it easy to spell the names of organisms.

b)

To avoid confusion; there are several common names for the same organism in different parts of the world

c)

Common names are too difficult to remember.

d)

Common names are always like the scientific name.

115.

Which level of classification is more specific?  In other words, which level has more organisms in common?   
Order or Family

a)
Family 
b)
Order
116.

An organism's scientific name is Canis lupus.  Which of the following organisms is most closely related?

a)

Homo sapien

b)

Canis familiaris

c)

Puma concolor

d)

Panthera leo

117.

Based on the image, what is the scientific name of a panther?

a)

Felidae panthera 

b)

Pardus panthera

c)

Panthera pardus

d)

Felidae pardus

118.

The standardized system for naming organisms developed by Carolus Linnaeus is called ________.

a)

dichotomous key

b)

binomial nomenclature

c)

taxonomic nomenclature

d)

binomial key 

119.

A dichotomous key for insects is given. To what order does an insect with two pairs of scaly wings belong?

a)

Coleoptera

b)

Heteroptera

c)

Diptera

d)

Lepidoptera

120.

In the scientific naming system, the first letter of the _____________ name is capitalized, and the ______________ name is written in all lowercase.

a)

genus, species

b)

species, genus

121.

Which of the following species are the most DIFFERENT from one another?

a)

Human & Chimpanzee

b)

Horse & Zebra

c)

Gorilla & Zebra

d)

Gorilla & Chimpanzee

122.

Which group of animals has claws or nails?

a)

hagfish, perch, chimpanzee, pigeon

b)

hagfish, salamander

c)

lizard, pigeon, mouse, chimpanzee

d)

salamander, lizard, pigeon, mouse

123.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which two organisms are the MOST closely related?

a)

Organism 1 and Organism 2

b)

Organism 2 and Organism 3

c)

Organism 3 and Organism 4

d)

Organism 1 and Organism 4

124.

Organize the following characteristics into the appropriate categories depending on whether they describe the kingdom Fungi, the kingdom Plantae, or both.

Categorize the following

Eukaryotic

Multicellular

Non-motile

Heterotrophic

Autotrophic

Cell wall

Cell wall composed of chitin

Cell wall composed of cellulose

Fungi
Both
Plantae
125.

Organize the following characteristics into the appropriate categories depending on whether they describe the kingdom Eubacteria, the kingdom Protista, or both.

Categorize the following

Contains unicellular organisms

Contains both motile and non-motile organisms

Contains autotrophs and heterotrophs

Prokaryotic

Eukaryotic

E. Coli

Contains organisms WITH a nucleus

Cyanobacteria

Contains organisms WITHOUT a nucleus

Algae

Euglena

Eubacteria
Both
Protista
126.

Organize the kingdoms into the appropriate categories.

Categorize the following

Eubacteria

Archaebacteria

Protista

Fungi

Plantae

Animalia

Prokaryotic
Eukaryotic
127.

Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?

a)

organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system

b)

organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism

c)

cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

d)

cell, organ, tissue, organism, organ system

128.

Organisms that are able to move on their own are ___________.

a)

myopic

b)

membrane-bound

c)

motile

d)

non-motile

129.

Halophiles, thermophiles, and methanogens are single-celled, prokaryotic organisms that live in extreme environments, such as volcanoes, the stomachs of cows, and the Dead Sea. These organisms belong to the kingdom _____________.

a)

Archaebacteria

b)

Eubacteria

c)

Protista

d)

Fungi

130.

Use the dichotomous key to identify this white wildflower.

a)

Starflower

b)

Chickweed

c)

Common strawberry

d)

Bowman's root

131.

Identify Organism B.

a)

Class Bivalvia

b)

Class Gatropoda

c)

Phylum Annelida

d)

Order Teuthida

132.

Identify Organism A.

a)

Order Teuthida

b)

Order Octopoda

c)

Phylum Annelida

d)

Class Bivalvia

133.
Health-care workers are exposed to many different types of pathogenic and nonpathogenic microorganisms. Which body systems work together to protect the body from pathogens?
a)
Digestive and excretory
b)
Endocrine and reproductive
c)
Circulatory and immune
d)
Muscular and skeletal
134.

Which of the following features do viruses and cells BOTH have? Select all that apply.

a)

genetic material (nucleic acids)

b)

organelles

c)

proteins

d)

capsid

135.
An electron microscope photograph of a virus is shown.
The projections on the surface of this virus allow the virus to — 
a)
engulf a host cell 
b)
attach to a host cell 
c)
control a host cell’s DNA 
d)
signal other viruses to infect a host cell 
136.
Which cell does the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) directly attack that impairs the functioning of the immune system?
a)

Helper T cells

b)

Killer T cells

c)

Memory B cells

d)
Macrophages
137.

Unlike bacteria, viruses...

a)
cause diseases only in animals
b)
can be destroyed by antibiotics
c)
are eukaryotic, with a nucleus
d)

can reproduce only in living cells (host cells)

138.
The major destructive result of an infection from invading viruses such as the influenza virus is --
a)
release of viral toxins in the bloodstream.
b)
destruction of cells by viral enzymes
c)
destruction of cells by viral replication
d)
interfering with the cell’s life functions
139.
Cold sores are caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1. A company that wants to develop antiviral drugs would ask a research immunologist to study — 
a)
the mechanism used by the virus to infect cells 
b)
how closely related the virus is to cold viruses 
c)
the metabolism of the virus 
d)
meiosis in the virus 
140.
The steps involved in viral replication are shown on the diagrams.
Place the steps in the correct order by listing the letters in the proper sequence: 
a)
C D B A
b)
D C A B
c)
A B D C
d)
D C B A
141.
The final step in the viral replication cycle (the lytic cycle) not shown in the diagrams is
a)
the release of viral toxins by the new viruses inside the host cell
b)

the destruction of the host cell by lysing/bursting the cell open and releasing the new viruses

c)
the creation of new viruses through cell division 
d)

the interference of the cell’s life functions by the new viruses, which cause cell death

142.
Many plant-eating organisms, including humans and grazing animals, are unable to digest the cellulose that makes up plant cell walls.  Most plant-eaters have a symbiotic relationship with a microorganism that actually digest the cellulose releasing the nutrients for the herbivore’s use.
Which organism lives in many herbivore intestine and aids in the digestive process?
a)
The bacterium Escherichia coli
b)
The fungus Trichophyton rubrum
c)
The protozoan Entamoeba histolytica
d)
The algae Fucus vesiculosus
143.
Many plant-eating organisms, including humans and grazing animals, are unable to digest the cellulose that makes up plant cell walls.  Most plant-eaters have a symbiotic relationship with a microorganism that actually digest the cellulose releasing the nutrients for the herbivore’s use.
If a grazing animal unable to digest cellulose did not have this symbiotic microorganism, what might happen to the animal?
a)
The grazer would realize that it needed to find another food source besides plants.
b)
The grazer would probably not be able to get enough nutrients to survive.
c)
Over time, evolution would occur and the grazer would adapt to new food.
d)
The grazer would find a plant to eat that did not have cellulose cell walls.
144.
What would prompt the body to produce immunity to a disease?
a)
antibiotics
b)
vaccines
c)
vitamin C
d)
toxins
145.
Antibiotics work by blocking the growth and reproduction of --
a)
viruses only
b)
bacteria only
c)
fungi only
d)
viruses and bacteria
146.
The algal bloom called red tide
a)
causes a tremendous increase in oxygen content
b)
produces toxins that can harm fish and humans
c)
forms a mutualistic relationship with shellfish
d)
results in nitrogen-fixation in marine waters
147.
The fungus that grows within the outer layers of human skin causes
a)
ringworm and athlete’s foot
b)
urinary tract infections
c)
mold and mildew
d)
Kaposi’s sarcoma
148.
The tetanus vaccine is a liquid containing an inactivated toxin from the tetanus bacteria. Vaccinated individuals become protected against tetanus because the inactivated toxin
a)
prevents any future viral invasions
b)
causes an inflammatory response
c)
promotes production of antibodies
d)
causes illness but not fatalities
149.
Milk that you purchase in the grocery store has gone through a process where it has been heated and then cooled.  The most probable reason for heating the milk would be to –
a)
control pathogen growth in the milk
b)
improve the flavor and color of the milk
c)
reduce the amount of fat in the milk
d)
add extra vitamins to the milk
150.
Defending the body against bacterial infection and invasion by foreign substances is the function of
a)
red blood cells
b)
plasma
c)
lymph fluid
d)
macrophages
151.
Certain white blood cells use phagocytosis to
a)
destroy old memory cells
b)
engulf and digest bacteria
c)
produce circulating antibodies
d)
secrete toxins to destroy pathogens
152.

Memory cells are responsible for the secondary immune response being...

a)
slower than the primary response
b)
faster than the primary response
c)
the same speed as the primary response
d)
none of these.  Memory cells are not part of the secondary response
153.
The body produces all of the following as defenses against disease except –
a)
antibodies
b)
macrophages
c)
T-cells
d)
antigens
154.
When invaded with a pathogen, macrophages:
a)
send chemical messages to the lymph nodes
b)

send for T cells to guide the attack against the antigen

c)

attack T cells

d)

activate the helper T cells

155.
What is the role of antibodies in fighting a virus?
a)
they call in the macrophages
b)
they recognize and neutralize the virus
c)
they make white blood cells
d)
they kill the phagocytes
156.

What is the role of the Helper T cells?

a)

they act as the "front lines" of the immune system military; they are the first cells to detect and destroy the pathogen

b)
they create platelets
c)

they act as the "general" of the immune system military; they direct the other immune cells to protect the body from the pathogen

d)

they produce antibodies

157.
As a defense against infection, a fever is created by the body in order to --
a)

decrease the flow of blood

b)

raise body temperature to destroy/slow down the production of pathogens

c)

raise body temperature to increase the production of pathogens

d)

stimulate the digestive system

158.
Which immune system cell destroys pathogens that have been antibody “tagged”?
a)

Helper T cells

b)

Killer T cells

c)
Plasma B Cells
d)
Memory B cells
159.

Non-specific defenses against foreign invaders/pathogens include all of the following EXCEPT

a)
stomach acid
b)
mucus
c)

fever

d)
plasma B cells
160.
HIV attacks our immune system by:
a)
Infecting red blood cells
b)
invading nervous system cells
c)

invading Helper T cells

d)
releasing toxins which destroy macrophages
161.
The difference between the primary and secondary immune response is:
a)

The primary immune response is much faster. 

b)

The number of antibodies produced in the primary response is greater.

c)

In the secondary immune response, the antigen is disabled in a shorter amount of time.

d)

There is no difference between the two immune responses.

162.
Which of the following is a first line of defense against infection?
a)
antibodies
b)
skin
c)
antibiotics
d)
red blood cells
163.
The immune response is especially compromised by an HIV infection because
a)
the HIV multiplies faster than any other virus
b)
the HIV has an extra layer of protection that prevents the immune system from detecting the virus
c)

the HIV attaches to and destroys Helper T cells (CD4s)

d)
the HIV is transmitted from one person to another through casual contact, like holding hands
164.

Place the events in the specific immune response shown below in the correct order.
A.  Killer T cells attack antibody-tagged pathogen.
B.  Macrophages alert Helper T cells.
C.  B cells are alerted to make antibodies.
D.  Memory B cells create a record of the pathogen.
E.  Macrophages detect and eat an invading pathogen.

a)
E B C A D
b)
B C A D E
c)
E A B D C
d)
C E D A B
165.

STEPS OF THE SPECIFIC IMMUNE RESPONSE: ​

1. ​ (a)   begin engulfing and destroying invading pathogens.

  1. 2. ​ (b)   are alerted by macrophages that the body is under attack.

  2. 3. Helper T cells trigger ​ (c)   to begin producing antibodies to neutralize the specific invader/pathogen.

    4. ​ (d)   attack and kill antibody-tagged pathogens.

  3. 5. ​ (e)   are developed so that the immune system can quickly get rid of the pathogen if it infects the body again.

Choose from the below words
Macrophages
Helper T cells
plasma B cells
Killer T cells
Memory B cells
Red blood cells
Toxic Z cells
166.

Which of the following makes up the immune system's first line of defense? Select all that apply.

a)

Memory B cells

b)

Skin

c)

Mucus

d)

Cilia

e)

Stomach acid

167.

The immune system's second line of defense is know as the _________________ response.

a)

inspirational

b)

inflammatory

c)

specific

d)

antigen

168.

Which of the following is part of the immune system's second line of defense? Select all that apply.

a)

Skin

b)

Fever

c)

Phagocytes (White blood cells)

d)

Killer T cells

169.

Viruses that undergo the (a)   cycle produce a quick onset of symptoms. This is due to the fact that the viral genetic material replicates rapidly inside the host cell, leading to the production of many new viruses that​ (b)   the host cell as they are released from it.

Choose from the below words
lytic
destroy
protect
lysogenic
cell
170.

Match each immune cell to the correct description.

a)

First defender in the specific immune response that engulfs pathogens and alerts/activates Helper T cells

1.

Macrophage

b)

The general of the immune system military that directs other immune cells to respond to the pathogen

2.

Helper T cell

c)

Produces specific antibodies to disable pathogens

3.

Plasma B cell

d)

Kills/destroys antibody-tagged pathogens and infected cells

4.

Killer (cytotoxic) T cell

e)

Keeps a record of a specific pathogen so that the body can respond quickly to treat infection if the same pathogen returns

5.

Memory B cell

171.

​ (a)   act as the bridge that connects macrophages to the other specific immune response cells.

Choose from the below words
Helper T cells
Killer T cells
Memory B cells
antibodies
172.

Which of the following is a way to obtain active immunity? Select TWO answers.

a)

Recovering from an illness/infection

b)

Receiving a vaccine

c)

A mother passing antibodies to her baby through breastfeeding

d)

Hugging someone who is immune

173.

Which of the following is a way to gain passive immunity?

a)

Recovering from an illness/infection

b)

Receiving a vaccine

c)

A mother passing antibodies to her baby through breastfeeding

d)

Hugging someone who is immune

174.

​ (a)   , protists, and fungi all consist of (b)   that break down dead organisms, providing ​ (c)   for the growth/development of new organisms.

Choose from the below words
decomposers
Bacteria
nutrients
Archaea
constructors
water
175.

Many bacteria have symbiotic relationships with other organisms, meaning that they help other organisms survive. Which of the following is a way that bacteria benefit humans?

a)

Bacteria in the digestive system help break down food into molecules we can use to fuel our bodies; they also produce important vitamins.

b)

Bacteria in the circulatory system help carry oxygen throughout our bodies.

c)

Bacteria in the respiratory system help carry carbon dioxide out of our bodies

d)

Bacteria in the nervous system help transmit signals between the brain and spinal cord.

176.

Plant hormones serve as chemical messengers between cells and tissues. Auxin is a plant hormone that causes the cells on the shady side of a plant shoot to elongate, causing the plant to grow towards the sunlight. The response enabled by auxin is known as — 

a)
geotropism
b)
photosynthesis
c)
phototropism
d)
transpiration
177.

The epidermis ("skin") of the leaf

a)
Q
b)
R
c)
U
d)

S

178.

Which plant part is depicted in the image?

a)

Roots

b)

Stem

c)

Leaf

d)

Flower

179.

Photosynthesis occurs in this layer of the leaf

a)
Q
b)
T
c)
U
d)
W
180.

Contains tubes for transport of materials like water and sugar

a)
R
b)
T
c)
U
d)
W
181.
The main adaptation that plants had to develop to live on land was the ability to --
a)
disperse seeds
b)
produce fruit
c)
photosynthesize
d)
conserve water
182.
Leaves are part of a plant’s shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports — 
a)
the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodules 
b)
the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissue 
c)
the water and minerals that are absorbed by the roots 
d)
the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production 
183.

Plants that live in cold, dry environments typically have what types of leaves?

a)

broad leaves with large surface areas

b)

thin, needle-like leaves with a waxy coating

c)

wide, prickly leaves

d)

big leaves with colorful flowers

184.

In nonvascular plants such as moss and other bryophytes, water is transported through _____________

a)
vascular bundles
b)
osmosis
c)
xylem
d)
phloem
185.
Which statement correctly matches the structure with its function?
a)
stem: main organ for reproduction
b)
leaf: transport of water between stem and roots
c)
flower: main organ for photosynthesis
d)
root: absorbs water and minerals for the plant
186.
Moss plants are small in size, whereas fern plants can grow as tall as a small tree.  What allows the difference in the size?
a)
sporangia
b)
vascular tissue
c)
fibrous roots
d)
auxins
187.

Which plant hormone stimulates the growth of stems and fruits?

a)

Auxin

b)

Cytokinin

c)

Gibberellin

d)
Ethylene
188.

Which plant hormones stimulate cell elongation and help plants grow upright against gravity?

a)
Auxins
b)
Cytokinins
c)
Gibberellins
d)
Ethylene
189.
Changes in water pressure within guard cells cause the cells to open or close the stoma. This response helps the plant maintain homeostasis by — 
a)
stabilizing the plant’s temperature through the evaporation of water 
b)
regulating the amount of water the plant loses during transpiration 
c)
allowing oxygen needed for photosynthesis to enter the plant 
d)
enabling the plant to release more carbon dioxide at night for photosynthesis 
190.

Protists are believed to be the ancestors of all plants. What trait separates the ancient nonvascular plants from the photosynthetic protists (Algae)?

a)

Only plants have cell walls composed of cellulose

b)

All plants are multicellular; most protists (algae) are unicellular

c)

Only plant cells contain chlorophyll

d)

Only plant cells contain a nucleus with DNA

191.

Look at the four different types of plants in Figure 1. Which plants have vascular tissue? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY.

a)
Plant A
b)
Plant B
c)
Plant C
d)
Plant D
192.

Which group or groups of plants produce(s) spores on the undersides of their leaves for reproduction?

a)

Plant A only

b)

Plant A and B

c)

Plant C only

d)

Plant A and D

193.

Which group or groups of plants produce(s) seeds enclosed in an ovary (fruit)?

a)

Plant A only

b)

Plant D only

c)

Plant B and C

d)

Plant A and D

194.

Which group or groups of plants produce(s) seeds for reproduction?

a)

Plant A only

b)

Plant B and C

c)

Plant C only

d)

Plant A and D

195.

Plant A is an example of which plant group?

a)

Bryophytes (Mosses)

b)

Pteridophytes (Ferns)

c)

Gymnosperms

d)

Angiosperms

196.

Plant B is an example of which plant group?

a)

Bryophytes (Mosses)

b)

Pteridophytes (Ferns)

c)

Gymnosperms

d)

Angiosperms

197.

Plant C is an example of which plant group?

a)

Bryophytes (Mosses)

b)

Pteridophytes (Ferns)

c)

Gymnosperms

d)

Angiosperms

198.

Plant D is an example of which plant group?

a)

Bryophytes (Mosses)

b)

Pteridophytes (Ferns)

c)

Gymnosperms

d)

Angiosperms

199.
Look at the plants in Figure 1. Which plants produce pollen (male plant gametes)? 
a)
Plants A and B 
b)
Plants A and D 
c)
Plants A, B, and C
d)
Plants A, C, and D 
200.

Look at Figure 1. Which plants can reproduce sexually in environments WITHOUT the help of water?

a)
Plants A and B
b)
Plants B and C
c)
Plants A and D
d)
All 4 plants
201.
Look at Figure 1. Which plant grouping is the most successful at reproduction thereby having the largest number of species?
a)
Plant A
b)
Plant B
c)
Plant C
d)
Plant D
202.

Look at Figure 1. Which plant or plants produce(s) naked (unprotected) seeds in cones?

a)
Plant A
b)
Plant D
c)
Plant A and C 
d)

Plant C and D

203.

Which part of the flower is the male reproductive structure that produces pollen?

a)

Stigma

b)

Anther

c)

Ovary

d)

Petal

204.

Which part of the flower is the sticky female reproductive structure that collects pollen?

a)

Stigma

b)

Anther

c)

Ovary

d)

Petal

205.

Which gymnosperm structure shown in Diagram 5 is responsible for pollen production?

a)
Structure A
b)
Structure B
c)

Both structures produce pollen

d)

Neither structure produces pollen

206.
Rounded brown spots on the underside of the fern plant are containers for – 
a)
seeds
b)
excess glucose
c)
spores
d)
insect eggs (galls)
207.

The chemical formula for photosynthesis would have which two REACTANTS?

a)
glucose and water
b)
carbon dioxide and oxygen
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
oxygen and glucose
208.

Vascular plants such as ferns, gymnosperms, and ​ (a)   all have true roots, stems, and ​ (b)   . Within these structures are tubes that transport ​ (c)   , minerals, and food throughout the plants. These tubes make up the plants' ​ (d)   .

Choose from the below words
angiosperms
leaves
vascular system
mosses
flowers
water
209.

In vascular plants, the main functions of the roots include absorbing ​ (a)   and minerals, storing excess food, and ​​ (b)   the plant in the soil. The water and minerals absorbed by the roots travel through the ​ (c)   to the leaves. The leaves contain ​ (d)   that open and close to regulate water loss and allow for the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen. The leaves use carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight to perform ​ (e)   .

Choose from the below words
phloem
water
anchoring
xylem
stomata
photosynthesis
210.

In vascular plants, the leaves use carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight to make food for the plant through a process called ​ (a)   . In this process, the leaves create two products: oxygen and ​ (b)   . Once these products are made, the food/sugar is transported from the leaves to other parts of the plant through the ​ (c)   .​

Choose from the below words
glucose
nitrogen
phloem
photosynthesis
xylem
211.

Roots, stems, and leaves contain an outer protective layer of cells called the epidermis. The epidermis contains epidermal cells covered in a waxy, waterproof film (called a cuticle) to help prevent water loss. The epidermis also contains guard cells that surround openings on the leaves called stomata that regulate gas exchange. The functions of the epidermis are most similar to the functions of which two human organs?

a)

skin and lungs

b)

heart and brain

c)

skin and stomach

d)

liver and kidneys

212.

How do the fruits produced by angiosperms help the plants reproduce?

a)

The fruits are sweet, which attracts animals to eat the fruits and spread the seeds through their feces.

b)

The fruits are lightweight, which allows the seeds to be carried and dispersed by the wind.

c)

The fruits are hollow, which allows them to float and be carried away by water.

d)

The fruits contain spores which stick to insects that spread the spores to different plants for fertilization.

213.

What is the chemical formula for glucose?

a)

C₆H₁₂O₆

b)

CO₂

c)

O2

d)

H₂O

214.

Which organelle is responsible for making food (glucose) using sunlight?

a)

Cell Membrane

b)

Nucleus

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Mitochondria

215.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
carbon dioxide + water --> oxygen + glucose
b)
carbon dioxide + glucose + water --> oxygen 
c)
oxygen + water --> carbon dioxide + glucose
d)
glucose+ oxygen ---> water + carbon dioxide 
216.
What are the products of photosynthesis?
a)
water and carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen and glucose
c)
oxygen and carbon dioxide
d)
oxygen and water
217.

Which type of plant tropism response is shown in the clip? [Hint: Even though the plant is on its side, the stem grows upward (against Earth's gravitational force)].

a)

Phototropism

b)

Gravitropism / Geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Hydrotropism

218.

Transpiration is -

a)

the movement of water through a plant from the stem down to the roots

b)
the loss of water from the leaves of a plant by the process of evaporation
c)
the flow of water into plant roots by osmosis from the soil
d)
the process of minerals and sugars moving through plant veins
219.

Which of the following characteristics would help a plant living in a hot, dry climate prevent water loss through transpiration?

a)

having only a few small leaves

b)

having many large leaves

c)

having small roots

d)

having colorful flowers

220.
What gas is TAKEN IN during photosynthesis?
a)
argon
b)
nitrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
carbon dioxide
221.
What gas is RELEASED during photosynthesis?
a)
carbon dioxide
b)
argon
c)
oxygen
d)
nitrogen
222.

Vascular plants contain a root system and shoot system. The root system contains the roots. What does the shoot system contain?

a)

The parts of the plant above the ground, including the stem and leaves

b)

The fungi growing on the roots

c)

The pollen and seeds

d)

The fruits and spores

223.

Why are mosses and ferns considered primitive plants? (Primitive = simple, characteristic of an early stage in the evolutionary development of a species)

a)

They produce pollen and seeds for reproduction.

b)

They need water to reproduce (the sperm need water to reach the eggs).

c)

They are both extinct.

d)

They absorb and move water through vascular tissue.

224.

Fibrous root systems have __________

a)

a long and thick primary root and smaller secondary roots that come out of it.

b)

roots that grow above the ground and anchor the plant in place.

c)

a widespread bunch of small, thin roots that are of equal or nearly equal size.

225.

Examine the leaf. Would you expect this plant to be classified as a dicot or monocot? Why?

a)

Monocot, because the leaf has parallel veins

b)

Dicot, because the leaf has branched/netted veins

c)

Dicot, because the leaf has parallel veins

d)

Neither

226.

This flower has six petals. In which flowering plant group does this plant belong?

a)

Monocot

b)

Dicot

c)

Tricot

d)

None of the above.

227.
Surtsey is an island located south of Iceland. The island was formed by a volcanic eruption and first appeared in 1963. The table contains descriptions of changes in the population and diversity of species on Surtsey.
Which of these lists the descriptions in the correct order of ecological succession on Surtsey?
a)
I, II, IV, III
b)
III, I, II, IV
c)
IV, III, I, II
d)
II, IV, I, III
228.
Some bacteria are able to convert nitrogen gas into a form usable by organisms through the process of -
a)
nitrogen fixation
b)
denitrification
c)
combustion
d)
decomposition
229.
Biogeochemical cycling ensures that --
a)
humans cannot affect availability of limited nutrient resources
b)
no single nutrient will be more utilized than another by organisms
c)
nutrients will be continually circulated throughout the biosphere
d)
certain nutrients will be trapped in specific sections of the biosphere
230.
Which group is most responsible for the recycling of elements and compounds within the environment?
a)
Autotrophs
b)
Consumers
c)
Heterotrophs
d)
Decomposers
231.

Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place during cellular respiration?

a)
Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules. 
b)
Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.
c)
Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions. 
d)
The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP. 
232.
Which of these organisms would most likely be found at the top of an energy pyramid?
a)
clams
b)
minnows
c)
sharks
d)
kelp (seaweed)
233.

How much energy is passed from one trophic level to the next?

a)
1%
b)
10%
c)
25%
d)
50%
234.

Organisms may be classified as consumers (heterotrophs) or producers (autotrophs). 
In the image, which organism would be classified as a producer?

a)

Snake

b)

Caterpillar

c)

Squirrel

d)

Bush

235.
Which of the following would represent a correct food chain from Figure 17?
a)
Tadpole – Algae – water bug – Dragonfly
b)
Bacteria – Decayed material – Daphnia – Back swimmer
c)
Algae – Water bug – Dragonfly – Kookaburra
d)
Kookaburra – Centipede – Decaying material – Bacteria
236.
The acacia ant (Pseudomyrmex ferruginea) lives in the bullshorn acacia plant, as shown.
The acacia ant nests and feeds in the plant’s hollow thorns. The ant helps protect the bullshorn acacia by attacking insects and grazing animals that come near the plant. The relationship between the acacia ant and the bullshorn acacia is an example of which of the following?
a)
Commensalism
b)
Mutualism 
c)
Parasitism 
d)
Predator/Prey
237.
If the water bug population suddenly decreased dramatically, which organism would be effected immediately?
a)
Dragonfly
b)
Daphnia
c)
Tadpole
d)
Kookaburra
238.

The carbon cycle includes processes that release carbon into the atmosphere and places that act as carbon reservoirs which store carbon. The diagram below shows both major processes that release carbon and major carbon reservoirs. 
Which of the following disruptions would cause an excess output in the carbon cycle?

a)
The destruction of terrestrial biota 
b)
Increases in marine biota 
c)
A reduction in the use of fossil fuels 
d)
A thickening of ocean sediments 
239.

What organelle is labeled with the letter V, and which cycle occurs here?

a)

chloroplast; Kreb's Cycle (cellular respiration)

b)

mitochondrion; Calvin Cycle (photosynthesis)

c)

mitochondrion; Kreb's Cycle (cellular respiration)

d)

chloroplast; Calvin Cycle (photosynthesis)

240.

What is Y, and what products are produced in this organelle?

a)
chloroplast; water and carbon dioxide
b)
mitochondrion; water, carbon dioxide, and ATP 
c)
mitochondrion; glucose, oxygen, and ATP
d)
chloroplast; water, carbon dioxide, and glucose
241.

CARBON CYCLE - Label the parts of the Carbon Cycle

a)

Combustion (Burning fossil fuels)

b)

Respiration

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Decomposition (Fossil fuel formation)

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
242.

CARBON CYCLE - Carbon dioxide is produced and released into the atmosphere by animals and plants through (#2 and #3 in the diagram) _____________________.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

decomposition

c)

combustion

d)

cellular respiration

243.

NITROGEN CYCLE - Reorder the steps for how nitrogen cycles through an ecosystem.

a)

Pure nitrogen (N2) in the atmosphere is converted into nitrates by nitrogen-fixing bacteria

b)

Plants absorb nitrates from the soil, which helps them grow.

c)

Animals eat plants and produce waste (poop).

d)

Denitrifying bacteria convert nitrates back into pure nitrogen (N2) by decomposing dead animals and other organic matter.

1)
2)
3)
4)
244.

CARBON CYCLE - How does carbon move from the abiotic/non-living part of the biosphere (the atmosphere) to the biotic/living part of the biosphere?

a)

Cellular respiration

b)

Photosynthesis

c)

Combustion (burning fuels)

d)

Erosion

245.
Organisms require nitrogen to make which of the following?
a)
glucose and starch
b)
lipids and nucleic acids
c)
proteins and nucleic acids
d)
carbohydrates and proteins
246.

Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells. Which phase of photosynthesis occurs in the grana (stacks of discs) of the chloroplast, and what is the product of this process?

a)

Light-dependent reactions, oxygen

b)

Calvin cycle (Light-independent reactions), glucose

c)

Kreb's cycle, ATP

d)

Glycolysis, pyruvate

247.

Photosynthesis occurs in the chloroplasts of plant cells. Which phase of photosynthesis occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast, and what is the product of this process?

a)

Light-dependent reactions, oxygen

b)

Calvin cycle (Light-independent reactions), glucose

c)

Kreb's cycle, ATP

d)

Glycolysis, pyruvate

248.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
249.
Barnacles create home sites by attaching themselves to whales. This relationship neither harms nor benefits the whales. 
a)
parasitism
b)
commensalism
c)
mutualism
250.
Mistletoe takes water and nutrients from the oak tree. This is good for the mistletoe but bad for the tree.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
parasitism
d)
competition
251.
A bison walks through the grass, insects fly up and are seen and eaten by egrets.  This neither harms nor helps the bison, but it is easier for the egrets to get food.
a)
mutualism
b)

parasitism

c)
commensalism
d)
competition
252.
In this food web, the grasshopper and the mouse have this relationship:
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
predation
253.

In this food web, the lizard and the hawk have this relationship

a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
predation
d)

parasitism

254.

In ecological succession, what do we call the first species that populates/colonizes a new area?

a)

Foreign Species

b)

Pioneer species

c)

Intraspecies

d)

Climax community

255.

A series of progressive changes in the composition of an ecological community over time

a)

Climax Community

b)

Evolutionary Succession

c)

Ecological Succession

d)

Species Richness

256.

An area that was previously occupied by living things is destroyed by a natural disaster such as a wildfire or a hurricane. The soil is left behind, which allows small plants to grow and eventually leads to the recolonization of the area following the disturbance. Which type of ecological succession is occurring?

a)

Pioneer species

b)

Primary succession

c)

Tertiary succession

d)

Secondary succession

257.

Newly exposed or newly formed rock is colonized by living things for the first time. Lichens, a pioneer species, grow on the newly exposed/formed rock, breaking the rock down to form soil. As more soil is formed, other producers start to populate the area. After hundreds of years, the area possesses a stable community of species known as a climax community. Which type of ecological succession is occurring?

a)

Pioneer species

b)

Primary succession

c)

Secondary succession

d)

Tertiary succession

258.

What is the correct order of ecological succession shown in this figure?

a)

C, B, A, D

b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)

C, A, B, D

259.
In this food chain, what will happen if the frogs become extinct?
a)
The snakes will increase.
b)
The grasshoppers will decrease.
c)
The eagles will remain the same.
d)
The grasshoppers will increase.
260.
Question Image

Match each organism with the correct trophic level.

a)

Producer

1.

Grass

b)

Primary Consumer

2.

Squirrel

c)

Secondary Consumer

3.

Insect-eating Bird

d)

Apex Predator

4.

Mountain Lion

e)

Decomposer

5.

Bacteria