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Y11 ICT Revision

Total questions: 311

Worksheet time: 3hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The (a)   is a network of computers across the world.

2.

A device that filters data packets and forwards the packets between segments of the network.

a)

Gateway

b)

Router

c)

Swich

d)

Bridge

3.

A (a)   is a device that forwards packets along a network.

4.

Which best describes a network?

a)

when three or more devices are connected

b)

when two or more devices are connected

c)

a computer that is not connected to a network

d)

when a computer is connected to a printer

5.

A network of devices connected over a large geographical are is known as a (a)   Area Network.

6.

Which of the following is not a network topology?

a)

Star

b)

Ring

c)

Train

d)

Bus

7.

Which network topology is this?

a)

Ring

b)

Bus

c)

Mesh

d)

Star

8.

Which device connetcs a LAN to another LAN that uses the same protocol?

a)

Router

b)

Gateway

c)

Bridge

d)

Switch

9.

Select all that are disadvantages of a stand alone computer

a)

less vulnerable to attacks

b)

cannot share data and peripherals with other computers

c)

software needs to be installed on each individual computer

d)

No centralised backups

10.

Data is moved around the network in __________.

a)

Order

b)

Envelopes

c)

Packets

d)

A bus

11.

An (a)   is a network providing similar services to the internet , but there are restrictions to who can use it and what they can use.

12.

The (a)   is a collection of multimedia information or resources available on the Internet.

13.

The process by which network components check each packet, look at its address and direct it along the correct route.

a)

Packet Checking

b)

Packet Switching

c)

Packet Recycling

d)

Packet Searching

14.

You are checking your data for accuracy what phase of the project life-cycle is this

a)

Initiation

b)

Planning

c)

Execution

d)

Evaluation

15.

Which of the following gives the correct definition for the acronym "smart" for the letter T

a)

Respondent

b)

Time

c)

Transfer

d)

Training

16.

What type of data is the following "1960"

a)

Integer

b)

Alphanumeric

c)

Currency

d)

Real

17.

What type of data restricts the choice by a user often example is a drop-down list or radio button or tick list

a)

Object

b)

Limited choice

c)

Boolean/logical

d)

Integer

18.

What is the correct terminology for a group of infected computers controlled by a person to commit cybercrime?

a)

Bug

b)

Then somewhere

c)

Bot

d)

Trojan horse

e)

Virus

19.

What type of data is this shop reference W28VPIPS600

a)

Text

b)

Integer

c)

Data

d)

Alphanumeric

e)

Real

20.

What is the first stage of the project lifecycle?

a)

Planning

b)

Execution

c)

Initiation

d)

Evaluation

21.

How many stages are in the project lifecycle?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

22.

Which of the phases does NOT interact with the next phase?

a)

Planning

b)

Execution

c)

Initiation

d)

Evaluation

23.

What term is used to describe the way in which phases work together

a)

Interaction

b)

Iteration

c)

Initiation

d)

Indication

24.

Which phase of the project lifecycle should be completed 1st?

a)

Execution

b)

Evaluation

c)

Initiation

d)

Planning

25.

Which phase of the project lifecycle should be completed 3rd?

a)

Execution

b)

Evaluation

c)

Initiation

d)

Planning

26.

What is the first document you should create for your controlled assessment?

a)

The feasibility report

b)

Phase review

c)

A template to use for feasibility report and phase reviews

d)

The final evaluation

27.
Which of these advantages of a relational database over flat file does NOT relate to security?
a)
Hierarchy of passwords
b)
Access rights to parts of the program
c)
Reduced data redundancy
d)
Storage of data separate to programs
28.
Which of these is not a definition for data consistency?
a)
The relationship between the input data, the processed data and the output data as well as other related data.  If the system is working properly the data will be correct at each stage and is said to be consistent.
b)
Using one file to hold a central pool of data.  This avoids the need to input data twice so if it is changed in one file it won't need to be changed in another so will remain the same.
c)
Storing an item more than once.  This is wasteful because some data may be repeated unecessarily
29.
Which of these is a definition for data integrity?
a)
The relationship between the input data, the processed data and the output data as well as other related data.  If the system is working properly the data will be correct at each stage and is said to be consistent.
b)
Using one file to hold a central pool of data.  This avoids the need to input data twice so if it is changed in one file it won't need to be changed in another so will remain the same.
c)
Storing an item more than once.  This is wasteful because some data may be repeated unecessarily
d)
The correctness of data. Truthful, accuracy
30.
What is this a definition for?  A ??????? has data stored on a number of computers at different locations but appears as one logical database.
a)
Distributed computing
b)
Data Warehouse
c)
Distributed database
d)
Data Mining
31.
Which of these is NOT an advantage of a distributed database?
a)
Heavy reliance on networks
b)
If one server fails then other servers can be used
c)
Reduces network traffic as local queries can be performed using the data on the local server
d)
Faster response to user queries on the database
32.
Which of these is not a disadvantage of a distributed database?
a)
Greater chance of data inconsistency
b)
Harder to control the security of data
c)
Heavy reliance on networks and communications that may not always be reliable
d)
Easy to backup and copy data from one server to another
33.
Which of these is NOT an advantage of video conferencing to an organisation?
a)
Experts don't waste time travelling
b)
Cost of dedicated video conferencing equipment is expensive to buy
c)
Allows staff to attend a meeting while out of the country
d)
Allows meetings to be called at short notice
34.
Which of these is NOT a disadvantage of teleworking to employees?
a)
Smaller offices are needed
b)
Home costs such as lighting, heating increase
c)
Boundary between home and work is lost
d)
May feel isolated
35.
Which of these is NOT an advantage of teleworking to the employer?
a)
Smaller offices are needed
b)
Can employ workers from a wider pool of talent
c)
Staff less likely to spend time off sick
d)
Hard to determine how hard staff are working
36.
Which of these is NOT an disadvantage of teleworking to the employer?
a)
Heating costs may increase
b)
Difficult for managers to track employees
c)
Employers normally pay for employee ICT equipment
d)
More difficult to hold meetings face to face
37.
Which of these is NOT in a code of conduct regarding use of an organisation's ICT facilities?
a)
Responsibilities of the employee to abide by company rules
b)
Respecting rights of others
c)
Appropriate dress
d)
Complying with licensing agreements
38.
Which of these is NOT an example of a problem that may breach the 'Security of data' section of a code of conduct?
a)
Installing software on more pcs than the company has a license for
b)
Sharing a password with a colleague
c)
Leaving your computer logged on when away from desk
39.
Which of these is NOT an example of a problem that may breach the 'Complying with licensing agreements' section of a code of conduct?
a)
Installing software on more pcs than the company has a license for
b)
Taking software home to install on your home pc
c)
Accessing information you are not allowed to about a customer 
40.
Which of these is not one of the guidelines of a companies ICT Code of Conduct?
a)
Permissions on data access
b)
Abiding by current legislation
c)
Penalties for misuse
d)
Physical security
41.
There are legal and moral issues with respect to a code of conduct.  Which of these is legal?
a)
Not fully informing potential customers about all the facts
b)
Estate agent putting false information on adverts
c)
Monitoring company emails
42.
Which legal act deals with unauthorised access
a)
Data Protection Act
b)
Computer Misuse Act
c)
Copyright Designs and Patents Act
43.
A foot rest can help with back problems
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Repetitive Strain Injury (RSI) can be caused by spending too long in front of a computer 
a)
True
b)
False
45.
Eye strain can be caused by spending too much time in front of a computer
a)
True
b)
False
46.
People can get stressed when working with ICT equipment
a)
True 
b)
False
47.
Ways to reduce back ache are to use an adjustable chair, sit up straight, ensure screen is position properly and use a foot rest
a)
True
b)
False
48.
Having to learn new software, the pace of work, losing work and problems with viruses can cause stress. 
a)
True
b)
False
49.
Focusing on the screen for too long and the glare from the screen can cause eye strain
a)
True
b)
False
50.
To reduce eye strain, take regular breaks and go for regular eye tests.
a)
True
b)
False
51.
Constantly typing can cause RSI in arms, neck, wrists and hands
a)
True 
b)
False
52.
Chairs should be adjustable, with arm rests and a back support.
a)
True
b)
False
53.
A way to support users when using a computer is to use a foot rest.
a)
True
b)
False
54.
In order to help users, a keyboard should be tiltable and matt surface to avoid glare
a)
True
b)
False
55.
An ergonomic keyboard is a useful way to assist users
a)
True
b)
False
56.
Matt surface devices (keyboard and mouse), no direct light source and blinds help to reduce glare.
a)
True
b)
False
57.

What is the purpose of the Lasso tool?

a)

To select a specific area of an image

b)

To copy the image

c)

To cut out part of an image

d)

To delete the image

58.

What is the purpose of the Cut tool?

a)

To move one part of the image somewhere else

b)

To copy part of the image

c)

To delete part of the image

d)

To colour in part of an image

59.

What does the Copy tool do?

a)

Duplicates part of an image

b)

Moves part of an image

c)

Deletes part of an image

d)

Colours part of an image in

60.

What does the Crop tool do?

a)

Resizes the image and keeps everything the same

b)

Resizes the image, but deletes what isn't selected

c)

Removes the middle of an image

d)

Moves part of an image

61.

What does the move tool do?

a)

Moves part of an image

b)

Copies part of an image

c)

Deletes part of an image

d)

Colours part of an image in

62.

What does the group tool do?

a)

Merges images together into one image

b)

Separates images out into their own groups

c)

Deletes part of the image

d)

Saves the image

63.

What does the rotate tool do?

a)

Allows you to turn the image around 360'

b)

Allows you to see the back of the image

c)

Moves an image

d)

Copies part of the image

64.

What does the distort tool do?

a)

Allows you to widen or shorten the edges of an image independently of each other

b)

Allows you to make the image a copy of itself but in a different colour

c)

Allows you to resize the image to make it bigger or smaller

d)

Allows you to flip the image and see what's behind it.

65.

What does the magic wand tool do?

a)

Selects part of the image that is the same colour/shape

b)

Selects all the image

c)

Allows the user to draw around part of an image to select it

d)

Selects the bits you want and magically does all your work for you.

66.

What is a layer?

a)

Allows one part of the image to be in-front or behind another part

b)

Images are like Ogres, Onions, and Cakes. Cakes have layers.

c)

Allows you to save the image as a layer to use in other projects

d)

Allows you to select part of an image and change its colour layer.

67.

True or False: After you have drawn a line, you cannot change it's size and/or width. You have to draw it again

a)

True

b)

False

68.

Ellipsis is a fancy word for a circle or an oval.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

Circles and Rectangles are the only shapes the shape tool lets you add in

a)

True

b)

False

70.

Which of these shapes are available by default in the shapes tool?

a)

Ellipsis

b)

Rectangle

c)

Triangle

d)

Octagon

71.

To add a triangle in, you add a smart polygon, and then alter the number of sides down to 3

a)

True

b)

False

72.

What does the fill tool do?

a)

Fills a selected area with a selected colour

b)

Deletes part of an image

c)

Copies one part of the image and fills in any blanks bits with what it copied.

d)

Covers the entire image in one colour

73.

What does the blur tool do?

a)

Softens edges of an image to make them not as clear.

b)

Merges colours together

c)

Increases the focus of edges to make them stand out more

d)

Makes the shape harder to see

74.

What does the blend tool do?

a)

Softens edges of an image to make them not as clear.

b)

Merges colours together

c)

Increases the focus of edges to make them stand out more

d)

Makes the shape harder to see

75.

What does the sharpen tool do?

a)

Softens edges of an image to make them not as clear.

b)

Merges colours together

c)

Increases the focus of edges to make them stand out more

d)

Makes the shape harder to see

76.

What is an image mask?

a)

Where you take part of an image and edit separate to the rest of the image

b)

Where you put colour over part of an image to hide

c)

Where you copy and paste part of an image on top of itself

d)

HIghlights similar parts of the image and deletes them

77.

The eraser tool will delete everything down to the canvas layer.

a)

True- It deletes all the layers down to the canvas layer

b)

False- It only deletes the one selected layer

78.

The spraypaint tool is the same as the paintbrush tool.

a)

True- They are the same tool

b)

False- One draws squares the other circles

c)

False- One adds solid colour, the other fades the colour in

d)

False- Neither of these tools are used in Graphics

79.

(In graphics) What is a gradient?

a)

Where the colour goes from one colour to another.

b)

Slopes an image to make it look 3d

c)

Allows you to stack parts of images on top of each other

d)

Merges all images together to create a new image.

80.

A vector image is made up of...

a)

Shapes

b)

Pixels

81.

A bitmap (or Raster) image is made up of...

a)

Shapes

b)

Pixels

82.
Which of these is not an advantage of peer to peer compared to client server?
a)
You need a network manager
b)
It is relatively easy to set up
c)
Lower operating costs - less set-up and maintenance costs.
d)
No reliance on a server
83.
Which of these is not an advantage of a client server network compared to peer to peer?
a)
Back ups can be done centrally
b)
Load tolerant - suitable for large networks
c)
Centrally stored files are easier to find
d)
If server breaks down the network is unusable
84.
Which of these advantages of a relational database over flat file does NOT relate to security?
a)
Hierarchy of passwords
b)
Access rights to parts of the program
c)
Reduced data redundancy
d)
Storage of data separate to programs
85.
Which of these is NOT an advantage of a distributed database?
a)
Heavy reliance on networks
b)
If one server fails then other servers can be used
c)
Reduces network traffic as local queries can be performed using the data on the local server
d)
Faster response to user queries on the database
86.

A sequence of activities used to look at systems used within organisations.

a)

SDLC

b)

DBMS

c)

NCIS

87.

What are the 6 stages in system development?

a)

Investigation> analysis> design> implementation> maintenance> evaluation

b)

Analysis> investigation> design> implementation> maintenance> evaluation

c)

Design> analysis> investigation> maintenance> implementation> evaluation

88.

Design of data capture form, on screen forms or switchboards to help input data are all features to consider when...

a)

Design of hardware

b)

Design of software

c)

Design of processes

d)

Design of outputs

e)

Design of input methods

89.

What is included in a feasibility report (tick all that apply)

a)

User requirements

b)

Description of the data flow

c)

Problems with current system

d)

Details of existing hardware and software

e)

Improvements the new system will bring and a conclusion suggesting if the company will proceed with the new system or not.

90.

What are some ways in which the current system will be analysed? Tick all that apply

a)

Data flow diagrams

b)

Decision tables

c)

Entity Relationship Diagrams

d)

Questionnaires

e)

Interviews

91.
Which of these is not an advantage of wifi?
a)
It's suitable for listed buildings were holes can't be drilled for wires
b)

Transmission speed faster than cable

c)
Health and safety improved as no trailing cables
d)
Gives the freedom of working anywhere a signal can be received
92.
Which legal act deals with unauthorised access
a)
Data Protection Act
b)
Computer Misuse Act
c)
Copyright Designs and Patents Act
93.
What type of network is this?
a)
Ring 
b)
Bus 
c)
Star
d)
Mesh
94.

What is teleworking?

a)

Working at home and staying in touch with others using technology

b)

Working in the office with no technology

c)

Working in a different country without technology

d)

Working in a team without using technology

95.

What is a potential disadvantage of teleworking?

a)

Less social contact

b)

Flexible working hours

c)

Increased productivity

d)

Easier problem solving

96.

How can collaborative working be achieved?

a)

Through written letters

b)

Through face-to-face meetings only

c)

Through phone calls only

d)

Through video chat, email, social networking, and online working spaces

97.

What is a potential disadvantage of collaborative working?

a)

Easier to solve problems

b)

Can't read body language

c)

Work gets done quicker

d)

Work on the same documents

98.

What is a benefit of using cloud services for work?

a)

Saves money

b)

Less social contact

c)

Increased productivity - can access documents anywhere

d)

Easy to work long hours

99.

What is a potential disadvantage of using cloud services for work? (choose 2)

a)

Some employees may feel pressured to work when away from the office

b)

Workers could use cloud services to access documents and programs from anywhere

c)

People may avoid face-to-face contact and use email as a form of communication

d)

You don't have to live close to where you work if you can telecommunicate and work from home

100.

How can employers use technology to research potential employees?

a)

Visit potential employees' homes

b)

Check social networks to research potential employees' digital footprint

c)

Conduct interviews with potential employees

d)

Check physical documents of potential employees

101.

What is a potential disadvantage of employers checking social networks to research potential employees?

a)

Employers can't gather information about potential employees

b)

Some employees have been disciplined for defamatory posts on social networks

c)

Workers without an internet connection may be left out of making important decisions

d)

Decisions can be made more effectively through an online workspace

102.

What is a potential advantage of teleworking?

a)

Need internet connection

b)

You don't have to live close to where you work if you can telecommunicate and work from home

c)

Can't read body language

d)

Work could be overwritten

103.

What is a potential disadvantage of collaborative working?

a)

Work gets done quicker

b)

Work could get overwritten

c)

Easier to solve problems

d)

Work on the same documents

104.

What type of business is Amazon?

a)

B2C

b)

C2C

c)

B2B

d)

EDI

105.

Which online service allows consumers to sell to other consumers?

a)

Vinted

b)

Air bnb

c)

Gumtree

d)

Amazon

106.

What is a potential disadvantage of online shopping?

a)

Secure payments

b)

Third party payment options

c)

24/7 shopping

d)

You do not know the product quality

107.

What is the process of online shopping?

a)

Placing orders in a physical store

b)

Adding products to a virtual shopping basket

c)

Making payment in cash

d)

Collecting products from the store

108.

What type of business sells services and products to other businesses?

a)

C2C

b)

EDI

c)

B2C

d)

B2B

109.

What does EDI stand for?

a)

Electronic Business Interchange

b)

Electronic Document Interchange

c)

Electronic Data Interchange

d)

Electronic Information Interchange

110.

What is a potential risk of online shopping?

a)

Third party payment options

b)

24/7 shopping

c)

Risk of becoming a victim of a scam

d)

Greater choice and competitive prices

111.

Which online service provides a platform for consumers to sell pre-owned items?

a)

Shpock

b)

Air bnb

c)

Facebook Marketplace

d)

Amazon

e)

Vinted

112.

What is a potential advantage of online shopping?

a)

24/7 shopping

b)

Greater choice and competitive prices

c)

Third party payment options

d)

Limited product range

113.

What is a potential disadvantage of C2C online services?

a)

24/7 shopping

b)

Third party payment options

c)

Greater choice and competitive prices

d)

Risk of becoming a victim of a scam

114.

What is the difference between morals and ethics?

a)

Morals are personal, ethics are legal

b)

Morals are national, ethics are personal

c)

Morals are legal, ethics are personal

d)

Morals are personal, ethics are national

115.

What is an example of internal whistle blowing?

a)

Reporting to the media

b)

Reporting to the union

c)

Reporting to the feds

d)

Telling someone in the organization

116.

What does the Equality Act [2010] ensure?

a)

Equality of treatment for employees only

b)

Equality of treatment for specific groups

c)

Equality of treatment for certain people

d)

Equality of treatment for all people

117.

What is a code of practice/code of conduct in the workplace?

a)

Guidelines for personal behavior

b)

Guidelines for professional behavior

c)

Guidelines for legal behavior

d)

Guidelines for moral behavior

118.

How can cyber criminals be stopped from gaining access to a company's network?

a)

Through unsecured WiFi

b)

Through mobile phones

c)

Through smart watches

d)

Through secure, trusted devices using a VPN

119.

What is unconscious bias also known as?

a)

Stereotyping

b)

Assumption

c)

Discrimination

d)

Prejudice

120.

What is a way to avoid unconscious bias in the application process?

a)

Making decisions quickly without time for consideration

b)

Having an initial phone interview

c)

Having one person sifting job applications

d)

Advertising a job vacancy in one place

121.

What should employers and employees not base decisions on?

a)

Job qualifications

b)

Protected characteristics

c)

Personal preferences

d)

Work experience

122.

What is an example of discrimination in the workplace?

a)

Not receiving any pay for the job

b)

Receiving unequal pay for the same job

c)

Receiving equal pay for different jobs

d)

Not receiving equal pay for the same job

123.

What is the purpose of holding back some details on job application forms?

a)

To hide the applicant's identity

b)

To prevent unconscious bias

c)

To make the recruitment process easier

d)

To make the recruitment process longer

124.

What law relates to the sharing of information?

a)

Data Protection Act

b)

Regulation of Investigatory Powers Act

c)

Computer Misuse Act

d)

Copyright Designs and Patents Act

125.

When you remove a persons name and gender from application forms in the recruitment process it is known as?

a)

Info Removal

b)

Blind Sifting

c)

Application Assessment

d)

Bias Blasting

126.

Reporting something such as a manager selling company data would be known as?

a)

Code of Conduct

b)

Code of Practice

c)

Whistle Blowing

d)

Staying Safe Online

127.
A hardware device designed to be used by one person at a time.  Could be networked or standalone. 
a)
Personal Computer (PC)
b)
Network
c)
Spreadsheet
d)
Word Processing
128.
Two or more computer/laptops connected to each other. Allows for the exchange and sharing of data and resources i.e. printers. 
a)
Personal Computer (PC)
b)
Network
c)
Spreadsheet
d)
Word Processing
129.
A piece of software that is used to carry out calculations. Very popular in business as they are used to handle data, i.e. sales, profit and loss, engineering or other financial data like wages.
a)
Personal Computer (PC)
b)
Network
c)
Spreadsheet
d)
Word Processing
130.
A piece of software used to display written material; letters, reports, memos and etc. Can be manually typed, mail merged and then sent by email or post. Very good as numerous copies can be made and the quality will not diminish, alterations can also be made easily and the file can be easily stored.
a)
Personal Computer (PC)
b)
Network
c)
Spreadsheet
d)
Word Processing
131.
A piece of software that enables data to be stored in a logical and structured way. Mainly used by many businesses o keep customer, staff and patient records.
a)
Database
b)
PowerPoint
c)
Desktop Publishing
d)
Internet
132.
This is a presentation application. The user can produce slides with text, images, sound and video. Could be used to present plans to financiers or to show clients a new range of products or services.
a)
Database
b)
PowerPoint
c)
Desktop Publishing
d)
Internet
133.
A piece of software that allows you to produce creative marketing material such as flyers, posters, leaflets, magazine and etc. 
a)
Database
b)
PowerPoint
c)
Desktop Publishing
d)
Internet
134.
The largest computer network used by many people for numerous reasons; i.e. email, online chat, shopping, banking, research and etc.
a)
Database
b)
PowerPoint
c)
Desktop Publishing
d)
Internet
135.
ICT can be used for many reasons within a company. When it is used for emails, phone calls, texts, fax, video conferencing; what category does it belong to?
a)
Communication
b)
Finance
c)
Stock control and management
d)
HRM
136.
ICT can be used for many reasons within a company. When it is used for spreadsheets to check expenditure and sales revenue to calculate profit and loss; what category does it belong to?
a)
Communication
b)
Finance
c)
Stock control and management
d)
HRM
137.
ICT can be used for many reasons within a company. When it is used use with bar code scanners and computers have made it easy to maintain stock in stores; what category does it belong to?
a)
Communication
b)
Finance
c)
Stock control and management
d)
HRM
138.
ICT can be used for many reasons within a company. When it is used for staff records, patient records, customer records all on databases, easy to save, store, search, amend and protect; what category does it belong to?
a)
Communication
b)
Finance
c)
Stock control and management
d)
HRM
139.
When businesses buy and sell to each other, such as Samsung purchasing parts from LG. This is known as...
a)
Business-to-business E-Commerce
b)
Business-to-individual E-Commerce
c)
Individual-to-individual E-Commerce
140.
When you (a customer) purchase good or services from an e-commerce business such and ASOS, River Island or iTunes. This is known as...
a)
Business-to-business E-Commerce
b)
Business-to-individual E-Commerce
c)
Individual-to-individual E-Commerce
141.
When people buy and sell to each other, such as eBay and Amazon. This is known as...
a)
Business-to-business E-Commerce
b)
Business-to-individual E-Commerce
c)
Individual-to-individual E-Commerce
142.
What category does the benefit below belong to?
"A till system that also manages the stock may help with stock control and management – reducing waste and keeping customers happy. As technological products evolve, so will the need to keep up with  it. Garages for example will need equipment that is up-to-date with the newer generation of cars."
a)
Labour saving benefits 
b)
Cost saving benefits
c)
Paperless office
d)
Growth of e-commerce
143.
What category does the benefit below belong to?
"A quicker system could save more time, reduce waste and costs to a company, and therefore increase sales and profit margins in the long-term."
a)
Labour saving benefits 
b)
Cost saving benefits
c)
Paperless office
d)
Growth of e-commerce
144.
What category does the benefit below belong to?
"Less need to print as important files can be saves easily and securely, ready for access at anytime for future reference."
a)
Labour saving benefits 
b)
Cost saving benefits
c)
Paperless office
d)
Growth of e-commerce
145.
What category does the benefit below belong to?
"Most businesses use e-commerce in some shape or form, failure to do so could result in loss of potential earnings. So there is real potential for increasing business as there are more opportunities online. Could also reduce costs in your physical store, if you online business takes off, then may not need as many."
a)
Labour saving benefits 
b)
Cost saving benefits
c)
Paperless office
d)
Growth of e-commerce
146.
What is an advantage of creating electronic documents over paper documents?
a)
They can be easily edited and formatted
b)
They can be easily shared and stored
c)
They can be easily searched and analysed
d)
All of the above
147.
What is a cloud system that allows users to work together on documents and discuss changes on the screen at the same time?
a)
Google Docs
b)
Microsoft Teams
c)
Asana
d)
Word 365
148.
What is a work management system that allows managers to set tasks for individuals with completion times, and can follow which tasks have been completed within a wider project?
a)
Google Docs
b)
Microsoft Teams
c)
Asana
d)
Word 365
149.
What is the difference between a simple electronic signature and an enhanced electronic signature?
a)
A simple electronic signature is scanned and an enhanced electronic signature is typed
b)
A simple electronic signature is linked to the signatory and an enhanced electronic signature is not
c)
A simple electronic signature includes a tick box and an enhanced electronic signature includes a private key
d)
All of the above
150.
What is the benefit of sharing documents via email over conventional post?
a)
It is faster and cheaper
b)
It is more secure and reliable
c)
It is more environmentally friendly and convenient
d)
All of the above
151.
What is an example of a word processor software that can be used to create letters?
a)
Microsoft Word
b)
Microsoft Excel
c)
Microsoft PowerPoint
d)
Microsoft Access
152.
What is an example of a spreadsheet software that can be used to perform complex calculations and predictions?
a)
Microsoft Word
b)
Microsoft Excel
c)
Microsoft PowerPoint
d)
Microsoft Access
153.
What is an example of a database software that can be used to save and search for customer details, stock, sales etc.?
a)
Microsoft Word
b)
Microsoft Excel
c)
Microsoft PowerPoint
d)
Microsoft Access
154.
What is an example of a presentation software that can be used to create slideshows?
a)
Microsoft Word
b)
Microsoft Excel
c)
Microsoft PowerPoint
d)
Microsoft Access
155.
What is an example of a cloud system that allows a number of users to work on the same document, at the same time?
a)

Google Docs

b)

Microsoft Teams

c)

Asana

d)

Word 365

156.
What is an advantage of creating electronic documents over paper documents?
a)
They can be easily edited and formatted
b)
They can be easily shared and stored
c)
They can be easily searched and analysed
d)
All of the above
157.
What is the main goal of a management information system?
a)
To provide managers with the information to make better decisions
b)
To provide managers with the tools to manage data and business processes
c)
To provide managers with the system to access and analyse data
d)
To provide managers with the hardware and software to store and manipulate data
158.
What is one of the challenges of managing stock in a supermarket?
a)
Having too much stock on hand that wastes space and money
b)
Having too little stock on hand that leads to customer dissatisfaction
c)
Having perishable items that may go past their sell-by date
d)
All of the above
159.
What is one of the skills that an MIS major will learn?
a)
Project management
b)
Systems analysis and design
c)
Database management
d)
All of the above
160.
What is one of the benefits of creating electronic documents for personal matters?
a)

They can be easily edited and formatted

b)

They can be easily shared and stored

c)

They can be easily searched and analysed

d)

They can be easily lost or deleted

161.
What is an example of a digital assistant that can be used as a smart device?
a)

Google Home

b)

Amazon Echo

c)

Apple HomePod

d)

Microsoft Word

162.
What is one of the drawbacks of wearable technology?
a)

They have a short battery life

b)

They measure data inaccurately

c)

They are expensive

d)

They are stylish and fashionable

163.
What is one of the advantages of IoT devices for businesses?
a)

They lower operating costs

b)

They provide real-time information

c)

They improve customer service

d)

They require less maintenance

164.
What is one of the risks of smart devices for consumers?
a)

They are vulnerable to cyberattacks

b)

They collect personal data

c)

They depend on internet connection

d)

They enhance privacy and security

165.

What is an electronic device that manipulates information, or data?

a)

Mouse

b)

Printer

c)

ROM

d)

Computer

166.

Hardware is any part of your computer that has a physical structure, such as the keyboard or mouse.

a)

True

b)

False

167.

Software is any set of instructions that tells the hardware what to do and how to do it.

a)

True

b)

False

168.

Examples of hardware include web browsers, games, and word processors.

a)

True

b)

False

169.

An ATM machine is an example of a computer.

a)

True

b)

False

170.

A desktop computer is more portable than a laptop.

a)

True

b)

False

171.

What is a computer that serves up information to other computers on a network?

a)

iPad

b)

Laptop

c)

Server

d)

Tablet

172.

A touch pad is a touch-sensitive pad that lets you control the pointer by making a drawing motion with your finger.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

The back of a desktop computer case has _________________ that are made to fit specific devices.

a)

Portable Wires

b)

Connection Holes

c)

Connection Ports

174.

A _______________ is a type of input device that can record videos and take pictures.

a)

Printer

b)

Scanner

c)

Microphone

d)

Webcam

175.

What is a computer

a)

An electronic device that manipulates data or information

b)

A device that is data or information

c)

A computer is a device with images

d)

A physical device you use to write information and data

176.
The physical, tangible parts of a computer system is the...
a)
Tower Casing
b)
Monitor
c)
Keyboard
d)
Hardware
177.

What is hardware

a)

Hardware is an electronic device you can touch

b)

Hardware is an electronic device you can not touch

c)

Hardware is any device you can touch

d)

Hardware is any device you can NOT touch

178.
This is an image of what type of hardware?
a)
Computer 
b)
Monitor
c)
Tower Casing
d)
Hardware
179.
This is an image of what type of hardware?
a)
USB Port
b)
USB Cable
c)
Portable Storage
d)
CD/DVD Drive
180.
This is an image of what type of hardware?
a)
tower casing
b)
printer
c)
computer
d)
monitor
181.
This is an image of what type of hardware?
a)
USB Port
b)
Portable Storage
c)
Hardware
d)
USB Cable
182.

The instructions that tell the computer what to do:

a)

Hardware

b)

Input

c)

Software

d)

Ooutput

183.

The physical objects that make up the computer system:

a)

Software

b)

Storage

c)

Input

d)

Hardware

184.

You can touch software

a)

True

b)

False

185.

Microsoft Windows

a)

System Software

b)

Application Software

186.

Mobile Device Apps

a)

System Software

b)

Application Software

187.

What is this input device?

a)

Interactive whiteboard

b)

Keyboard

c)

Microphone

d)

Mouse

188.

Which one of these is a computer monitor?

a)
b)
c)
d)
189.

Which one of these is tablet?

a)
b)
c)
d)
190.

What computer browser has this icon?

a)

Chrome

b)

Firefox

c)

Internet Explorer

d)

Safari

191.

What do you use the program with this icon for?

a)

Doing shopping on the internet

b)

Creating charts and graphs

c)

Creating letters and reports

d)

Creating presentations

192.

Which company created the program with this icon?

a)

Apple

b)

Google

c)

Microsoft

d)

Oracle

193.

Which program would you use to find out the telephone number of a dentist?

a)
b)
c)
d)
194.

What is this device called?

a)

Planter

b)

Plotter

c)

Printer

d)

Punter

195.

Which device would you use to store files on?

a)
b)
c)
d)
196.

Which output device will allow you to hear sounds when using a computer?

a)
b)
c)
d)
197.

Is the unauthorised access to a computer system.

a)

Hacking

b)

Cracking

c)

Firewall

d)

Keylogger

e)

Spam

198.

Unwanted email sent to a huge number of recipients

a)

Hacking

b)

Cracking

c)

Firewall

d)

Keylogger

e)

Spam

199.

(a)   filters information to prevent harmful network traffic.

200.

Which among the choices are security risks?

a)

Hacking

b)

Fishing

c)

Phishing

d)

Smishing

e)

Washing

201.

Tick all the choices that you can do to prevent hacking?

a)

Firewalls

b)

Strong, frequently changed passwords

c)

Intrusion detection spyware

d)

Intrusion detection software

202.

Tick all the choices to prevent phishing.

a)

Spam / phishing filters

b)

Don't open executable attachements

c)

Caution when opening unsolicited emails

d)

Go fishing

e)

Don't do phishing

203.

You received an email from that you must update your password and contacts by clicking a LINK, it is to prevent from being locked out. The email claims that it is from Vietcom Bank. Tick all the possible things to check if it is legit.

a)

Spelling and grammar.

b)

email address

c)

Click the LINK in the email

d)

Follow the email instructions right away

e)

Email structure, words, and images.

204.

Why do we need security on a computer?

a)

To share everything with everyone

b)

To make it difficult for you to access your files and programs

c)

To stop personal data from being stolen

205.

If you suspect someone knows your passwords, what should you do?

a)

Tell your parents

b)

Change it immediately

c)

Cry

d)

Do nothing

206.

Which of these will help you keep your passwords safe?

a)

Telling your friends your passwords

b)

Using the same password for everything

c)

Changing your password regularly

d)

Making your password easy to guess

207.

Which of these would make a good password?

a)

Password

b)

123456

c)

654321

d)

J&jWuth#

208.

Data left by your online activity is called your Digital...?

a)

Footprint

b)

Fingerprint

c)

Memory

d)

DNA

209.

What is computer memory?

a)

hardware for coding the computer program

b)

A computer device that controls the flow of data

c)

is a device or system that is used to store information for immediate use in a computer

d)

software that stores binary digits

210.
What does the acronym RAM stand for?
a)
Random Alignment Memory
b)
Read Access Memory
c)
Random Access Memory
d)
Read All Memory
211.
ROM stands for...
a)
Read Optical Memory
b)
Random Only Memory
c)
Read Only Memory
d)
Random Optical Memory
212.
A ______ is the main storage device in your computer.
a)
CPU
b)
Hard drive
c)
Motherboard
d)
CD-Rom
213.
Not intended to be a portable storage device.
a)
CD
b)
Flash memory
c)
DVD
d)
Internal hard disk
214.
Very portable as it is designed to be fitted into small electronic devices.
a)
Flash memory devices
b)
Internal hard disk
c)
Magnetic tape
d)
Server
215.

Which of these is a Hard Disk Drive (HDD)?

a)
b)
c)
d)
216.

What's a volatile memory?

a)

a computer part that needs system wires

b)

a type of digital memory that needs energy

c)

a memory device that requires power to maintain the stored information.

d)

an AI advanced computer memory

217.

What is non-volatile memory?

a)

a type of memory that creates magnetic waves

b)

memory that can retain the stored information even when not powered

c)

a memory that tells the processor to stop processing

d)

a memory that expands the computer's life span

218.

What is this type of memory called?

a)

magnetic disk storage

b)

optical disk storage

c)

solid state drive

d)

USB disk drive

219.

In quantum computers, what is superposition?

a)

quantum particles are hidden in computers

b)

quantum particle can exists in 2 distinct locations at the same time

c)

particles with mysterious positions

d)

particles in quantum mechanics

220.

A quantum computer is.

a)

is a subfield of quantum information science

b)

the exploitation of collective properties of quantum states, such as superposition and entanglement, that perform computation.

c)

a computer that uses quantum mechanics

d)

a type of super computer that stores huge amount of data

221.

What is a qubit?

a)

unit of advanced binary

b)

the basic unit of quantum information

c)

unit for measuring quantum particles

222.

What is the full form of Wav?

a)

Wave File Format

b)

Waveform Audio Format

c)

Wave Audio File Format

d)

Waveform Audio File Format

223.

Which are wild characters?

a)

* And #

b)

* And %

c)

* And .

d)

? and *

224.

Full form of ZIP:

a)

Zone In Protect

b)

Plan Zone Improvement

c)

Zone Improvement

d)

Zone Improvement Plan

225.

WMA is which file format

a)

Audio File Format

b)

Document File Format

c)

Compressed File Format

d)

Video File Format

e)

Image File Format

226.

Full Form of TIFF:

a)

Tagged File Format

b)

Taged Image File Format

c)

Tagged Image File Format

d)

Taged Image Format File

227.

In order to keep files organised in a comuputer what do we use?

a)

Files

b)

Folders

c)

Documents

228.

Full form of BMP:

a)

Bitmap File Format

b)

Bitmap Image File Format

c)

Bitmap Image File Fomat

d)

Bittmap Image File Formmat

229.

Which Image can posted on Websites?

a)

Raster Images

b)

Vector Images

230.

How to zip a file format?

a)

Left-Click and choose zip.

b)

Left-Click and choose compress.

c)

Right-Click and choose zip.

d)

Right-Click and choose compress

231.

What do folders help for?

a)

Saving Files

b)

Sharing Files

c)

Organising Files

d)

Deleting Files

232.

Which is not a High level language?

a)

Third Generation Languages

b)

Second Generation Languages

c)

Fourth Generation Languages

d)

Fifth Generation Languages

233.

Which computer is in construction( which is still not usable as it's not available or made)?

a)

First Generation Language

b)

Second Generation Language

c)

Third Generation Language

d)

Fourth Generation Language

e)

Fifth Generation Language

234.

0 means?

a)

On

b)

Off

c)

Yes

d)

No

235.

Which translator converts High-level Language progam into Machine Code?

a)

Compiler

b)

Assembler

c)

Interpreter

236.

Which are mid-sized computers?

a)

Mainframe Computers

b)

Mini Computers

c)

Micro Computers

d)

Super Computers

237.

Which computers are multi tasking?

a)

MainFrame Computers

b)

Super Computers

c)

Minicom[uters

238.

C-DAC stands for:

a)

Center For Development of Advanced Coding

b)

Center For Developing of Advanced Coding

239.

MV-1500 is an example:

a)

Minicomputers

b)

Mainframe Computers

240.

What are the Health and safety guidelines that needs to be followed in the workplace (choose three)

a)

Protect people from injury

b)

Protect equipment from damage

c)

Protect the environment from contamination

d)

Protect the food in the refrigerator

241.

At least (a)   Volts of static electricity can damage a computer component.

242.

If discharge causes pain or makes a noise the charge is probably above (a)   volts

243.

You only need (a)   volts to feel ESD

244.

Which of these are ESD prevention (pick all that apply)

a)

Anti-static mats

b)

Anti-static Hands

c)

Anti – static Paper

d)

Anti-static Bags

e)

Anti-Static wrist straps

245.

Should you open a power supply?        

a)

Yes

b)

No

246.

Should you use a water fire extinguishers in the room you are in now? 

a)

Yes

b)

No

247.

Sudden increase in voltage that lasts for a very short period and exceeds 100% of the normal voltage on a line

a)

Blackout

b)

Brownout

c)

Noise

d)

Spike

e)

Power surge

248.

Complete loss of AC power

a)

Blackout

b)

Brownout

c)

Noise

d)

Spike

e)

Power surge

249.

Electrical interference from generators and lightning

a)

Blackout

b)

Brownout

c)

Noise

d)

Spike

e)

Power surge

250.

Dramatic increase in voltage above the normal flow of electrical current

a)

Blackout

b)

Brownout

c)

Noise

d)

Spike

e)

Power surge

251.

Reduced voltage level of AC power that lasts for a period of time

a)

Blackout

b)

Brownout

c)

Noise

d)

Spike

e)

Power surge

252.

Helps protect against potential electrical power problems by providing a backup battery to supply power when the incoming voltage drops below the normal level

a)

Surge suppressor

b)

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

c)

Standby Power Supply (SPS)

253.

Helps protect against damage from surges and spikes. A ___________ diverts extra electrical voltage on the line to the ground.

a)

Surge suppressor

b)

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

c)

Standby Power Supply (SPS)

254.

Helps protect against potential electrical power problems by supplying electrical power to a computer or other device

a)

Surge suppressor

b)

Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

c)

Standby Power Supply (SPS)

255.

What is EMI?

a)

   Electromagnetic Interference

b)

Electromagnetic Intervention

c)

Electromagnetic Interstellar

d)

Electromagnetic Intergraded

256.

When lifting, the power comes from your (a)  

257.

If you have to disposal of the following items power supply, office equipment, printer Toners, monitors, batteries, IT equipment, in the professional industry you just put it outside on the street.

a)

True

b)

False

258.

A technician is being asked to move a heavy industrial printer. Which safety technique is recommended for this situation?

a)

Bend at the knees when lifting.

b)

Use a pulley.

c)

Remove paper and all sources of ink before moving.

d)

Wear safety goggles.

259.

Which two pieces of information are needed before selecting a power supply? (Choose two.)

a)

the form factor of the case

b)

the total wattage of all components

c)

the voltage requirements of peripheral devices

d)

the installed operating system

e)

the type of CPU

260.

What should a technician do before working on a computer?

a)

Remove any watch and jewellery.

b)

Ensure that the computer is free of viruses.

c)

Check the surrounding area for trip hazards.

d)

Remove all cables except the power cable.

261.

Learners provide an account of something or

highlight a number of key features of a given

topic. May also be used in relation to the

stages of a process.

a)

Describe

b)

Discuss

c)

Evaluate

d)

State

262.

Learners denote a series of linked points

needed and/or justify or expand on an

identified point required.

a)

Explain

b)

Discuss

c)

Evaluate

d)

State

263.

Learners review and synthesise information to

provide a supported judgement about the topic

or problem. Typically, a conclusion will be

required.

a)

Evaluate

b)

Analyse

c)

Discuss

d)

Draw

264.

Learners investigate a problem or scenario

showing reasoning or argument.

a)

Draw

b)

Discuss

c)

Describe

d)

State

265.

Learners give careful consideration to all the

factors or events that apply and identify which

are the most important or relevant. Make a

judgement on the importance of something.

a)

Calculate

b)

Assess

c)

Draw

d)

Discuss

266.

Learners examine in detail a scenario or

problem to discover its meaning or essential

features. Learners will break down the problem

into its parts and show how they inter-relate.

There is no requirement for any conclusion.

a)

Assess

b)

Evaluate

c)

Discuss

d)

Analyse

267.

Assess questions require a conclusion.

a)

True

b)

False

268.

Evaluate questions require a conclusion.

a)

True

b)

False

269.

Learners represent understanding through the

use of a diagram or flowchart.

a)

Complete

b)

Explain

c)

Describe

d)

Draw

270.

Learners assess factual information. Requires a

single-word or short-sentence answer.

a)

State, name, give

b)

Describe

c)

Explain

d)

Discuss

271.
What is copyright? 
a)
a form of protection
b)
an image
c)
a form of protection for kids
d)
copies of work
272.
Why Should I Care About Copyright?
a)
allows others to copy your work
b)
prevents other people from copying your work 
273.
Who Owns the Copyright in a Work?
a)
you and family members 
b)
author who created it 
c)
the president 
d)
the government
274.
What is Copyright Infringement?
a)
anyone who uses someone work without permission 
b)
a copy of someone work
c)
anyone who uses copyright owners work with permission
d)
a picture of someone work
275.
What is Fair Use?
a)
pictures, essays
b)
unfair use of copyright material 
c)
all copyright materials
d)
material that can be used without the owner permission
276.
When Do I Need Permission to Copy?
a)
all the time 
b)
never
c)
sometimes
d)
whenever you feel like it
277.
What does this icon stand for?
a)
Copyright
b)
Credits
c)
Closed
d)
Commercial
278.
An identifying symbol or name for a particular good protected by law is called a: 
a)
Trademark
b)
Copyright
c)
Trade Secrets
d)
Patents
279.
What would protect a 90 page children's story written for day care center use?
a)
Patent
b)
Copyright
c)
Trademark
280.
What would protect a logo developed for a new company?
a)
Patent
b)
Copyright
c)
Trademark
281.

Which law is being broken? M&S had 26,000 employees' details stolen when they saved them on an unencrypted laptop.

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

282.

Which law is being broken? Sony have not updated their data security software on the Playstation network

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

283.

Which law is being broken? Not3s has released a new track which uses the same bassline as a track by Post Malone without permission

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

284.

Which law is being broken? Jess Glynne has released a new song which uses lyrics from a Pink song without permission

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

285.

Which law is being broken? A review in a magazine says H&M use slave labour to make their fashion

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

286.

Which law is being broken? An advert for McDonalds claims Burger King chips are disgusting

a)

Defamation Act

b)

Data Protection Act

c)

Copyright, Designs and Patents Act

287.
The Data Protection Act only applies to information that is held on a computer about an individual
a)
False
b)
True
288.
What is gaining unauthorised access to a computer system also known as?
a)
Hacking
b)
Spamming
c)
Phishing
d)
Logging on
289.
Why was the Computer Misuse Act of 1990 introduced?
a)
To help protect computer software
b)
To help protect computer hardware
c)
To stop the spread of computer viruses
d)
To stop people from accessing unauthorised information. 
290.
What is the name of the law that makes hacking illegal?
a)
Data Protection Act
b)
Computer Misuse Act
c)
Copyright, Designs and Patents Act
d)
Hacking Act
291.
Which year was the Computer Misuse Act passed?
a)
2000
b)
1989
c)
1990
d)
1988
292.
Which of the following is NOT an offence under the Computer Misuse Act?
a)
unauthorised access to someone else's files
b)
unauthorised access to someone else's files with intent to commit further criminal offences
c)
copying software and trying to sell it to someone for a profit
d)
writing and distributing a virus
293.
Which of the following could protect against unauthorised access to an ICT system?
a)
anti-virus software
b)
a firewall
c)
anti-malware software
d)
disk defragger
294.
According to the Computer Misuse Act you are committing a crime if you use your friend’s username and password to log onto their account?
a)
True
b)
False
295.
If you commit a crime under Section A of the Computer Misuse Act you receive...?
a)
Up to 12 Months in prison and/or a fine
b)
Life imprisonment
c)
£1000 Fine
296.
Some companies employ hackers to test out how secure their system is
a)
True
b)
False
297.
The Computer Misuse Act also makes it illegal to copy software
a)
True
b)
False
298.
If proven guilty of a offence under the Computer Misuse Act they shall be liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding
a)
2 years
b)
12 months
c)
5 years
d)
20 years
299.
What law makes organisations look after your personal data properly?
a)
Data Privacy Act
b)
Data Protection Act
c)
Data Protection Law
d)
Data Privacy Law
300.
Who might store data about you?
a)
Online Retailers
b)
Police
c)
Schools
d)
All of them
301.
What information might ebay store about you?
a)
Criminal convictions
b)
Medical information
c)
Employment history
d)
Contact information
302.
Information which is regarded as _________ is subject to stricter rules
a)
sensitive
b)
important
c)
additional
d)
dangerous
303.
Sensitive data includes...
a)
Name
b)
Age
c)
Criminal record
d)
County
304.
Organisations storing your data must...
a)
Keep it up to date
b)
Keep it for no longer than 5 years after your death
c)
Ask for more data than required
d)
Wait for you to contact them to ensure its accurate
305.
Data must be stored...
a)
On a single CD
b)
On a USB
c)
With a password 6 characters long
d)
Securely
306.
Organisations can't use data for any other purpose without your 
a)
Date of Birth
b)
Photograph
c)
Consent
d)
Fingerprint
307.
You can demand that your data is not used for
a)
A suitable purpose
b)
Intended use
c)
Marketing
308.
If a data controller breaks the law you may be entitled to...
a)
Nothing
b)
A refund
c)
Compensation
309.
When was the Data Protection Act last updated?
a)
1989
b)
1988
c)
1998
d)
2015
310.
How many principles does the Data Protection Act have?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
9
d)
10
311.
It's the law for an organisation to remove you from their database if you tell them to
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE