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2nd 9 Weeks Exam Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the reactants in cell respiration?

a)

water, carbon dioxide, light

b)

oxygen, sugar

c)

sugar, water, carbon dioxide

2.

What is the energy that is produced in cell respiration?

a)

ADP

b)

Sugar

c)

ATP

3.

Where does Kreb's Cycle occur?

a)

mitochondria inner membrane

b)

mitochondria matrix

c)

cytoplasm

4.

Which process will always occur no matter what?

a)

E.T.C.

b)

Kreb's Cycle

c)

Glycolysis

5.

Your body needs energy, there is enough oxygen present so after glycolysis it goes to...

a)

lactic acid fermentation

b)

Kreb's Cycle

c)

E.T.C.

6.

E.T.C. occurs where?

a)

mitochondria matrix

b)

mitochondria inner membrane

c)

cytoplasm

7.

Aerobic means

a)

without oxygen

b)

with oxygen

c)

without effort

8.

How many ATP are produced in Kreb's Cycle?

a)

32

b)

2

c)

34

9.

What are the products of cell respiration?

a)

water, light, and sugar

b)

water, carbon dioxide, ATP

c)

oxygen, water, sugar

10.

Photosynthesis _________ the energy that cell respiration ______.

a)

builds ; breaks

b)

breaks ; build

c)

eats ; builds

11.

The CO2 you breathe out comes out of which process?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

lactic acid fermentation

c)

Kreb's Cycle

12.
Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are beginning to only mate with the type of males with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
13.
The flowers of pink tulips open in the morning, while the flowers of lavender tulips open in the early afternoon. The bees that pollinate these tulips cannot carry pollen back & forth between the two types of tulips because of their flowers being closed at different times of day. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)
behavioral isolation
b)
hybrid sterility 
c)
temporal isolation
d)
mechanical isolation 
14.
The term for the formation of new and distinct species over the course of evolution is...
a)
speciation
b)
biological species concept
c)
reproductive barrier
d)
natural selection
15.
A flash flood carried a raft of Amazon ants away from their original population. There is enough distance between the two groups, that they will never meet in nature again. What type of reproductive barrier is this?
a)

behavioral isolation

b)

temporal isolation 

c)

gametic isolation

d)

geographic isolation 

16.
The climate of a certain area is cold, and snow is found on the ground most of the year. Equal numbers of two populations of rabbits are introduced into this climate by a group of scientists. One of the populations is brown and the other is white. Predict what will happen over several generations.
a)
There will be equal numbers of brown and white rabbits
b)
There will be more brown rabbits that white rabbits
c)
There will be more white rabbits than brown rabbits
d)
There is no way to predict what will happen to the rabbit population
17.
When has speciation occurred?
a)

When populations no longer look the same

b)

When populations no longer have the same frequency of alleles

c)

When populations are living in different environments

d)

When populations can no longer interbreed

18.

Someone steps on some bugs and randomly removes their alleles from the population. This is an example of

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

speciation

d)

allele frequency

19.
a)

Stabilizing Selection

b)

Directional Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

20.
a)

Stabilizing Selection

b)

Directional Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

21.
a)

Directional Selection

b)

Stabilizing Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

22.
a)

Directional Selection

b)

Stabilizing Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

23.
a)

Directional Selection

b)

Disruptive Selection

c)

Stabilizing Selection

24.
a)

Stabilizing Selection

b)

Directional Selection

c)

Disruptive Selection

25.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
26.

All the possible gene combinations in a population.

a)

allele

b)

gene pool

c)

genome

d)

mitosis

27.

61% accuracy: In rock pocket mice, for thousands of years the dominant fur color is lighter colored fur. Occasionally a mouse will be born with a change in the MC1R gene, which causes a darker fur color. This change is an example of a(n)...

a)

gene flow

b)

natural selection

c)

mutation

d)

artificial selection

28.

Theory suggesting eukaryotic cells evolved from larger prokaryotes that ingested smaller prokaryotes, forming symbiotic relationships.

a)

Abiogenesis

b)

Biogenesis

c)

Endosymbiosis

29.

Northern elephant seals have reduced genetic variation probably due to the effects humans inflicted on them in the 1890s. Hunting reduced their population size to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. What evolutionary concept is displayed in this example?

a)

Bottleneck Effect

b)

Founder Effect

c)

Directional Selection

d)

Frequency Dependent Selection

30.

Process by which unrelated organisms develop similarities due to living in similar environments

a)

family descent

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

convergent evolution

d)

divergent evolution

31.

Process by which closely related organisms develop differences due to living in different environments

a)

family descent

b)

survival of the fittest

c)

convergent evolution

d)

divergent evolution

32.

Researchers studying medium ground finches on the island of Daphne Major in the Galapagos Islands collected the data below on the survival rates of finches with different sized beaks over a three-year period that included a drought.

Which statement about the finches in this environment is best supported by the data?

a)

Finches with large beaks are more fit for the environment than finches with small beaks are

b)

Finches with large beaks had more genes than the other finches did.

c)

Finches with small beaks reproduce more quickly than finches with large beaks.

d)

Finches with medium beaks had more mutations than the other finches did.

33.
What does biodiversity mean?
a)
Only one species in an area.
b)
The different amount of species in an area
c)
All abiotic life
d)
Nitrogen fixation
34.
Biodiversity is the variety of ________ in a community.
a)
genes
b)
population
c)
species
d)
community
35.

Describes differences in DNA among individuals of a population or species.

a)

Subspecies

b)

Genetic Isolation

c)

Species Diversity

d)

Genetic Diversity

36.

Biodiversity is greater

a)

Near the poles

b)

In the Tundra

c)

In the desert

d)

Near the equator

37.
Which biome is more biodiverse?
a)
Desert
b)
Sand
c)
Tundra
d)
Rainforest
38.

A stable ecosystem typically has high biodiversity.

a)

True

b)

False

39.
Which human activity would be most destructive to the biodiversity of the biosphere?
a)
a. The burning of wood and coal in rural areas
b)
b. The release of species of freshwater trout in lakes
c)
c. The removal of plants from the food webs they support
d)
d. The removal of erosion barriers from forest boundaries
40.
Which of the following describes the importance of biodiversity to an ecosystem?
a)
a. People like to be able to see all the different plants and animals
b)
b. If there aren�t all the different species, there will be resources that aren�t being used
c)
c. Biodiversity is not as important as many people think
d)
d. Biodiversity can help minimize the effects of losing a species.
41.
a)

Prophase

b)

Interphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

42.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
43.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
44.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
45.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
46.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
47.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
48.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have -
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
49.

During what phase of the Cell Cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1 Phase

b)

Mitosis

c)

S Phase

d)

G2 Phase

50.

During what phase of the Cell Cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

G1 Phase

b)

Mitosis

c)

S Phase

d)

G2 Phase

51.

What makes up the SIDES of a DNA ladder?

a)

nitrogen bases

b)

Deoxyribose sugars & phosphates

c)

genes & chromosomes

d)

RNA

52.

What makes up the rungs (center) of a DNA ladder?

a)

sugars & phosphates

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

genes & chromosomes

53.

What is DNA made up of?

a)

nucleotides

b)

cytoplasm

c)

RNA

d)

cells

54.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
55.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
56.

Choose the correct complementary nucleotide sequence for the following:

GGG - ACT - TTT

a)

CCC - TGA - AAA

b)

AAA - CAG - GGG

c)

TTT - CAT - GGG

d)

GGG - TGA - CCC

57.

The picture below shows the steps of DNA replication beginning with step one and ending with step three.


​Because you are reusing the old, or parent, DNA strand DNA replication is said to be

a)

Semi- Conservative

b)

Semi-discontinuous

c)

Continuous

d)

Fully-Conserveative

58.
Which two processes are involved in protein synthesis?
a)
Replication and Transcription
b)
Replication and Translation
c)
Transcription and Translation
59.
Which of the following molecules is made during transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
protein
d)
mRNA
60.
Which of the following bases is found only in RNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Thymine
d)
Uracil
61.
Which form of RNA carries amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosome?
a)
amino RNA
b)
ribosomal RNA
c)
transfer RNA
d)
messenger RNA
62.
What are the three base segments of mRNA called?
a)
anticodons
b)
codons
c)
triplets
63.

Proteins are chains of amino acids bonded together. Which is the correct sequence for making proteins?

a)

Information is DNA is transferred into RNA and then made into protein

b)

Information in DNA is formed into protein directly.

c)

Information in RNA mutates into DNA and then is made into protein

d)

Information in RNA uses thermal energy to make protein

64.

A change in a DNA sequence(order) that affects genetic information.

a)

Recessive trait

b)

Mutation

c)

Allele

65.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
66.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
67.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
68.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
69.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

70.

What type of mutation involves substituting a DNA base with a different base but still forms the same protein?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

71.

What type of mutation involves adding or deleting bases from the DNA, which results in new codons (a shift in the reading of the codons)?

a)

point mutation

b)

frameshift mutation

c)

silent mutation

d)

chromosomal mutation

72.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GAC TCG AAT

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation

d)

No mutation occurred

73.

Original DNA = TAC GAC TTG AAT

Mutated DNA = TAC GTA CTT GAA T

What type of mutation has occurred?

a)

Chromosomal mutation

b)

Point mutation

c)

Frameshift mutation due to adding extra base

d)

Frameshift mutation due to deletion of base

74.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

75.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

76.

What type of chromosomal mutation occurred?

a)

chromosomal insertion/duplication

b)

chromosomal deletion

c)

chromosomal inversion

d)

chromosomal translocation

77.

Match the following

a)

Mutation

1.

a change in the DNA sequence

b)

Point mutation

2.

a type of mutation where one to few bases are substituted with different bases

c)

Frameshift mutation

3.

a type of mutation caused by adding or deleting bases, affecting all the codons after the change

d)

Silent mutation

4.

a type of mutation that doesn't result in a change in the amino acid sequence (same protein)

e)

Chromosomal mutation

5.

a type of mutation where large sections of the chromosome are affected

78.

What process is being represented in this diagram?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

mitosis

c)

meiosis

d)

DNA replication

79.

If an egg cell of an organism contains 12 chromosomes, how many chromosomes should be present in a heart cell of the same organism?

a)

12

b)

24

c)

6

d)

48

80.

What is a gamete?

a)

a body cell (ex. skin or heart cell)

b)

an autosome

c)

a sex cell (ex. sperm or egg)

d)

a somatic cell

81.

How many chromosomes does a sex cell have compared to a body cell?

a)

twice as many

b)

the same amount

c)

the same, but replicated

d)

half as many

82.

A diploid pea plant cell contains 14 chromosomes. How many chromsomes would be in a haploid pea plant cell?

a)

28

b)

14

c)

7

d)

21

83.

What is the purpose of meiosis?

a)

growth

b)

repair

c)

reproduction

d)

to create identical cells

84.

What is the purpose of mitosis?

a)

growth and repair

b)

reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

to create unique cells

85.

Different forms of a gene

a)

allele

b)

genotype

c)

phenotype

86.

The physical look of a trait

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

allele

d)

Mendelian inheritance

87.
If green is dominant over purple, then what is the genotype for this individual?
a)
Purple
b)
Green
c)
GG
d)
gg
88.
A heterozygous long-tusked elephant is crossed with a homozygous recessive short-tusked elephant. What is the probability of the offspring having short tusks?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
89.

In Anaphase I, the _________ are separated by the pulling of the spindle fibers to opposite poles of the cell.

a)

homologous pairs of chromosomes

b)

sister chromatids

c)

centromeres

d)

centrosomes

90.

In Anaphase II, the _________ separate.

a)

Homologues

b)

Sister Chromatids

c)

Tetrads

d)

Centrioles

91.

If your genotype is Bb, then you can only pass a B or b separately to your child but you can't pass both.

a)

Law of Dominance

b)

Law of Segregation

c)

Law of Independent Assortment

92.
Which of Mendel’s laws BEST explains why an organism with a heterozygous genotype will show a dominant phenotype?
a)
Law of Dominance
b)
Law of Segregation
c)
Law of Independent Assortment
d)
Law of Inheritance
93.

A white mouse with red eyes is crossed with a black mouse with brown eyes. The white mouse is recessive for both of its traits. The black mouse is dominant for both of its traits.

This cross would be

a)

BBEE x bbee

b)

BBEe x BbEe

c)

BbEE x BbEe

d)

BBee x BBEE

94.
incomplete dominance means that there traits are,,,
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
95.

What pattern of inheritance is shown in this image?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Complete dominance

96.

There are many different alleles for fur color in cats. What is this an example of?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Traits

97.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
98.

Which genetic engineering technique allows us to produce multiple, identical copies of a single gene?

a)

Cloning

b)

PCR

c)

Gene Therapy

d)

CRISPR

99.

Undifferentiated cells that can become any cell in the body are called...

a)

Stem Cells

b)

Somatic Cells

c)

Gametes

d)

Zygotes

100.

Which genetic engineering technique separates DNA fragments based on their size?

a)

PCR

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Gene Cloning

d)

CRISPR

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