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Worksheets

PRJM 62-120

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a sprint review?

a)

A problem review meeting

b)

A live demonstration meeting

c)

A status meeting

d)

A development team peer-to-peer meeting

2.

Are customers invited to the sprint review?

a)

No. Only the development team, the scrum master, and the product owner participate

b)

Yes. The product owner and scrum master meet with the customer

c)

No. Only the development team and scrum master participate

d)

Yes. The development team, product owner, scrum master, stakeholders, and customers are invited to participate

3.

Select the correct statement regarding the sprint retrospective

a)

It is an opportunity for the product owner to give the team feedback

b)

It is an opportunity for team members to reflect on the sprint and speak freely about it

c)

It is an opportunity for the scrum master to evaluate the team

d)

It is an opportunity for the team to reflect on the scope of the project

4.

Which of the following is a key question to ask during the sprint retrospective?

a)

What should we change going forward?

b)

How can we maintain our velocity going forward?

c)

Do we have healthy team members?

d)

What is our team’s story point average?

5.

Select the statement that describes an end of sprint activity.

a)

Give developers credit for finished stories, but not for unfinished stories

b)

Adjust your current milestone and your velocity charts

c)

Move stories from the done column to the closed column

d)

Move unfinished stories to the next sprint

6.

What do development team members do daily?

a)

They take a story that Is assigned to them

b)

They take the story most suited to them

c)

They take as many stories as they can reasonable work on

d)

They take the next highest priority story from the sprint backlog

7.

What is the main purpose of the daily stand-up?

a)

For the development team members to each briefly report on their work

b)

To give a project status for the product owner

c)

To catch up on topics that have been previously tabled

d)

For the product owner to answer questions

8.

What are the three key questions each team member answers at the daily standup meeting?

a)

What help does the product owner need? The scrum master? The development team members?

b)

What are the key tasks? What is causing blocks? How do we unblock?

c)

What did I do yesterday? What will I do today? Am I blocked?

d)

How many stories do we have? How many can we do? What is blocking us?

9.

What is a burndown chart?

a)

A chart for measuring progress against a milestone

b)

A measurement of story points completed vs. story points remaining for a sprint

c)

A chart that helps forecast the team’s ability to achieve the sprint goal

d)

All of the above

10.

What is the difference between vanity metrics and actionable metrics?

a)

Actionable metrics may sound good, but do not provide useful data; while vanity metrics tell you what to do

b)

Vanity metrics have larger numbers than actionable metrics

c)

Actionable metrics tell you what to do, while vanity metrics do not provide specific guidance

d)

Vanity metrics are measured against a baseline, while actionable metric are just raw data

11.

Which of these metrics measure how quickly you recover from failure?

a)

Mean lead time

b)

Mean time to recovery

c)

Change failure rate

d)

Release frequency

12.

When a sprint finishes, how do you handle unimplemented stories?

a)

Move them into the next sprint

b)

Move them from sprint to sprint

c)

Modify them for the next sprint

d)

Move them to the top of the product backlog

13.

When a sprint finishes, how do you get ready for the next sprint?

a)

Close the stories assigned to the current sprint

b)

Move the unimplemented stories to the product backlog

c)

Close the current sprint milestone

d)

All of the above

14.

Who generally is responsible for writing user stories, and where are they placed when validated?

a)

The project owner is responsible for writing user stories, and they are placed in the product backlog when validated.

b)

The product owner is responsible for writing user stories, and they are placed in the requirements backlog when validated.

c)

The project manager is responsible for writing user stories, and they are placed in the requirements backlog when validated.

d)

The project manager is responsible for writing user stories, and they are placed in the product backlog when validated.

15.

Which of the following does the team generate which reflects tasks required to complete a user story?

a)

Requirements backlog

b)

Sprint backlog

c)

Product backlog

d)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

16.

Which of the following terms are deliverables from each iteration that are produced and delivered to the customer for feedback through a product demo or review?

a)

Product Entities

b)

Milestones

c)

Implements

d)

Insrements

17.

Which of the following statements about the monitoring and controlling process group is TRUE?

a)

The team is finalizing the risk register and preparing to present the project management plan to a sponsor.

b)

The team gained customer sign-off and is preparing to transition the final product to operations.

c)

The first deliverables were received and inspected, and a few minor defects were corrected.

d)

The project charter is complete, and the team is developing a stakeholder register. The project manager also schedules a pre-baseline presentation.

18.

The team develops all required deliverables and performs Quality Assurance functions to prevent defects. Which process group best fits the description?

a)

Initiating process group

b)

Planning process group

c)

Executing process group

d)

Closing process group

19.

Many project team members complain that the team is not proficient in using all systems and applications. The team feels training is needed. Which technology factor is being addressed?

a)

Urgency to share information

b)

Availability and reliability of technology

c)

Challenges in the project environment

d)

Ease of use

20.

A key stakeholder is unhappy with a project manager’s conflict resolution approach. The project manager pushed their viewpoint at the expense of the stakeholder. The stakeholder left feeling they had no say in the matter. What concept is shown in the scenario?

a)

Collaborate/Problem Solve

b)

Withdraw/Avoid

c)

Smooth/Accommodate

d)

Force/Direct

21.

Mary has a meeting with stakeholders. She emphasizes areas of agreement rather than differences. She postpones satisfying her needs to maintain harmony and relationships. What concept is shown in the scenario?

a)

Withdraw/Avoid

b)

Smooth/Accommodate

c)

Collaborate/Problem Solve

d)

Force/Direct

22.

The duty to understand the truth and act truthfully in our communications and in our conduct reflects which aspect of the Project Management Institute (PMI) Code of Ethics?

a)

Honesty

b)

Fairness

c)

Responsibility

d)

Respect

23.

.A project manager is sending communications to one or multiple parties and will not receive any acknowledgment that the communications were read or understood. What communications method is this project manager using?

a)

Non-Verbal communications

b)

Pull communications

c)

Interactive communications

d)

Push communications

24.

The communications management plan is complete, and the project manager moves the project to the executing phase or process group. On what process does the project management team now focus?

a)

Manage communications

b)

Monitor communications

c)

Control communications

d)

Plan Communications

25.

The communications management plan is complete, and the project manager moves the project to the executing phase or process group. On what process does the project management team now focus?

a)

Manage communications

b)

Monitor communications

c)

Control communications

d)

Plan Communications

26.

A project manager uses a conflict resolution technique that is not optimal but often necessary. Each party receives something but must give up something in return. This technique may lead to buyer's remorse. Which of the following techniques is described?

a)

Withdraw/Avoid

b)

Smooth/Accommodate

c)

Compromise/Reconcile

d)

Collaborate/Problem Solve

27.

Ram uses a conflict management technique that incorporates multiple viewpoints and shows a cooperative attitude to solve the conflict. Ram wants to strive for consensus and commitment. Which of the following techniques is Ram using in the scenario?

a)

Force/Direct

b)

Withdraw/Avoid

c)

Smooth/Accommodate

d)

Collaborate/Problem Solve

28.

Which role and responsibility would not be a consideration when implementing a predictive project?

a)

Responsibility

b)

Honesty

c)

Fairness

d)

Respect

29.

You are communicating with a stakeholder with high power and low interest in the project. Which strategy is most appropriate to manage and engage with this customer?

a)

Keep informed

b)

Keep satisfied

c)

Manage closely

d)

Monitor

30.

Which of the following documents can a project manager use to define current and desired stakeholder commitment levels and develop strategies to adjust the commitment levels?

a)

Stakeholder register

b)

Stakeholder engagement plan

c)

Team charter

d)

Communications management plan

31.

.A project management trainer describes key strategies to attain desired levels of stakeholder commitment. Which two strategies should be on the trainer’s list?

a)

Engage stakeholders when planning is complete

b)

Share well-defined and value-added project objectives

c)

Share the scope, schedule, and budget recommendations before project management planning is complete

d)

Stress that communication is 75% of a project manafer’s job

32.

A project manager must define and document ground rules and norms to guide the team’s behavior. Which tool is best to achieve this goal?

a)

Team norms sheet

b)

Business case

c)

Team charter

d)

Project charter

33.

Which of the following is a common method project managers use to define stakeholder responsibilities?

a)

ARCI

b)

RACI

c)

ACRI

d)

IACR

34.

Which of the following best describes the closing process group?

a)

The team is developing all required deliverables and performing Quality Assurance functions to prevent defects

b)

The team is finalizing the risk register and preparing to present the project management plan to a sponsor

c)

The team receives and inspects the first deliverables.

d)

The team has gained customer sign-off and is preparing to transition the final product to operations

35.

Which of the following best describes the initiating process group?

a)

The project charter is complete, the team is developing a stakeholder register, and the project manager schedules a pre-baseline presentation

b)

The team is finalizing the risk register and preparing to present the project management plan to a sponsor

c)

The first deliverables were received and inspected. A few minor defects were corrected

d)

The team gained customer sign-off and is preparing to transition the final product to operations

36.

Who writes user stories, and where do they place them when validated?

a)

The project manager writes user stories and places them in the product backlog

b)

The product owner writes user stories and places them in the requirements backlog

c)

The project owner writes user stories and places them in the product backlog

d)

The project manager writes user stories and places them in the requirements backlog

37.

The project team is building high-priority deliverables for the project. In what phase of the project are they performing critical quality assurance activities to ensure the team follows standards and prevents potential defects?

a)

The closing phase

b)

The planning phase

c)

The monitoring and controlling

d)

The executing phase

38.

Tomorrow is a big day. The project sponsor has just approved the project, and the project manager is building an agenda for a kick-off meeting. In which of the following phases does the kick-off meeting occur?

a)

The monitoring and controlling phase

b)

The executing phase

c)

The planning phase

d)

The closing phase

39.

Which two documents does the project manager complete during the project initiation phase?

a)

Project charter

b)

Communications management plan

c)

Stakeholder register

d)

Risk register

40.

Which of the following are the two most common lifecycle categories project managers use in project management?

a)

Lean

b)

Adaptive

c)

Six Sigma

d)

Predictive

41.

A product owner meets with a key customer and determines their requirements. The project manager documents these requirements in the form of user stories. Where will these user stories be held for implementation?

a)

Requirements log

b)

User story backlog

c)

Product backlog

d)

Sprint backlog

42.

A project manager reviews key documents created in the initiating phase or process group. Which two documents should not be part of this review?

a)

Project management plan

b)

Stakeholder register

c)

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

d)

Project charter

43.

The sponsor approves the project charter, and planning is underway. Which of the following baselines is the first planning target to complete and gain approval and acceptance of?

a)

Scope baseline

b)

Cost baseline

c)

Schedule baseline

d)

Quality baseline

44.

The primary focus of the project executing phase is the production of which of the following?

a)

Final product

b)

Milestones

c)

Deliverables

d)

Reports

45.

Your team receives a deliverable and is about to transfer it to quality control. What is not true about quality control?

a)

The quality control team ensures the project team corrects defects before the customer acquires the product

b)

The primary focus of quality control is to prevent defects from occurring

c)

The quality control team uses inspections to determine if the deliverable meets specifications

d)

The quality control team performs the process in the monitoring and controlling phase

46.

A project manager receives a verified deliverable. Which of the following steps should be taken next?

a)

The project manager closes out all contracts immediately

b)

The project manager transitions the product for further processing

c)

The project manager validates scope to gain acceptance

d)

The project manager updates the project status and informs the project sponsor

47.

A project manager conducts lessons learned sessions with the project team. Which of the following questions does not need to be addressed?

a)

What could have gone better?

b)

What are the next steps?

c)

What can be improved?

d)

What went well?

48.

Which of the following models does the product backlog follow?

a)

The Scrum Model

b)

The Waterfall Model

c)

The DEEP Model

d)

The Agile Model

49.

The communications model illustrates communications from the sender's message to the receiver's receipt. Which of the following is the most challenging aspect of this model?

a)

Noise

b)

Acknowledgement

c)

Feedback channels

d)

Medium selection

50.

The project is progressing. What are two documents that will require updates to maintain currency throughout the project?

a)

Project charter

b)

Communications management plan

c)

Business case

d)

Stakeholder register

51.

A project manager is reviewing the communications model. Which challenge will be the most difficult to manage?

a)

Choice of medium

b)

Proper encoding

c)

Feedback channels

d)

Communication blockers

52.

A project to repave a parking area to accommodate increased customer traffic listed weather as a risk. The team believes there is a way to predict severe weather before it occurs. These include weather reports, radar, and line of sight. Which term are these early warning signs defining?

a)

Warning

b)

Notice

c)

Trigger

d)

Caution

53.

A risk owner developed a risk response that increases the number of materials ordered to guard against shortages. A functional manager stated that the extra materials would cost about $10k. The risk owner proposes a material increase to mitigate the risk of incurring $5k in teamwork stoppages. The cost of this response exceeds the risk it is meant to prevent. What type of risk is this scenario describing?

a)

Added risk

b)

Residual risk

c)

Secondary risk

d)

Primary risk

54.

Which two statements are accurate when defining a project risk management approach?

a)

Risk management begins as soon as the project charter is approved

b)

The project manager includes an overall strategy to perform risk management in the risk register.

c)

Risk scores may change as a project progress

d)

Risk owners are primarily responsible for managing individual risks

55.

What is the project charter? *chat gpt

a)

A document outlining project risks

b)

A formal document defining project objectives, scope, and stakeholders

c)

A tool for tracking project expenses

d)

A schedule of project milestones

56.

Select all project management process groups (multiple options). *chat gpt

a)

Initiating

b)

Planning

c)

Executing

d)

Monitoring and Controlling

e)

Closing

57.

Burndown charts are used for? *chat gpt

a)

Tracking project expenses

b)

Identifying project stakeholders

c)

Monitoring project progress over time

d)

Assessing project risks

58.

Assessing project risks Select which security requirements should be taken into account when managing projects *chat gpt

a)

Access control

b)

Stakeholder identification

c)

Risk assessment

d)

Data encryption

e)

Change management

59.

Select what attack vectors exist for PM? (Sever variants) *chat gpt

a)

Social engineering

b)

Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

c)

credential theft

d)

vulnerability exploits

e)

insufficient protection against insider threats.

60.

What are the risk management strategies? (Several variants) *chat gpt

a)

Risk avoidance

b)

Risk acceptance

c)

Risk delegation

d)

Risk mitigation

e)

Risk transfer