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Worksheets

Y10 CS EOY_Phy

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 3hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following apparatus is used to measure the volume of liquid?

a)

Stopwatch

b)

Thermometer

c)

Measuring cylinder

2.

what is the area for this surface?

a)

9 cm2

b)

4 cm2

c)

20 cm2

d)

5 cm2

3.

what is the volume of the rock?

a)

10 ml

b)

30 ml

c)

40 ml

d)

70 ml

4.
How much water is in the graduated cylinder
a)
40
b)
30
c)
35
d)
36
5.
What is the length of the straw?
a)
8 cm 
b)
0 cm 
c)
7 cm 
d)
1 cm 
6.

What is the basic unit of length in the metric system?

a)

gram

b)

meter

c)

Liter

d)

cm3

7.

  1. 1. An example of scalar magnitude is _____.

a)

mass

b)

force

c)

acceleration

d)

velocity

8.
Find the distance Sara walks from A to B,  B to C then C to D?
a)
11m
b)
3m
c)
5m
d)

8m

9.
Which of the following quantities are vectors?
a)
speed, velocity, acceleration
b)
velocity, acceleration, force
c)
force, acceleration, mass
d)
length, mass, time
10.

A (a)   is a quantity that has magnitude but no direction.

11.

A vehicle travels 2345 m in 315 s toward the evening sun. What is its speed?

a)

7.44 m/s

b)

0.13 m/s

c)

738,675 m/s

d)

7.44m

12.

What distance will a car traveling 65 km/hr travel in 180 min?

a)

11,700 m

b)

195 m

c)

21.7 m

d)

2.77 m

13.
A description of the speed and direction of an object's motion
a)
Velocity
b)
Speed
c)
Acceleration
d)
Vector
14.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
15.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
16.
Which of the following is a unit for acceleration?
a)
km/s
b)
m/s2
c)
mi/hr
d)
ft
17.

A helicopters speed increases from 25 m/s to 60 m/s in 5 seconds. What is the acceleration of this helicopter?

a)

-7 m/ss

b)

7 m/s2

c)

35 m/s2

d)

-35 m/s2

18.

How do you calculate average speed?

a)

total distance / total time

b)

total time / total distance

c)

total distance x total time

d)

total distance x total time

19.

Match the graph to the description:

"The car is traveling at a constant speed."

a)
b)
c)
d)
20.

Match the graph to the description:

"The car is accelerating speeding up (positive acceleration)."

a)
b)
c)
d)
21.

Segment A-B: The bus is moving at a _________________ of 10 m/s for 5 seconds.

a)

accelerating

b)

decelerating

c)

constant speed

d)

at rest

22.

Segment B-C: The bus is _________________. It is slowing down from 10 m/s rest in 3 seconds.

a)

accelerating

b)

decelerating

c)

constant speed

d)

at rest

23.

Segment C-D: The bus is _________________. It has stopped.

a)

accelerating

b)

decelerating

c)

constant speed

d)

at rest

24.

A negative acceleration means that your object is _____.

a)

doing nothing

b)

moving in circles

c)

speeding up

d)

slowing down

25.

Describe the motion in the graph:

a)

Constant Speed (positive slope)

b)

Stopped (at rest)

c)

Acceleration (increasing speed)

d)

Return Home (negative slope)

26.

How do you find the speed from a distance-time graph?

a)

Find the area under the graph

b)

Find the gradient of the line

c)

Read the height of the graph

27.

Which line shows the slower pace?

a)

dashed line

b)

solid line

28.

In which of the following graphs below are both runners moving at the same speed?

a)
b)
c)
d)
29.

How do you find the distance travelled from a speed-time graph?

a)

Find the gradient

b)

Find the area under the graph

c)

Read the height of the graph

30.

How long is the train stopped for in total?

a)

5 minutes

b)

7.5 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

2.5 minutes

31.

Weight is an example of which quantity?

a)

acceleration

b)

force

c)

mass

d)

pressure

32.

The mass of an astronaut is 70kg on the Moon. What is the mass of the astronaut on the Earth?

a)

7kg

b)

70kg

c)

80kg

d)

700kg

33.

A student lifts a sack of mass 50 kg through a vertical distance of 2.4 m in 0.80 s.

The gravitational field strength g is 10N/kg.

What is the weight of the sack?

a)

500 kg

b)

500 N

c)

500 N/kg

d)

50 kg

34.

A pumpkin is dropped from a 35 m building. What is its initial velocity, u?

a)

9.8 m/s^2  

b)

35 m

c)

0 m/s

d)

9.8 m/s

35.

Free fall is any motion of a body where ____ is the only force acting upon it.

a)

body attraction

b)

tension

c)

gravity

d)

velocity

36.

The acceleration of a freely falling body on Earth is

a)

9.8 m/s.

b)

9.8 m.

c)

9.8 m/s2.

d)

9.8 s.

37.

What causes an object to sink in a water?

a)

if the object's density is less than the water's density.

b)

if the object's density is the same as water's density.

c)

if the object's density is greater than water's density.

d)

if the object's density is zero

38.

What is the formula for Volume?

a)

Mass/Volume

b)

Density x Volume

c)

Mass/Density

39.
Which box has a greater density?  
a)
Box A
b)
Box B
40.
What is the density of a liquid that has a mass of 27g and a volume of 30ml?
a)
0.9 g/ml
b)
3 g/ml
c)
57 g/ml
d)
810 g/ml
41.
What is the volume of 150 grams of lead if it has a density of 11.3 g/cm3?
a)
13.3 g
b)
13.3 cm3
c)
.075 g
d)
1695 cm3
42.

What is the formula for density?

a)

d=mvd=\frac{m}{v}  

b)

d=vmd=\frac{v}{m}  

c)

d=m⋅vd=m\cdot v  

d)

d=m+vd=m+v  

43.

If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s2, how much force was applied to the object?

a)

150 Newtons

b)

15 Newtons

c)

150 kilograms

d)

100 kilograms

44.
A force of 90N is applied to each cart below, which one will accelerate the fastest?
a)
Cart 1
b)
Cart 2
c)
Cart 3 
d)
Cart 4
45.
A force of 250 N is applied to an object that accelerates at a rate of 5 m/s2.  What is the mass of the object? To solve this problem you must do - 
a)
250 ÷ 5
b)
5 ÷ 250
c)
250 x 5
46.
What is 'drag' another name for?
a)
dressing up
b)
air resistance
c)
friction
d)
weight
47.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
48.
In a tug of war the left team pulls with a force of 200N. The right team pulls with a force of 150N.What is the resultant force?
a)
50N to the left.
b)
350N to the left.
c)
350N to the right.
d)
50N to the right.
49.

What is the resultant force?

a)

400 N, Up

b)

400 N, Down

c)

800 N, Up

d)

800 N, Down

50.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
51.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
52.
The force that opposes the motion of two surfaces sliding past each other is called ___________.
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
friction
d)
unbalanced
53.

The head of an arrow represent the __________ of force.

a)

strength

b)

length

c)

direction

54.

If forces on an object are unbalanced, it will _______

a)

make the object to move or change direction.

b)

make it move at same speed.

c)

it will remain still.

55.
Are forces balanced or unbalanced when a car is moving at a constant speed in a straight line?
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
56.

What is the resultant/ net force?

a)

30 N left

b)

25 N right

c)

5 N left

d)

55 N right

57.
If F is force, k is spring constant and x is extension, Hooke's Law tells us that:
a)
F=k/x
b)
x=Fk
c)
k=Fx
d)
F=kx
58.
Hooke's Law fails when a material reaches its:
a)
breakdown
b)
elastic limit
c)
end of tether
d)
fracture stress
59.
A spring has a spring constant of 5N/cm.  What is its extension when loaded with 15N?
a)
4cm
b)
5cm
c)
3m
d)
3cm
60.

At point P, _______.

a)

the force applied to the spring is equal to its elongation

b)

Hooke's Law ceases to be valid

c)

the spring is can be stretched but still springs back into shape reversibly

d)

the spring constant increases

61.

When comparing spring A to B,

a)

A has a larger spring constant than B so A is a stiffer spring

b)

B has a larger spring constant than A so A is a stiffer spring

c)

A has a larger spring constant than B so B is a stiffer spring

d)

B has a larger spring constant than A so B is a stiffer spring

62.

the extension of a spring is ___________ to the force applied on the spring.

a)

directly proportional

b)

inversely proportional

63.
Give the units for a Force?
a)
a) J
b)
b) N
c)
c) Kg
d)
d) m
64.

Find moment at A

a)

24 kNm

b)

240000 Nm

c)

16 kNm

d)

29000 Nm

65.

Moment (Nm) =

a)

Force (N) x distance (m)

b)

Angular Force (N°) x distance (m)

c)

Work done (J)

d)

Force (N) x distance (s)

66.
What is the moment produced by the 15 N?
a)
15 Nm (clockwise)
b)
150 Nm (anti - clockwise)
c)
1.5 Nm (anti - clockwise)
d)
0.15 Nm (clockwise)
67.

A boy of weight 600N sits on the see-saw as shown at a distance of 1.5m from the pivot. What is the force F required at the other end to balance the see-saw?

a)

450 N

b)

350 N

c)

4.5 N

d)

200 N

68.

What to we call forces applied to anything that turns?

a)

Minute

b)

Moment

c)

Minimum

d)

Monument

69.

The point through which the whole weight of the body acts is called

a)

Inertial Point

b)

Center of gravity

c)

Centriod

d)

Central point

70.

Center of gravity of an object depends on it's

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

density

d)

shape

71.

The diagrams show four solid cones. The centre of mass of each cone is marked by a point labelled M.


Which cone is the most stable

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.
What is being transferred as you do work?
a)
Energy
b)
Heat
c)
Power
d)
Gravitational Potential Energy
74.
gravitational potential energy is defined as
a)
the energy an object has due to its height above the ground
b)
the energy an object has due to its motion
c)
the energy a spring has due to its stretch
d)
the chemical energy stored in the molecules of atoms
75.
What is the formula for Gravitational Potential Energy?
a)
PE = m*g*h
b)
KE = 1/2m*v2
c)
W = F*d
d)
P = W/t
76.

Where does the pendulum have the greatest kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

77.

Where does the pendulum have the greatest potential energy? (pick 2)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

78.

A weight-lifter raises a 2000N weight through a vertical height of 2.0m in 0.80s. What useful power does he develop in doing this?

a)

800 W

b)

700W

c)

4000W

d)

5000W

79.

Two people shove on a wall with 100 N. The wall doesn’t move. How much work is done?

a)

100J

b)

100N

c)

0J

d)

0N

80.

If 40N of force is applied to Rollo Koster's 10 kg cart over a distance of 50 meters, how much work is done?

a)

8000J

b)

8000N

c)

4000J

d)

2000J

81.

There is a 190 kg bell at the top of a tower that is 45 m high. How much GPE does it have?

a)

84000 J

b)

8600 J

c)

820,000 J

82.

What is the correct unit for energy?

a)

meters (m)

b)

kilogram meters per second (kg m/s)

c)

Newtons (N)

d)

Joules (J)

83.
The faster an object moves, the ________ kinetic energy it has. 
a)
more
b)
less
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
84.

Lilly's cat ran through your yard. The cat has a mass of 5 kg. He is running at a speed of 3 m/s. What is the kinetic energy of the cat as he runs? (KE = 1/2mv2)

a)

8.5 J

b)

45 J

c)

7.5 J

d)

22.5 J

85.

At which position does the child on the swing have the most gravitational potential energy?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

Z

86.

What is the power output of a lightbulb that uses 300 Joules of energy in 60 seconds?

a)

5 Watts

b)

360 Watts

c)

60 Watts

d)

300 Watts

87.

An oven uses 400 J of electricity to produce 300 J of heat. How efficient is it?

a)

133 %

b)

75 %

c)

300 %

d)

.75 %

88.

What is the equation for energy efficiency?

a)

inputuseful out × 100\frac{input}{useful\ out}\ \times\ 100

b)

useful outputinput× 100\frac{useful\ output}{input}\times\ 100

c)

useful outinput\frac{useful\ out}{input}

d)

wastefulinput ×100\frac{wasteful}{input\ }\times100

89.

An oven uses energy to produce heat, light, and sound. If it produces 400 J of heat, 75 J of light, and 50 J of sound, how much input energy did it have?

a)

400 J

b)

500 J

c)

525 J

d)

375 J

90.

Which of the following energy types is not a fossil fuel?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Geothermal

c)

Petroleum

d)

Coal

91.

Which is a negative aspect of the use of petroleum?

a)

It is extracted at a low cost.

b)

It can be easily transported

c)

It produces hazardous substances.

d)

Petroleum is used in many products.

92.

Which is a renewable source of energy?

a)

Uranium

b)

Coal

c)

Waves

d)

Oil

93.

Which non-renewable resource produces the most air pollution?

a)

nuclear energy

b)

wind energy

c)

solar energy

d)

coal

94.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

95.

Which type of renewable energy uses heat from deep within the earth?

a)

Wind

b)

Solar

c)

Geothermal

d)

Biomass

96.
What pressure does a 4000N horse exert on the ground if each foot is 10cm2?
a)
40 N/cm2
b)
100 N/cm2
c)
400 N/cm2
d)
10 N/cm2
97.

A cardboard box weighs 30N. If we added weight to the box, what would happen to the pressure?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

stay the same

98.

How has this change affected the force and the pressure exerted by the block on the table?

a)

force=decreased

pressure = decreased

b)

force=decreased

pressure = Unchanged

c)

force=unchanged

pressure = decreased

d)

force=unchanged

pressure = unchanged

99.

Four physics teachers investigate pressure. They wear identical clothes and lie on different beds of nails.

The table gives the weight of each teacher and the total area of contact between the teacher and the nails.

Which teacher experiences the least pressures from the nails?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

100.
At higher temperatures
a)
particles in an object have less energy
b)
particles in an object move faster
c)
a gas contracts
101.

Freezing

a)

Solid to gas

b)

Liquid to solid

c)

Gas to solid

102.

Particles in a ______________________ move quickly and are far apart.

a)

gas

b)

solid

c)

liquid

103.

The slower the particles in a substance move,

a)

the colder it is.

b)

the warmer it is.

c)

the more energy it has.

104.
The temperature of a substance increases as___.
a)
the substance expands
b)
the average kinetic energy of its particles increases
c)
the substance's volume increases
d)
the substance's mass increases
105.

During boiling, the particles move ______________ and freely to overcome force of attraction.

a)

static

b)

faster

c)

slower

106.

The melting point of the sample is

a)

-60 ºC

b)

-100 ºC

c)

60 ºC

d)

100 ºC

107.

What phase of matter exists in part C of the graph?

a)

Gas

b)

Liquid

c)

Solid

d)

Plasma

108.
As substance goes from D to E what happens to the distance between the particles?
a)
particles get closer together
b)
particles disappear
c)
particles get far apart
109.
How can we increase the gas pressure inside a sealed container?
a)
Increase the number of particles inside the container
b)
Increase the temperature
c)
Decrease the volume of the container
d)
All of these
110.

The pressure inside the balloon will:

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

Remain the same

d)

Not enough information to formulate an answer

111.

What happened to the volume between the two steps?

a)

Volume increased

b)

Volume decreased

c)

Volume stayed the same

112.

Pollen grains suspended in water exhibit Brownian motion. How does a particle undergoing Brownian motion move?

a)

In smooth curves

b)

Randomly

c)

Orderly with a pattern

d)

In straight lines with no change of direction

113.
3. Identify the states of matter where Brownian Motion can occur.
a)
a) Solid, liquid, gas
b)
b) Liquid, gas
c)
c) Solid, gas
d)
d) Solid, liquid
114.

Very small pollen grains are suspended in a beaker of water. A bright light shines from the side. Small, bright dots of light are seen through a microscope. The dots move in rapidly changing, random directions. What are the bright dots?

a)

pollen grains being hit by other pollen grains

b)

pollen grains being hit by water molecules

c)

water molecules being hit by other water molecules

d)

water molecules being hit by pollen grains

115.
What is the difference between particles in a gas and a solid?
a)
gas particles are closer together
b)
solid particles move faster than gas particles
c)
solid particles expand on heating
d)
gas particles have more kinetic energy than solid particles
116.

Gas pressure is caused by

a)

Gas molecules heating up

b)

Gas molecules reacting with other gas molecules

c)

Gas molecules hitting the walls of a container

d)

Gas molecules hitting other gas molecules

117.
Objects gain heat and _________. 
a)
expand
b)
contract
118.

When temperature increases, distance between molecules ______________.

a)

decreases

b)

increases

c)

stays the same

119.
When objects contract upon cooling...
a)
volume increases and density increases.
b)
volume increases and density decreases.
c)
volume decreases and density decreases.
d)
volume decreases and density increases.
120.
Alex noticed that a metal door that sticks on hot days does not stick when it cools off at night. This is because the metal contracts as it cools. The reason for this is that, as the metal cools, the atoms:
a)
become smaller and take up less space
b)
 slow down and move closer together
c)
merge together to form fewer atoms
d)
speed up and move farther apart
121.

Is the following statement true or false?


An object that expands more when heated, will also contract more when the temperature is reduced

a)

True

b)

False

122.

What effect does Evaporation cause ?

a)

Heating Effect

b)

Magnetic Effect

c)

Cooling Effect

d)

Warming Effect

123.

Which of the following factors thus affect evaporation ?

a)

Increase in Surface Area

b)

Increase in temperature

c)

Increase in Humidity

d)

Decrease in Wind speed

124.

At what temperature does evaporation take place?

a)

Freezing point

b)

Above melting point

c)

Below boiling point

d)

At heating point

125.

Evaporation happens

a)

throughout the liquid

b)

at the surface of a liquid

126.
From 30 degrees to 55 degrees, what state of matter is the substance?
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
d)
Plasma
127.

In a swimming pool, the water near the surface is slightly warmer. The temperature of the water near the top rises because of

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

Too many dogs being in the pool!

128.

A fireman that is at a building that is on fire feels a door and it is hot. Why does his hand feel hot?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

The Human Torch was on the other side!

129.

In heat transfer, heat always flows from the _______________ object to the _______________ object.

a)

hotter / colder

b)

colder / hotter

c)

hotter / hotter

d)

colder / colder

130.

Which best explains why a hot air balloon floats?

a)

The heated air expands to fill the balloon. The air in the balloon is now lighter than the surrounding air, causing the balloon to rise.

b)

The heated air expands to fill the balloon. The air in the balloon is now heavier than the surrounding air, causing the balloon to rise.

c)

The heated air contracts to fill the balloon. The air in the balloon is now denser than the surrounding air, causing the balloon to rise.

d)

The heated air contracts to fill the balloon. The air in the balloon is now lighter than the surrounding air, causing the balloon to rise.

131.
The warm air from this heater creates a current when the warm air rises and the cold air sinks.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
132.

When you use a microwave, what is the main way that heat is transferred?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

133.

which of the following surfaces is the best emitter of heat?

a)

Matt black

b)

Shiny White

c)

Shiny Silver

d)

Dark Purple

134.

What color is the best at reflecting the heat radiation?

a)

Matte black

b)

Shiny Silver

c)

Black

d)

Red

135.

Heat can transfer through vacuum only by (a)  

136.

A wave transfers _____.

a)
light
b)
matter
c)
energy
d)
sound
137.

Frequency is...

a)

.. the number of waves per second and measured in metres.

b)

the number of waves per second and measured in Volts...

c)

.. the number of waves per second and measured in hertz, Hz.

d)

.. the number of waves per minute and measured in hertz, Hz.

138.
Which letter is a crest?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
139.
Which letter shows amplitude?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
140.
Which wave has the highest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
141.

As the frequency of a wave increases, the period _____________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

142.

A wave with a wavelength of 2 cm has a frequency of 3 Hz. What is the wave speed?

a)

1.5 m/s

b)

2 m/s

c)

5 m/s

d)

6 m/s

143.

A wave has a frequency of 4 Hz. What is the period of the wave?

a)

0.25 seconds

b)

0.5 second

c)

1 seconds

d)

4 seconds

144.

What is the approximate wavelength of the wave in the image?

a)

1.5 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

9 cm

145.
This image is representing what wave interaction?
a)
Refraction
b)
Diffraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Interference
146.

What happens to the frequency of a wave as it passes through a gap？

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

No change

d)

None of above

147.
The ray of light that strikes a reflecting surface is called ________.
a)
incident ray
b)
reflected ray
c)
normal ray
d)
none of the above
148.
What is the line MN called in the given diagram
                               
a)
incident ray
b)
reflected ray
c)
reflecting surface
d)
normal
149.
If the angle of incidence is 45 degree, what is the angle between the incident ray and reflecting surface
a)
45
b)
90
c)
180
d)
none of the above
150.

The law of reflection states that

a)

Angle of incidence = Angle of reflection

b)

Angle of incidence = Angle of incidence

c)

Angle of reflection = Angle of translucence

d)

Angle of reflection = Angle of reflection