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Y9 PHYSICS REVISION

Total questions: 195

Worksheet time: 10hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
2.
Put the liquids in order from most dense to least dense?
a)
4, 3, 2, 1
b)
1, 2, 3, 4
c)
3, 4, 2, 1, 
d)
4, 3, 1, 2
3.
Why does ice float?
a)
Liquid water is less dense than solid water.
b)
Solid water is less dense than liquid water.
c)
Gaseous water is less dense than solid water.
d)
Liquid water is less dense than gaseous water.
4.
What units are used to measure Density?
a)
cm3/g
b)
g
c)
g/cm3
d)
cm3
5.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
6.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
7.
Look at this image.  Which object has the LOWEST density in water? How? 
a)
The Ping Pong Ball because it floats to the top 
b)
The bolt because it has sunk to the bottom
c)
The soda cap because it is not just full of air like the Ping Pong ball
8.
A brick sinks in water while a wooden block of the same size floats.  This is because the brick has a
a)
lower volume than the wooden block
b)
lower density than the wooden block
c)
higher volume than the wooden block
d)
higher density than the wooden block
9.
If you poured 3 liquids that do not mix how could you tell which one is the most dense?
a)
The liquid on top
b)
The liquid in the middle
c)
The liquid at the bottom
10.

What is the formula for Volume?

a)

Mass/Volume

b)

Density x Volume

c)

Mass/Density

11.

What is the formula for Mass?

a)

Mass/Volume

b)

Density x Volume

c)

Mass/Density

12.
Calculate the density of the cube.
a)
2 g/cm3
b)
4 g/cm3
c)
6 g/cm3
d)
8 g/cm3
13.
True or False:  The density of a specific type of material never changes.  
a)
True
b)
False
14.

What is mass?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

15.

What is volume?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

16.

What is density?

a)

The amount of space an object takes up

b)

The amount of matter in a given space

c)

The amount of matter in an object

17.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
18.
If an object has a density of 3.6 g/mL and you put it into water, will it sink or float?  
a)
sink
b)
float
19.
If an object has a density of .6 g/mL and you put it into water, will it sink or float?  
a)
sink
b)
float
20.

Lisa has a bottle of water. How can she increase the thermal energy of the water?

a)

She can pour the water into a larger bottle.

b)

She can increase the temperature of the water.

c)

She can place the bottle of water in the refrigerator.

d)

She can divide the water between tow identical containers.

21.

How does the thermal energy of the liquid in the larger beaker compare to the thermal energy of the liquid in the smaller beaker?

a)

The liquid in the larger beaker has less thermal energy than the liquid in the smaller beaker.

b)

The liquid in the larger beaker has more thermal energy than the liquid in the smaller beaker.

c)

The liquid in the larger beaker has the same amount of thermal energy as the liquid in the smaller beaker.

d)

The exact volume of the liquid in each beaker must be known to compare the thermal energy of the liquids.

22.

Which description defines heat?

a)

total thermal energy of an object or substance

b)

change in the temperature of a substance in degrees Celsius

c)

energy transferred between objects at different temperatures

d)

average kinetic energy of the particles that make up a substance

23.

How does heat affect the thermal energy of an object that is colder than the air that surrounds it?

a)

Heat decreases the thermal energy of an object as energy moves to the air.

b)

Heat causes the thermal energy of the object to increase as energy moves from the warmer air to the colder object.

c)

Heat has no effect on thermal energy, but it increases the potential energy of an object.

d)

Heat is not related to thermal energy, so it cannot affect the thermal energy of an object.

24.

Kito puts his spoon into a helping of fresh, hot, mashed potatoes as shown in the picture. Which process takes place when the objects come together?

a)

The temperature of the spoon increases, but its thermal energy does not change.

b)

Energy in the form of heat is transferred by conduction from the warmer mashed potatoes to the cooler spoon.

c)

The thermal energy of both the mashed potates and the spoon increase as the energy in the form of heat is transferred between them.

d)

The average temperature of the spoon does not change.

25.

As energy in the form of heat is added to an ice cube, it begins to melt. What causes melting.

a)

Heat causes the molecules to expanded and forces them apart.

b)

Heat removes thermal energy from the ice cube and causes it to become liquid water.

c)

Adding energy causes the bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen in the ice cube to break.

d)

The transfer of thermal energy to the ice cube causes its molecules to move faster.

26.

Ashton warms a pure, solid substance. He graphs the changes in temperature as shown in the figure below. What is happening as he warms the substance?

a)

molecules move more slowly

b)

molecules move more rapidly

c)

speed of the molecules in not changing

d)

molecules speed up than slow down

27.

Which example illustrate the transfer of energy through RADIATION?

a)

feeling warmth when you sit in a sunny place.

b)

feeling warm air while standing in front of the blower from a heating system.

c)

feeling the warmth of the bricks around a fireplace by touching them with your hand.

d)

feeling warmth on the soles of your feet when you walk along the beach on a sunny day.

28.

Which of these processes is the result of the motion of particles in a gas or liquid?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

insulation

d)

radiation

29.

Emily has a cup of hot cocoa on the counter to cool off so she can drink it safely. She watches the steam rise from the hot cocoa. Which type of thermal energy transfer is occurring as the steam rises into the surrounding air?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

transformation

30.

A fireplace warming the air in the room is and example of this type of heat transfer?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

transformation

31.

A toaster warms a bagel for breakfast. What type of thermal energy transfer is occuring?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

transformation

32.

Mrs. Plata likes to collect river rocks on her daily walk. She picked up a rock and placed it in her pocket. If the rock is 10 degrees Celsius and Mrs. Plata is 31 degrees Celsius, which of the following BEST describes the transfer of energy?

a)

Thermal energy will flow from Mrs. Plata to the rock.

b)

Thermal energy will flow from the rock to Mrs. Plata.

c)

Thermal energy will flow from Mrs. Plata into the air.

d)

Thermal energy will flow into the air and to the rock.

33.

When cold water is added slowly to warm water they will slowly blend over time evenly through the entire liquid. Which BEST explains the reason the heat moves throught the liquid?

a)

The densities of the liquids are similar.

b)

Cold liquids rise and hot liquids sink causing mixing.

c)

Molecules creates chemical bonds the help spread energy.

d)

Heat always moves from higer temperatures to lower temperatures.

34.

How does removing heat change the particles in a closed system?

a)

Particles move apart

b)

Particles slow down and break apart

c)

Particles move faster and potentially change phases

d)

Particles move slower and potentially change phases

35.

At room temperature water is a liquid. How could the water be changed to a solid?

a)

add heat

b)

remove heat

c)

decrease density

d)

increase density

36.

Using the picture. What was the change in the system?

a)

air was added to the system

b)

heat was added to the system

c)

water was added to the system

d)

particles were added to the system

37.

David is warming chocolate on the stove. How is the motion of the particles different after the temperature is increased?

a)

they move faster

b)

they move slower

c)

the move less freely

d)

they vibrate close together

38.

On a hot day the lake water warms and the temperature increases. How does the movement of the particles change?

a)

move slower and farther apart

b)

move slower and closer together

c)

move faster and farther apart

d)

move faster and closer together

39.

An ice cube is placed in a glass of water. Which of the following best explains the heat transfer?

a)

The thermal energy is moving from the ice cube into the water causing the temperature of the water to increase.

b)

The thermal energy is moving from the ice cube into the water causing the temperature of the water to decrease.

c)

The thermal energy is moving from the water to the ice cube causing the temperature of the water to increase.

d)

The thermal energy is moving from the water to the ice cube causing the temperature of the water to decrease.

40.
Energy can be created.
a)
True
b)
False
41.
Energy cannot be destroyed.
a)
True 
b)
False
42.
When something is dropped, what type of energy transfer takes place?
a)
Kinetic -> Potential
b)
Gravitational Potential -> Kinetic -> Sound
c)
Electrical -> Chemical
d)
Heat -> Nuclear
43.
Imagine dropping a basketball. When would it have the most gravitational potential energy?
a)
When it is closest to the ground
b)
When it is at the highest point
c)
When it is halfway down
d)
It has the same amount of gravitational PE at all points
44.
Food has _______ potential energy that our bodies transform into kinetic energy.
a)
Elastic
b)
Nuclear 
c)
Gravitational
d)
Chemical
45.
Energy is the ability _____________.
a)
to do work
b)
to power things
c)
to move objects
d)
to turn on a light
46.
According to the Law of Conservation of energy, the amount of energy before and after a reaction must be the same. Which statement below is true?
a)
The total amount of energy is conserved
b)
The total amount of energy is less after a reaction
c)
The total amount of energy is more after a reaction
47.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states:
a)
Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed 
b)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed
c)
Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed
48.
Potential or kinetic?
Stretched bow and arrow?
a)
kinetic
b)
potential
49.
Potential or kinetic?
Running?
a)
potential
b)
kinetic
50.

Thermal energy being transferred from a hot mug of cocoa to the table it is sitting on is an example of __________.

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

chemistry

51.

Which best explains how this roasting marshmallows happens?

a)

Heat from the fire is conducted to the marshmallow.

b)

Heat from the fire is radiated to the marshmallow.

c)

The coolness of the marshmallow is conducted to the fire.

d)

The coolness of the marshmallow is radiated to the fire.

52.

Which best describes heat transfer by radiation?

a)

A slice of bacon frying in a pan.

b)

A pot on a stove boiling water.

c)

Cooking a hotdog in a microwave.

d)

A hot air balloon.

53.

Which of the following best describes CONVECTION?

a)

When heat is transferred through waves.

b)

When heat is transferred through objects that are touching.

c)

The movement of gas or liquid in which warmer parts move up and the colder parts moves down.

54.

Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer.

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

55.

Walking on hot sand with your bare feet shows this type of heat transfer.

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

56.

Ironing a shirt is an example of:

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

conduction

d)

convection

57.

You and your friends are gathered around a campfire to keep warm. How is heat being transferred to you?

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

58.

This is the transfer of thermal energy through "space".

a)

conduction

b)

radiation

c)

convection

d)

spaceship

59.

What kind of heat transfer is occurring when the sun warms the sand?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

All of them

60.
Heat transfer in boiling water.
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
61.
An iron bar is placed in a flame, as shown, and is heated until the end glows.The other end of the iron bar soon becomes hot, too.  Which of the following statements best describes why the iron bar becomes hot to the touch?
a)

a convective flow of energy is set up inside the iron bar.

b)

energy is conducted from atom to atom along the length of the iron bar.

62.
Which material is the best conductor of heat?
a)
glass
b)
styrofoam
c)
metal
d)
wood
63.
The sun warming your skin is an example of heat transfer through 
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal electricity
64.

Which type of heat transfer is happening inside the hot air balloon?

a)

convection

b)

conduction

c)

radiation

d)

hot air balloon

65.

What effect does Evaporation cause ?

a)

Heating Effect

b)

Magnetic Effect

c)

Cooling Effect

d)

Warming Effect

66.

What happens when Acetone is poured on your palm ?

a)

The particles gain energy from acetone and evaporate

b)

The particles gain energy from the surroundings and evaporate

c)

The particles gain energy from the palm and evaporate

d)

The particles gain energy from the Palm or Surroundings and evaporate

67.

Sam kept some water out side in the sun next day he saw nothing in the glass what happen to the water?

a)

It disappeared

b)

It evaporated

c)

Magic

68.
Evaporation occurs when water changes into 
a)
transpiration
b)
snow
c)
solid
d)
vapor
69.

Evaporation is the change of state from ___________ to __________

a)

liquid to gas

b)

solid to liquid

c)

gas to liquid

70.

Evaporation takes place at any temperature

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Evaporation happens

a)

throughout the liquid

b)

at the surface of a liquid

72.

What happens when a liquid perfume is sprayed on your palm ?

a)

The liquid gain heat from the sanitizer and evaporate

b)

The liquid gain heat from the surroundings and evaporate

c)

The liquid gain heat from the palm and evaporate

d)

The liquid gain heat from the palm or surroundings and evaporate

73.

Evaporation is a process where _____________________

a)

liquid changes to gas

b)

throughout whole water

c)

on surface of water

d)

at any temperature

e)

at boiling point

74.

During evaporation, water molecules on the surface of water ___________________ from surroundings to move faster and then escapes into the air

a)

gain energy

b)

lose energy

c)

share energy

d)

produce energy

75.

At what temperature does evaporation take place?

a)

Freezing point

b)

Above melting point

c)

Below boiling point

d)

At heating point

76.

What effect does Evaporation cause ?

a)

Heating Effect

b)

Magnetic Effect

c)

Cooling Effect

d)

Warming Effect

77.

Which of the following sound wave produces the highest pitch of sound?

a)
b)
c)
d)
78.

Choose the correct statements. (2 answers)

a)

P - The loudness increases

b)

Q - The pitch decreases

c)

R - The loudness decreases

d)

S - The pitch increases

79.

The ____________ of sound is the number of sound vibrations generated in a second.

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

reflection

d)

absorption

80.

The __________ of a sound is the sharpness of a sound.

a)

loudness

b)

echo

c)

pitch

d)

vibration

81.

Diagram shows 3 types of sound waves generated from speaker. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

P has a higher pitch than Q

b)

Q has a higher pitch than R

c)

R has the highest pitch

d)

P, Q and R have the same pitch

82.

What will happen when the sound of siren of the ambulance comes closer to the observer?

a)

the pitch of sound increases

b)

the loudness of the sound increases

c)

The loudness of the sound decreases

d)

The pitch of the sound decreases

83.

If a musician plays a soft note, what is the characteristic that has been changed?

a)

Loudness

b)

Pitch of sound

84.

Which waveform has the lowest frequency?

a)

(a)

b)

(b)

c)

(c)

d)

(d)

e)

(e)

85.

Choose true statements about the difference in the characteristics of the vibration of the voice box of men and women. (2 answers)

a)

The voice box of women produces sound with higher frequency compared to the voice box of men.

b)

The voice box of women produces sound with lower frequency compared to the voice box of men.

c)

women's voice has a higher pitch

d)

women's voice has a lower pitch

86.

If the distance represented by the letter A (the amplitude) were increased, how would it change the sound?

a)

The sound would be higher.

b)

The sound would be softer.

c)

The sound would be lower.

d)

The sound would be louder.

87.

What is changed in the second picture?

a)

Someone is talking louder in picture 2

b)

Someone is talking softer in picture 2

c)

Someone is talking lower pitch in picture 2

d)

Someone is talking higher pitch in picture 2

88.

What is changed in the second picture?

a)

Someone is talking louder in picture 2

b)

Someone is talking softer in picture 2

c)

Someone is talking lower pitch in picture 2

d)

Someone is talking higher pitch in picture 2

89.

Frequency is measured in the unit of

a)

Ampere (A)

b)

Hertz (Hz)

c)

Mole (mol)

d)

Meter (m)

90.

What best describes the doppler effect?

a)

An apparent change in frequency of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer

b)

An apparent change in the amplitude of a wave due to the relative motion between a wave source and an observer.

91.

Which of the following determines the pitch of a sound wave?

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Reflection

d)

Absorption

92.

Light travels... (select 2 answers)

a)

Around corners

b)

In straight lines

c)

Faster in glass than in air

d)

Faster than sound

93.

The picture shows 4 sound waves on an oscilloscope. Which has the highest pitch?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

94.

The picture shows 4 sound waves on an oscilloscope. What can you say about A?

a)

It is a very low pitched sound

b)

It is a very high pitched sound

c)

It is a very quiet sound

d)

It is a very loud sound

95.

The picture shows 4 sound waves on an oscilloscope. Which 2 have the smallest amplitude?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

96.

Which statement is true of sound waves. Select 2 answers.

a)

They are made by objects vibrating

b)

They are detected because they make our ear drum vibrate

c)

They are transverse waves

d)

They travel faster in air than in water.

97.

What is the height of a wave called?

a)

Peak

b)

Wavelength

c)

Amplitude

d)

Frequency

98.

Sound waves are caused by the (a)   of particles

99.

The distance between 2 crests or troughs

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

frequency

d)

wave speed

100.

All waves can be reflected

a)

true

b)

false

101.
After the train passed, the pitch of the train whistle became lower. This change in sound would be represented by what change in the diagram above? 
a)
The distance represented by C would increase. 
b)
The distance represented by C would decrease. 
c)
The distance represented by D would increase. 
d)
The distance represented by D would decrease. 
102.

The speed of sound is about...

a)

30 m/s

b)

300 m/s

c)

30 000 m/s

d)

300 00 0m/s

103.

a)

A

b)

B

104.

a)

A

b)

B

105.

Human can hear Ultrasound?

a)

YES

b)

NO

106.

Select the correct answer: Ultrasound are...

a)

sounds that only dolphins can produce

b)

sounds that have a frequency above 20 000Hz

c)

sounds that only superheroes can hear

d)

sounds that are below 20 000Hz

107.

From the words below, which one is linked with the Pitch of the sound

a)

Amplitude

b)

Loudness

c)

Frequency

d)

speed

108.

Frequency is measured in

a)

m/s

b)

m

c)

Hz

d)

Decibel

109.

What are nebulae?

a)

groups of exploding stars

b)

clouds of gas and dust in space

c)

a collection of stars

d)

groups of stars forming a pattern

110.

Stars, like our Sun, form from nebulae. How long ago did our Sun form?

a)

4.6 million years ago

b)

46 million years ago

c)

4.6 billion years ago

d)

46 billion years ago

111.

A cloud of gas that has been excited by light from a nearby star is called ___

a)

a reflection nebula

b)

an emission nebula

c)

a lit nebula

d)

a glowing nebula

112.

The evidence is in ______________________, where coastlines and mountain ranges appear to fit together like a puzzle all over the world

a)

Continental drift

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

The Rock Cycle

d)

Divergent boundaries

113.

Other evidence include __________________ that plate tectonics does occurr in the crust of the Earth.

a)

Rock formation, weather, fossils

b)

Mountain formation, fossils, climate

c)

Land features, fossils, climate

d)

Valleys, Ocean trenches, climate

114.

A theory explaining the structure of the earth's crust is called _________________

a)

Pangea

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

The Rock Cycle

d)

Sea-floor spreading

115.

The outermost layer of rock on Earth, especially the part of the earth above the mantle is called ________________

a)

Crust

b)

Rock Cycle

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

Subduction zones

116.

The region of the earth's interior between the crust and the core is called the ________________.

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Both the crust and the mantle

d)

Both the mantle and the core

117.

 

Which scientist proposed the theory of continental drift?

a)

Alfred Wagner

b)

Harry Hess

c)

Alfred Wegner

d)

Victor

118.

What was the name of the supercontinent proposed by Alfred Wegner?

a)

Pangea

b)

Gondwana

c)

Laurasia

d)

Rodinia

119.

What evidence supported Wegner's continental drift theory?

a)

Fossils of similar plants and animals were found on different continents.

b)

The age and type of rock layers coincided on different continents.

c)

Both answers are correct

d)

None of the above

120.

What did Harry Hess propose in the 1950s?

a)

Theory of continental drift

b)

Theory of plate tectonics

c)

Theory of seafloor expansion

d)

Evolution theory

121.

What process drives the movement of tectonic plates?

a)

Convection currents in the mantle

b)

Traction forces in the lithosphere

c)

The interaction of the continents

d)

Movements of the oceans

122.

What is the approximate speed at which tectonic plates move?

a)

1 centimeter per year

b)

1 meter per year

c)

1 kilometer per year

d)

10 kilometers per year

123.

Where is seismic activity greatest?

a)

At the convergent edges of the plates

b)

At the divergent edges of the plates

c)

At the transforming edges of the plates

d)

In all the previous options

124.

What happens in subduction zones?

a)

Two continental plates collide and uplift, forming mountains.

b)

A dense oceanic plate sinks beneath a continental plate.

c)

Two plates slide horizontally past one another

d)

None of the above is correct

125.

Which is the reason why the theory of plate tectonics is considered the unifying theory of geology?

a)

It explains the formation of mountains, volcanoes, and earthquakes.

b)

It unites different areas of study within geology.

c)

It is widely accepted by the scientific community.

d)

All of the above options are correct

126.

What process drives the formation of volcanoes in subduction zones?

a)

Melting of magma in the mantle

b)

Cooling and solidification of lava

c)

Collision of tectonic plates

d)

Friction between plates

127.

What is the name of the chain of volcanoes located in the subduction zone of the Pacific Ocean?

a)

Volcanoes of Fire

b)

Circle of fire

c)

Chain of Fire

d)

Ring of fire

128.

What geological phenomenon occurs in the convergence zones between continental plates?

a)

Formation of volcanoes

b)

Formation of mountains

c)

Formation of submarine valleys

d)

Formation of alluvial plains.

129.

What is the main evidence supporting the theory of plate tectonics?

a)

The presence of similar fossils in different continents

b)

The existence of plate boundaries and zones of seismic and volcanic activity

c)

The observation of the drift of the continents

d)

The analysis of the age and type of rocks in the oceans.

130.

What is the temperature of the Earth's core?

a)

Impossible to determine

b)

Cooler than Earth's surface

c)

As hot as the temperature of the Earth's surface

d)

As hot as the surface of the Sun

131.

What type of current helps drive the movement of tectonic plates?

a)

Convection currents

b)

Ocean currents

c)

Air currents

d)

Seismic currents

132.

Which geologic process leads to the creation of mountain ranges?

a)

Flow of magma at divergent boundaries

b)

Movement of tectonic plates along transform boundaries

c)

Collision of tectonic plates at convergent boundaries

d)

Rupture of tectonic plates at rift boundaries

133.

What term is used to describe the constant renewal of the Earth's crust through tectonic plate movements?

a)

Continental drift

b)

Rock cycle

c)

Plate tectonics

d)

Subduction

134.

The circuit shown contains three ammeters X, Y and Z.


Which ammeter has the largest reading?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

Z

d)

They all have the same reading.

135.

The diagram shows two resistors connected in a circuit.


What could be the combined resistance of this arrangement of resistors?

a)

4.0Ω

b)

6.0Ω

c)

9.0Ω

d)

18Ω

136.

A student uses the circuit shown to determine the resistance of the two identical resistors.


The voltmeter reading is 2.2V and the ammeter reading is 0.25A.


What is the resistance of each resistor?

a)

0.275Ω

b)

0.55Ω

c)

4.4Ω

d)

8.8Ω

137.

The diagram shows a circuit containing three ammeters P, Q and R.


Which statement about the readings on the ammeters is correct?

a)

The reading on P is equal to the reading on Q.

b)

The reading on P is equal to the reading on R.

c)

The reading on Q is greater than the reading on P.

d)

The reading on Q is greater than the reading on R.

138.

Identical resistors are connected together to form arrangements X, Y and Z.


What is the correct order of the resistances of the arrangements from the largest to the smallest?

a)

X → Y → Z

b)

Y → X → Z

c)

Z → X → Y

d)

Z → Y → X

139.

A circuit contains a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 2.0V, three resistors, three ammeters and two voltmeters. One ammeter is labelled P and one voltmeter is labelled Q.


The readings on the other two ammeters and on the other voltmeter are shown.


What is the reading on ammeter P and what is the reading on voltmeter Q?

a)

P : 1.5 A

Q : 1.5 V

b)

P : 1.5 A

Q : 2.5 V

c)

P : 2.5 A

Q : 1.5 V

d)

P : 2.5 A

Q : 2.5 V

140.

Resistors of resistance 1.0Ω, 2.0Ω and 3.0Ω are connected in parallel across the terminals of a cell.


Which statement is correct?

a)

The currents in the resistors are equal.

b)

The sum of the currents in the three resistors is equal to the current in the cell.

c)

The sum of the potential differences (p.d.’s) across the resistors is equal to the electromotive force (e.m.f.) of the cell.

d)

The potential difference across the 3.0Ω resistor is greater than the potential difference across the other two resistors.

141.

The diagram shows a circuit including a lamp, an electric bell and three switches S1, S2 and S3. The lamp and bell are not faulty.


The bell is ringing but the lamp is not lit. Which switches are closed?

a)

S1 only

b)

S1 and S2 only

c)

S1 and S3 only

d)

S1, S2 and S3

142.

A 12V battery is connected to a combination of 2.0Ω resistors as shown.


What is the current in the battery?

a)

1.5A

b)

2.0A

c)

4.0A

d)

6.0A

143.

A potential difference of 3 V is applied to a network of resistors. the ammeter reads 0.5A.


What is the current flowing through the 6 Ω resistor?

a)

0.5 A

b)

0.167 A

c)

0.333 A

d)

1.0 A

144.

an unknown value of potential difference is applied to a network of resistors.


the ammeter shows reading of 2A.


what is the value for potential difference across the cell?

a)

42 V

b)

24 V

c)

16.5 V

d)

5.33 V

145.

Calculate the effective resistance of the resistors.

a)

40 Ω

b)

0.25 Ω

c)

3.2 Ω

d)

1.6 Ω

146.
This is an example of a _______ circuit
a)
open
b)
series
c)
parallel
d)
square
147.
This is an example of a ______ circuit
a)
Series
b)
Parallel
c)
Open
d)
Dihexihedral
148.
The picture shows an electrical circuit. This circuit is a series circuit because: 
a)
It has 3 light bulbs.
b)
The same current flows through all three light bulbs.
c)
It uses a single battery.
d)
The electrical current is divided between the three light bulbs.
149.
This circuit has more than one loop. When one light goes out, the others stay on. 
a)
closed circuit
b)
series circuit
c)
parallel circuit
d)
open circuit
150.
As resistors are added in series to a circuit, the total resistance will...
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
151.
As the resistance of a circuit increases, the current will...
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
152.
In a parallel circuit which of the following is the same value throughout the circuit?
a)
Voltage
b)
Current
c)
Resistance
d)
Charge
153.
Does this diagram represent a series or parallel circuit?
a)
series circuit
b)
parallel circuit
154.

What is the definition of electrical current?

a)

The opposition to the flow of electrons

b)

The rate of flow of charge

c)

The work done on each coulomb of charge

d)

Electrons moving around

155.
Does this statement best describe a parallel or a series circuit.
 
When more light bulbs are added they all remain bright. 
a)
Parallel circuit
b)
Series circuit
156.
Parallel circuits are
a)
a circuit that has only one path for current to travel
b)
has more than one path for current to travel
c)
a circuit that does not allow electricity to travel through it
d)
magnets that cause electric current
157.
a)
Series circuit - Bulbs are lit
b)
Series circuit - Bulbs are off
c)
Parallel circuit - Bulbs are lit
d)
Parallel circuit - Bulbs are off
158.
This circuit does not work because…
a)
the bulbs are not connected properly
b)
two cells are not powerful enough
c)
there is a break in the circuit
d)
the cells are facing each other
159.
a)
all bulbs are lit equally
b)
the two top bulbs are brighter
c)
the single lower bulb is brighter
d)
the single bulb does not light and the other two are dim
160.
a)
A2 = A3
b)
A2 + A3 = A1
c)
A1 + A2 = A3
d)
A4 = A2 - A3
161.
In a parallel circuit if one of the light bulbs burns out the rest _________.
a)
stop the flow of electricity
b)
 can still light up
c)
 will go out
d)
of the light bulbs burn out also
162.
What is a benefit of using a parallel circuit?  
a)
It gets confusing.
b)
There are no problems.
c)
If one light goes out, it does not affect the others. 
d)
If one light goes out, they all go out. 
163.
What is one problem with using a series circuit? 
a)
It has a lot of series. 
b)
If one light goes down, they all go down! 
c)
It doesn't work properly.
d)
There are no problems. 
164.

When a resistor in a series circuit is replaced by another resistor with an increased resistance value, the total circuit current will __________.

a)

stay the same

b)

decrease

c)

increase

d)

double in value

165.

If a bulb is disconnected in a parallel circuit _________

a)

No bulbs will light up

b)

The other bulb will still light up

c)

Each bulb will only light up if there is a high enough voltage

d)

You will get electrocuted

166.

A light Bulb can be found in a circuit diagram by looking for which symbol?

a)
b)
c)
d)
167.
What kind of circuit is this?
a)
series
b)
parallel
168.

What electrical charge to electrons carry?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

Neutral

169.
A material in which electrons are not able to move easily is called _______.
a)
Circuit 
b)
Insulator 
c)
Resistance 
d)
Conductor
170.
What will happen to the other bulbs in the circuit if one bulb goes out?
a)
The other bulbs will go out
b)
The other bulbs will get brighter
c)
The other bulbs will get dimmer
d)
They will flash on and off
171.
An example of a parallel circuit is
a)
the wiring in a house
b)
a flashlight
c)
a single circular path
172.
Copper is used in wiring because it is an excellent______________ of electricity.
a)
circuit breaker
b)
conductor
c)
insulator
d)
fuse
173.
What is the unit for resistance?
a)
Volts
b)
Amperes
c)
Ohms
174.
The unit for current is the 
a)
Volt
b)
Ohm
c)
Electron
d)
Amp
175.
What resistance is needed to cause a 20A current flow because of a 100V battery?
a)
0.2Ώ
b)
2000Ώ
c)
120Ώ
d)
5Ώ
176.

What voltage is needed to cause a 50A current flow through a 10Ω resistor?

a)

15V

b)

500V

c)

500 kV

d)

0.2V

177.
You measure a potential difference with..
a)
a voltmeter
b)
An Ammeter 
178.
the tendency for a material to oppose the flow of electrons
a)
current
b)
circuit
c)
resistance
d)
difference
179.
What is resistance?
a)
a measure of how difficult it is for electrons to flow
b)
a measure of the difference in electrical potential between objects that have opposite charges
c)
the continuous flow of electrons around a circuit
d)
the fast sudden movement of electrons from a negative to a positive material
180.

What type of circuit is shown in the picture?

a)

Series circuit

b)

Parallel circuit

c)

Open circuit

181.

A student uses a length of wire as a resistor. He makes a second resistor from the same material.

To be certain of making a second resistor of higher resistance, he should use a piece of wire that is:

a)

longer and thicker.

b)

longer and thinner.

c)

shorter and thicker.

d)

shorter and thinner.

182.

The table describes four different resistance wires.


They are all made from the same metal.


Which wire has the smallest resistance?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

183.

The circuit shown contains a battery, a 6.0 Ω resistor and two meters X and Y.


One meter records current and one meter records potential difference.

a)

meter X : 2.0 A

meter Y : 12.0 V

b)

meter X : 2.0 V

meter Y : 1.0 A

c)

meter X : 12.0 A

meter Y : 2.0 V

d)

meter X : 12.0 V

meter Y : 2.0 A

184.
a)

most brightly: W

least brightly: Y

b)

most brightly: W

least brightly: Z

c)

most brightly: X

least brightly: Y

d)

most brightly: X

least brightly: Y

185.

The diagram shows a circuit with a 3.0Ω and a 2.0 Ω resistor connected in parallel.


The switch is open, and the ammeter reads 2.0 A.


The switch is now closed and the ammeter reads the total current in both resistors.


What is the ammeter reading with the switch closed?

a)

1.2 A

b)

3.0 A

c)

4.0 A

d)

5.0 A

186.

Which equation can be used to calculate the resistance R of a resistor?

a)

V = I / R

b)

I = V x R

c)

R = V x I

d)

V = I x R

187.

The diagrams show four current-voltage graphs.


Which two graphs show the characteristics of an ohmic resistor and of a filament lamp?

a)

ohmic resistor : W

filament lamp : Y

b)

ohmic resistor : X

filament lamp : Y

c)

ohmic resistor : W

filament lamp : Z

d)

ohmic resistor : X

filament lamp : Z

188.

The resistance of a wire depends on its length l and on its cross-sectional area A.


The resistance is:

a)

directly proportional to l and directly proportional to A.

b)

directly proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.

c)

inversely proportional to l and directly proportional to A.

d)

inversely proportional to l and inversely proportional to A.

189.

Which symbols are used for the units of current and of resistance?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

190.

There is a current of 2.0A in a resistor for 30 s.


The potential difference (p.d.) across the resistor is 12V.


How much energy is transferred in the resistor?

a)

1.25 J

b)

5.0 J

c)

180 J

d)

720 J

191.

There is a current of 3.0A in a resistor for time t. During time t, a charge of 120C flows through the resistor.


What is time t ?

a)

0.025 minutes

b)

0.025 s

c)

40 minutes

d)

40 s

192.

A metal wire of length 1000 mm and cross-sectional area 0.20mm2 has a resistance of 8.0Ω.


What is the resistance of a wire of the same metal of length 500 mm and cross-sectional area of 0.40 mm2?

a)

2.0 Ω

b)

8.0 Ω

c)

16 Ω

d)

32 Ω

193.

Which two changes to a metal wire both increase resistance?

a)

decreasing its length and increasing its temperature

b)

increasing its length and decreasing its temperature

c)

decreasing its thickness and increasing its temperature

d)

increasing its thickness and decreasing its temperature

194.

The resistance of a component in a circuit is found using an ammeter and a voltmeter.


How are the ammeter and the voltmeter connected?

a)

the voltmeter and ammeter in parallel with the component

b)

the voltmeter and ammeter in series with the component

c)

the voltmeter in parallel with the component and the ammeter in series with the component

d)

the voltmeter in series with the component and the ammeter in parallel with the component

195.

Which quantity is equivalent to 1.0V?

a)

1.0 J /C

b)

1.0 kJ /C

c)

1.0 J / s

d)

1.0 kJ / s