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AWS_IAM_Compute_Network_Storage

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following can be attached to EC2 Instances to store data?

a)

Amazon Glacier

b)

Amazon EBS Volumes

c)

Amazon EBS Snapshots

d)

Amazon SQS

2.

Which of the following components of the Cloudfront service can be used to distribute contents to users across the globe.

a)

Amazon VPC

b)

Amazon Regions

c)

Amazon Availability Zones

d)

Amazon Edge locations

3.

Your company is planning to move to the AWS Cloud. You need to give a presentation on the cost perspective when moving existing resources to the AWS Cloud. When it comes to Amazon EC2, which of the following is an advantage when it comes to the cost perspective.

a)

Having the ability of automated backups of the EC2 instance, so that you don’t need to worry about the maintenance costs.

b)

The ability to choose low cost AMI’s to prepare the EC2 Instances

c)

The ability to only pay for what you use

d)

Ability to tag instances to reduce the overall cost

4.

Currently your organization has an operational team that takes care of ID management in their on-premise data center. They now also need to manage users and groups created in AWS. Which of the following AWS tools would they need to use for performing this management function.

a)

AWS Config

b)

AWS Cloud Trail

c)

AWS Key Management Service (AWS KMS)

d)

AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)

5.

Which of the following is the most secure way of giving access to AWS services to applications running on Ec2 instances?

a)

Creating Service users

b)

Creating service groups

c)

Roles

d)

Attaching policies to applications

6.

TRUE or FALSE : By default a new user in IAM has permisiions to log in to the AWS Console.

a)

TRUE

b)

FLASE

7.

Which of the following is not an IAM best practice?

a)

Delete user accounts not in use

b)

Attach policies to individual users

c)

Manage permissions by adding users to groups

d)

Enable MFA on user accounts

8.

Wch of the following set of credentials are used to log in to AWS programmatically? (Choose two)

a)

Username

b)

Access Key

c)

Password

d)

Secret Key

9.

Which of the following option describes the most common AWS billing model?

a)

Daily Billing

b)

Annual Billing

c)

Pay as you go

d)

Pay in advance

10.

Availability Zones are

a)

All together in one data centre

b)

In geographically isolated data centers

c)

In different data centres

d)

None of the above

11.

When a security group is created,what is the default behavior?

a)

Allow all traffic inbound and allow all traffic outbound

b)

Allow all traffic inbound and deny all traffic outbound

c)

Deny all traffic inbound and allow all traffic outbound

d)

Deny all traffic inbound and Deny all traffic outbound

12.

All of these are IAM components except

a)

Users

b)

Organisations

c)

Roles

d)

Policies

13.

Which parts of the AWS infrastructure support increased resilience?

a)

Multiple Availability Zones within a region

b)

Multiple AWS Direct Connect (DX) gateways within data center

c)

Multiple regions distributed globally

d)

Multiple edge locations within a region

14.

You are getting a network timeout when trying to SSH into your EC2 instance

a)

Your security group are misconfigured

b)

Your key is missing permissions

c)

The Linux instance is misconfigured

d)

None of the above

15.

Which component of the AWS global infrastructure supports the caching of content or faster access?

a)

AWS Direct Connect locations

b)

Edge locations

c)

Regions

d)

Availability Zones

16.

A company has 70 employees divided into 10 departments. The IT administrator wants to customize each departments access to AWS. Which of the following option is most appropriate ?

a)

Make each employee an AWS account root user

b)

Create an IAM role for each department, and assign IAM users to the roles

c)

Create a temporary role for each employee, and revise their access as needed

d)

Create an IAM group for each department, and assign IAM users to the groups

17.

An application you want to run on EC2 requires you to license it based on the number of physical CPU sockets and cores on the hardware you plan to run the application on. Which of the following tenancy models should you specify?

a)

Dedicated host

b)

Shared tenancy

c)

Dedicated instance

d)

Bring your own license

18.
True/false: Changing the instance type of an EC2 instance will change its elastic IP address.
a)
false
b)
true
19.
Which of the following configuration details cannot be changed on an existing EC2 instance?
a)
Instance type
b)
AMI
c)
Security Group
d)
Public IP
20.

Which of the following commands will (when run from a shell session on an EC2 instance) display the instance ID?

a)

curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/instance-action

b)

curl http://149.253.169.253/latest/meta-data/instanceaction

c)

curl http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta/instance-action

d)

curl http://169.254.169.254/meta-data/instance-action

21.

Which three attributes of an incoming data packet are used by a security group to determine whether it should be allowed through? (Choose three.)

a)

Network port

b)

Source address

c)

Datagram header size

d)

Network protocol

22.

What do you have to do to securely authenticate to the GUI console of a Windows EC2 session?

a)

Use the private key of your key pair to initiate an SSH tunnel session.

b)

Use the public key of your key pair to initiate an SSH tunnel session.

c)

Use the public key of your key pair to retrieve the password you’ll use to log in.

d)

Use the private key of your key pair to retrieve the password you’ll use to log in.

23.
What do you need to securely connect using SSH to an EC2 instance launched from the Amazon Linux 2 AMI?
a)
A signed cookie
b)
An access key ID and secret access key
c)
A key pair
d)
A password
24.
What can you use to run a script at startup on an Amazon EC2 Linux instance?
a)
User data
b)
Metadata
c)
AWS Batch
d)
AWS Config
25.
Which EC2 pricing model would you use for a short-term requirement that needs to complete over a weekend?
a)
Reserved Instance
b)
Spot Instance
c)
Dedicated Instance
d)
On-Demand Instance
26.

Which of the following is the greatest risk posed by using your AWS account root user for day-to-day operations?

a)

There would be no easy way to control resource usage by project or class.

b)

There would be no effective limits on the effect of an action, making it more likely for unintended and unwanted consequences to result.

c)

Since root has full permissions over your account resources, an account compromise at the hands of hackers would be catastrophic

d)

It would make it difficult to track which account user is responsible for specific actions.

27.

An application you want to run on EC2 requires you to license it based on the number of physical CPU sockets and cores on the hardware you plan to run the application on. Which of the following tenancy models should you specify?

a)

Dedicated host

b)

Shared tenancy

c)

Dedicated instance

d)

Bring your own license

28.

True/false: The EBS Lifecycle Manager can take snapshots of volumes that were once attached to terminated instances.

a)

false

b)

true

29.

The sensitivity of the data your company works with means that the instances you run must be secured through complete physical isolation. What should you specify as you configure a new instance?

a)

Dedicated Host Tenancy

b)

Shared Tenancy

c)

Dedicated Instance Tenancy

d)

Isolated Tenancy

30.

Which of the following EBS options will you need to keep your data-hungry application that requires up to 20,000 IOPS happy?

a)

Cold HDD

b)

General Purpose SSD

c)

Provisioned-IOPS SSD

d)

Throupth Optimized HDD

31.
Which of the following are benefits of instance store volumes? (Choose two.)
a)
Instance volumes are physically attached to the server that’s hosting your instance,<br />allowing faster data access.
b)
Instance volumes can be used to store data even after the instance is shut down.
c)
The use of instance volumes does not incur costs (beyond those for the instance itself).
d)
You can set termination protection so an instance volume can’t be accidentally shut<br />down.
32.
Which AWS storage service provides a NTFS filesystem that can be accessed by multiple EC2 instances using the SMB protocol?
a)
Amazon FSx for Windows File Server
b)
Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
c)
Amazon FSx for Lustre
d)
Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)
33.
An Architect is designing an application that will use hundreds of EC2 instances across multiple availability zones. A shared filesystem is required that can be mounted by all instances. Which storage service is suitable for this requirement?
a)
EFS
b)
EBS
c)
S3
d)
instance store
34.
What type of storage is suitable for a use case that requires extremely high-performance local disks that do not need to be persistent?
a)
EFS
b)
EBS
c)
S3
d)
Instance Store
35.
How can a systems administrator copy an EBS volume from the us-west-1a availability zone to an instance in the us-west-1b availability zone?
a)
Create a snapshot of the EBS volume in us-west-1a. Create a new volume in us-west-2b from the snapshot
b)
Create a new EBS volume attached to the instance in us-west-2b. Attach the EBS volume to the instance in us-west-1b and copy data between volumes
36.

A database is running on an Amazon EC2 instance. The database software has a backup feature that requires block storage. What storage option would be the lowest cost option for the backup data?

a)

Amazon Glacier

b)

Amazon EBS Cold HDD Volume (sc1)

c)

Amazon S3

d)

Amazon EBS GP2

37.
A company has decided to host a server on an Amazon EC2 instance. The main requirement for this server is to process large quantities of logs. Which of the following Amazon EBS volume types would be ideal for this implementation?
a)
Amazon EBS Provisioned IOPS (io1)
b)
Amazon EBS Cold HDD Volume (sc1)
c)
Amazon EBS General Purpose SSD (gp2)
d)
Amazon EBS Throughput Optimized HDD Volume (st1)
38.
Which of the following are features of Amazon EBS? (Select TWO.)
a)
Data stored on Amazon EBS is automatically replicated within an Availability Zone.
b)
Amazon EBS data is automatically backed up to tape.
c)
Amazon EBS volumes can be encrypted.
d)
Amazon EBS volumes can be attached to more then one instance in the same AZ.
39.

True/false: The EBS Lifecycle Manager can take snapshots of volumes that were once attached to terminated instances.

a)

false

b)

true

40.
Which of the following are benefits of instance store volumes? (Choose two.)
a)
Instance volumes are physically attached to the server that’s hosting your instance,<br />allowing faster data access.
b)
Instance volumes can be used to store data even after the instance is shut down.
c)
The use of instance volumes does not incur costs (beyond those for the instance itself).
d)
You can set termination protection so an instance volume can’t be accidentally shut<br />down.
41.
Which AWS storage service provides a NTFS filesystem that can be accessed by multiple EC2 instances using the SMB protocol?
a)
Amazon FSx for Windows File Server
b)
Amazon Elastic File System (EFS)
c)
Amazon FSx for Lustre
d)
Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS)
42.

Which S3 encryption option does not require AWS persistently storing the encryption keys it uses to decrypt data?

a)

SSE-CloudHSM

b)

SSE-KMS

c)

SSE-S3

d)

SSE-C

43.

True/false: Durability measures the percentage of likelihood that a given object will not be inadvertently lost by AWS over the course of a year.

a)

true

b)

false

44.
What is the maximum size of S3 object metadata?
a)
5GB
b)
5TB
c)
500MB
d)
100GB
45.

You need a low-latency platform where you can store files to be mounted within multiple VPC-based instances. Which of the following AWS services is your best choice?

a)

AWS Storage Gateway

b)

AWS S3

c)

Amazon Elastic File System

d)

AWS Elastic Block Store

46.

You want to encrypt the objects at rest in an S3 bucket using keys provided by AWS that also allows you to track related events. Which combination of tools should you use?

a)

Server-side encryption with AWS KMS-Managed Keys

b)

Service-side encryption with Amazon S3-Managed Keys

c)

Client-side encryption with AWS KMS-Managed Keys

d)

Client-side encryption with Amazon S3-Managed Keys

47.
What must you do to protect objects in S3 buckets from being accidentally overwritten?
a)
Nothing. S3 protects existing files by default
b)
Nothing. S3 saves older versions of your files by default
c)
Enable versioning.
d)
Enable file overwrite protection
48.

How can you apply transitions between storage classes for only certain objects within an S3 bucket?

a)

By specifying particular prefixes when you define your lifecycle rules

b)

This isn’t possible. Lifecycle rules must apply to all the objects in a bucket

c)

By specifying particular prefixes when you create the bucket

d)

By importing a predefined lifecycle rule template

49.

Which of the following classes will usually make the most sense for long-term storage when included within a sequence of lifecycle rules?

a)

Glacier

b)

Reduced Redundancy

c)

S3 One Zone-IA

d)

S3 Standard-IA

50.

Which of the following are the recommended methods for providing secure and controlled access to your buckets? (Choose two.)

a)

S3 access control lists (ACLs)

b)

S3 bucket policies

c)

IAM policies

d)

Security groups

51.
Assuming you didn’t explicitly set a value, how long will a presigned URL remain valid?
a)
24 hours
b)
60mins
c)
5 mins
d)
360 seconds
52.
What is the largest single archive supported by Amazon Glacier?
a)
40GB
b)
40TB
c)
5Gb
d)
5TB
53.

Which of the following would be a good use case for Amazon Elastic File System?

a)

You need to share files from a single host source among multiple EC2 instances within a VPC

b)

You need an interface through which you can back up data archives from your local, on-premises infrastructure

c)

You need a quick way to transfer large data archives to the cloud

d)

You need a cost-effective place to store object data.

54.
At which level do you attach an Internet gateway
a)
Public Subnet
b)
Private Subnet
c)
Availaility Zone
d)
VPC
55.
What is the scope of a Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)?
a)
Regional
b)
Zonal
c)
Global
d)
Availability Zone
56.
How should subnets be used for fault tolerance?
a)
Create subnets that span multiple availability zones
b)
Create subnets that have multiple Internet Gateways
c)
Launch EC2 instances into subnets attached to a region
d)
Launch EC2 instances into subnets created in different availability zones
57.
You created a new private subnet and created a route table with a path to a NAT gateway. However, EC2 instances launched into this subnet are not able to reach the Internet. Security Groups for the EC2 instances are setup correctly. What is the most likely explanation?
a)
The security group for the NAT gateway is setup incorrectly.
b)
You need to associate the new subnet with the new route table
c)
You need to add an entry for an Internet gateway
58.
You need to apply a firewall to a group of EC2 instances launched in multiple subnets. Which option should be used?
a)
Network ACL
b)
Security Group
c)
IAM policy
d)
iptables
59.
An attack has been identified from a group of IP addresses. What’s the quickest way to block these specific IP addresses from reaching the instances in your subnets?
a)
Apply a Security Group to the instances in the subnets with a deny rule
b)
Change the IP addresses used by the instances
c)
Detach the Internet Gateway
d)
Apply a Network ACL to the subnets involved with a deny rule
60.
What is the minimum size subnet that you can have in an Amazon VPC?
a)
/24
b)
/26
c)
/28
d)
/30
61.

You are a solutions architect working for a large travel company that is migrating its existing server estate to AWS. You have recommended that they use a custom Amazon VPC, and they have agreed to proceed. They will need a public subnet for their web servers and a private subnet in which to place their databases. They also require that the web servers and database servers be highly available and that there be a minimum of two web servers and two database servers each. How many subnets should you have to maintain high availability?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

6

62.

You create a new subnet and then add a route to your route table that routes traffic out from that subnet to the Internet using an IGW. What type of subnet have you created?

a)

Public Subnet

b)

Private Subnet

63.
What happens when you create a new Amazon VPC?
a)
A main route table is created by default.
b)
Three subnets are created by default—one for each Availability Zone.
c)
Three subnets are created by default in one Availability Zone.
d)
An IGW is created by default
64.
You create a new VPC in US-East-1 and provision three subnets inside this Amazon VPC. Which of the following statements is true?
a)
By default, these subnets will not be able to communicate with each other; you will need to create routes.
b)
All subnets are public by default.
c)
All subnets will be able to communicate with each other by default
d)
Each subnet will have identical CIDR blocks.
65.

What is the default limit for the number of Amazon VPCs that a customer may have in a region?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

3

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