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Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary function of input interface modules in a controller?

a)

Convert signals from the machine or process devices into signals that can be used by the controller

b)

Filter the signals from the machine or process devices

c)

Convert signals from the controller into signals for the machine or process devices

d)

Amplify the signals from the machine or process devices

2.

What is the primary function of output interface modules in a controller?

a)

Amplify the controller signals

b)

Convert controller signals into external signals

c)

Filter the controller signals

d)

Convert external signals into controller signals

3.

What does Distributed I/O refer to in the context of a PLC system?

a)

Inputs and outputs located at a machine and controlled remotely from the PLC

b)

Inputs and outputs located remotely and controlled locally from the PLC

c)

Inputs and outputs located remotely and controlled remotely from the PLC

d)

Inputs and outputs located at a machine and controlled locally from the PLC

4.

What is a rack referred to when it is located away from the processor module?

a)

An external rack

b)

A remote rack

c)

A local rack

d)

A distant rack

5.

What is the advantage of using a fiber optic cable between the CPU and I/O rack?

a)

It allows for operation of I/O points from distances greater than 2 miles with no voltage drop

b)

It allows for operation of I/O points from distances greater than 20 miles with no voltage drop

c)

It allows for operation of I/O points from distances less than 20 miles with no voltage drop

d)

It allows for operation of I/O points from distances less than 2 miles with no voltage drop

6.

What is the advantage of using a coaxial cable for remote I/O installation?

a)

It allows remote I/O to be installed at distances greater than 20 miles

b)

It allows remote I/O to be installed at distances greater than two miles

c)

It allows remote I/O to be installed at distances less than 20 miles

d)

It allows remote I/O to be installed at distances less than two miles

7.

What does the memory system of a PLC store?

a)

Information about the manufacturer of the PLC

b)

Information about the programming language used in the PLC

c)

Information about the status of all the inputs and outputs

d)

Information about the power supply of the PLC

8.

What is an address in the context of a PLC’s memory?

a)

It is a label or number that indicates where a certain piece of information is located

b)

It is a label or number that indicates the serial number of the PLC

c)

It is a label or number that indicates the power consumption of the PLC

d)

It is a label or number that indicates the manufacturing date of the PLC

9.

What is a bit in the context of binary digits?

a)

A digit that can be either 2 or 3

b)

A digit that can be either 0 or 1

c)

A digit that can be either 1 or 2

d)

A digit that can be either 3 or 4

10.

What is a tag in the context of data storage?

a)

An alphanumeric name assigned to all data

b)

A symbolic name assigned to all data

c)

An alphabetic name assigned to all data

d)

A numeric name assigned to all data

11.

What type of devices are discrete or digital type input modules designed to monitor?

a)

temperature sensors and pressure sensors

b)

selector switches, pushbuttons, and limit switches

c)

lights, relays, solenoids, and motor starters

d)

microprocessors and memory modules

12.

What is the purpose of backplane power in a PLC module?

a)

to power the external devices connected to the PLC module

b)

to power the cooling system of the PLC module

c)

to power the electronics that reside on the I/O module circuit board

d)

to power the communication system of the PLC module

13.

What is a control relay called when it is used to control a larger load or motor starter?

a)

An interposing capacitor

b)

An interposing switch

c)

An interposing resistor

d)

An interposing relay

14.

What are the two basic sections of the input circuit?

a)

The power section and the output section

b)

The logic section and the output section

c)

The power section and the logic section

d)

The input section and the output section

15.

What type of devices can triac outputs be used for control?

a)

AC devices

b)

Neither AC nor DC devices

c)

DC devices

d)

Both AC and DC devices

16.

What type of devices can transistor outputs be used for control?

a)

Both AC and DC devices

b)

DC devices

c)

Neither AC nor DC devices

d)

AC devices

17.

What is a characteristic of the discrete relay contact output module?

a)

It uses electromechanical as the switching element and can only be used with AC devices

b)

It uses electromechanical as the switching element and can be used with both AC and DC devices

c)

It uses solid-state as the switching element and can be used with both AC and DC devices

d)

It uses solid-state as the switching element and can only be used with DC devices

18.

What does it mean when a device is said to be sourcing current?

a)

It provides current when it is ON

b)

It receives current when it is OFF

c)

It provides current when it is OFF

d)

It receives current when it is ON

19.

What does it mean when a device is said to be sinking current?

a)

It receives current when it is ON

b)

It receives current when it is OFF

c)

It provides current when it is ON

d)

It provides current when it is OFF

20.

When are analog input and output modules used?

a)

When the control process requires the discrete or digital ON/OFF types.

b)

When the control process requires a fixed type of control.

c)

When the control process does not require any type of control.

d)

When the control process requires the continuously variable type of control.

21.

What are some examples of typical analog input detection devices?

a)

Pressure valves, meters, and DC motors.

b)

Temperature sensors, potentiometers, and ultrasonic proximity sensors.

c)

Control valves, meters, and stepper motors.

d)

Digital sensors, binary sensors, and infrared sensors.

22.

What are some examples of typical analog output control devices?

a)

Temperature sensors, potentiometers, and ultrasonic proximity sensors.

b)

Pressure valves, meters, and DC motors.

c)

Digital sensors, binary sensors, and infrared sensors.

d)

Control valves, meters, and stepper motors.

23.

What are the two basic types of analog input modules?

a)

Weight sensing and level sensing.

b)

Speed sensing and flow sensing.

c)

Voltage sensing and current sensing.

d)

Pressure sensing and position sensing.

24.

How do current input signals compare to voltage signals in terms of sensitivity to noise?

a)

Current input signals are less sensitive to noise than voltage signals.

b)

Current input signals and voltage signals have the same sensitivity to noise.

c)

Current input signals are more sensitive to noise than voltage signals.

d)

Current input signals have no sensitivity to noise.

25.

Why is a twisted shielded pair cable used in wiring the circuit?

a)

To decrease the signal strength.

b)

To increase the electrical noise signals.

c)

To amplify the signal.

d)

To reduce unwanted electrical noise signals.

26.

What is the main element of the analog input module?

a)

Signal Reducer.

b)

Digital-to-Analog converter.

c)

Analog-to-Digital converter.

d)

Signal Amplifier.

27.

What are the two types of analog voltage input modules?

a)

Single and Double.

b)

Unipolar and Bipolar.

c)

Positive and Negative.

d)

High and Low.

28.

When would unipolar modules be used?

a)

If the field device outputs -10 to +10 V.

b)

If the field device outputs +10 to +20 V.

c)

If the field device outputs 0 to +10 V.

d)

If the field device outputs 0 to -10 V.

29.

What does the resolution of an analog input channel refer to?

a)

The change in input signal value that cannot be sensed.

b)

The average change in input signal value that can be sensed.

c)

The largest change in input signal value that can be sensed.

d)

The smallest change in input signal value that can be sensed.

30.

What does a transducer do in a field device?

a)

It converts a field device’s variable into a very lowlevel electric signal

b)

It amplifies the electric signal of a field device.

c)

It converts a field device’s variable into a high-level electric signal.

d)

It reduces the electric signal of a field device.

31.

What happens to the low-level electric signal generated by the transducer?

a)

It is amplified by a transmitter and then input into the analog module.

b)

It is transformed by a transmitter and then input into the analog module.

c)

It is converted by a transmitter and then input into the analog module.

d)

It is reduced by a transmitter and then input into the analog module.

32.

What is the main element of the analog output module?

a)

Signal Reducer.

b)

Signal Amplifier.

c)

Digital-to-Analog converter.

d)

Analog-to-Digital converter.

33.

What does scaling allow you to do with an analog input from a sensor?

a)

Convert it to non-engineering units required by the application.

b)

Convert it to the engineering units required by the application.

c)

Amplify it to the engineering units required by the application.

d)

Reduce it to the engineering units required by the application.

34.

What is the function of memory in a PLC?

a)

Executes the program

b)

Stores information, programs, and data

c)

Provides power to the processor and I/O modules

d)

None of them

35.

How is data stored in memory locations?

a)

Writing

b)

None of them

c)

Executing

d)

Reading

36.

What does 1 K of memory represent?

a)

None of them

b)

1000 bytes of memory storage

c)

2000 words of memory storage

d)

1024 bytes of memory storage

37.

What is a double integer (DINT) in the context of PLC memory?

a)

64 bits of data

b)

16 bits of data

c)

32 bits of data

d)

86 bits of data

38.

What happens to volatile memory when all operating power is lost or removed?

a)

It becomes nonvolatile

b)

None of them

c)

It retains its stored information

d)

It loses its stored information

39.

What is the function of nonvolatile memory in a PLC?

a)

It becomes volatile when power is removed

b)

It loses its stored information when power is removed

c)

None of them

d)

It retains stored information when power is removed

40.

What is the function of Read Only Memory (ROM) in a PLC?

a)

It stores programs and data that define the capabilities of the PLC

b)

It provides some level of security against unauthorized or unwanted changes

c)

None of them

d)

It is used as a temporary storage area of data

41.

What is the characteristic of Random Access Memory (RAM) in a PLC?

a)

It is volatile

b)

It can only be erased with an ultraviolet light

c)

None of them

d)

It is nonvolatile

42.

What is the function of Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EPROM) in a PLC?

a)

It is used as a temporary storage area of data

b)

None of them

c)

It provides some level of security against unauthorized or unwanted changes

d)

It stores programs and data that define the capabilities of the PLC

43.

What is the characteristic of Electrically Erasable Programmable Read-Only Memory (EEPROM) in a PLC?

a)

It can only be erased with an ultraviolet light

b)

It is nonvolatile

c)

It is volatile

d)

None of them

44.

What is the function of flash memory in a PLC?

a)

It is used as a temporary storage area of data

b)

None of them

c)

It stores programs and data that define the capabilities of the PLC

d)

It automatically backs up parts of RAM

45.

What is the function of a programming terminal device in a PLC?

a)

To provide power to the processor and I/O modules

b)

To enter, modify, and troubleshoot the PLC program

c)

All answers correct

d)

To store the PLC program

46.

What does a Human Machine Interface (HMI) allow the operator and management to do?

a)

View the operation in real time

b)

None of them

c)

Store the PLC program

d)

Provide power to the processor and I/O modules

47.

Where can Human Machine Interfaces (HMIs) be located?

a)

None of them

b)

Both a and b

c)

On the machine

d)

In centralized control rooms

48.

What are the major tasks in the development of an HMI application?

a)

All answers correct

b)

Create the tag database

c)

Insert the graphical objects on the screen

d)

Set up the communication with the PLC

49.

How is screen resolution expressed in an HMI operator panel?

a)

All answeers correct

b)

In terms of the number of colors it can display

c)

In Megabytes (MB)

d)

As width × height, with the units in pixels

50.

What is the purpose of an indicator in an instrument system?

a)

To perform conversion calculations

b)

To withstand radiation

c)

To transmit a standard instrument signal

d)

To provide a human-readable indication of an instrument signal

51.

What is a common feature of process transmitters?

a)

They can only connect to one indicator

b)

They are always located near the indicators

c)

They just transmit a standard instrument signal to another device

d)

They are always equipped with readouts

52.

What technology does the field-mounted indicator use for its numerical display to use less electrical power?

a)

Standard instrument signals

b)

Red-glowing LEDs

c)

LCD technology

d)

Bargraphs

53.

What is the purpose of a recorder in an instrument system? .

a)

To perform conversion calculations

b)

To transmit a standard instrument signal

c)

To withstand radiation

d)

To draw a graph of process variable(s) over time

54.

What types of recorders are still in use today?

a)

Only circular chart recorders

b)

Neither circular nor strip chart recorders

c)

Only strip chart recorders

d)

Both circular and strip chart recorders

55.

What does the controller do to maintain the process variable at setpoint?

a)

It ignores variations in process load

b)

It reduces the process variable

c)

It keeps the output signal constant

d)

It changes its output as necessary

56.

What could a wildly-fluctuating output signal indicate?

a)

The controller is in manual mode

b)

The process variable is deviating significantly from the setpoint

c)

The control system is not working well

d)

The control system is working well

57.

What is the delay between when the output signal is “stepped” to a new value and when the process variable responds to the change called?

a)

Mechanical friction

b)

Process load

c)

Dead time

d)

Transport delay

58.

What is the purpose of a process switch in a measurement and control system?

a)

To perform conversion calculations

b)

To transmit a standard instrument signal

c)

To withstand radiation

d)

To turn on and off with varying process conditions

59.

What activates the “PSH” (pressure switch, high) and the “PSL” (pressure switch, low)?

a)

The air pressure outside the vessel reaching its high control point and dropping down to its low control point, respectively

b)

The air pressure outside the vessel dropping down to its low control point and reaching its high control point, respectively

c)

The air pressure inside the vessel dropping down to its low control point and reaching its high control point, respectively

d)

The air pressure inside the vessel reaching its high control point and dropping down to its low control point, respectively

60.

What do the labels “AAL” and “AAH” refer to?

a)

Analytical alarm low and analytical alarm high, respectively

b)

Analytical alarm high and analytical alarm low, respectively

c)

Analog alarm high and analog alarm low, respectively

d)

Analog alarm low and analog alarm high, respectively

61.

How do the alarm switches (LSL and LSH) sense water level?

a)

They directly sense water level by monitoring the water in the steam drum

b)

They indirectly sense water level by monitoring the pneumatic signal pressure output by the level transmitter (LT)

c)

They sense water level by monitoring the temperature in the steam drum

d)

They sense water level by monitoring the air pressure in the steam drum

62.

Why is neatness important in electrical signal wiring?

a)

It makes the system cheaper

b)

It makes the system easier to navigate and troubleshoot

c)

It makes the system look good

d)

It makes the electrons move faster

63.

What is the purpose of crimp-style ferrules in terminal block connections?

a)

They make the wires look neat

b)

They provide a more rugged tip for the terminal block screw

c)

They make the wires easier to cut

d)

They increase the electrical resistance of the connection

64.

What is the advantage of using multi-level terminal blocks?

a)

They provide the option of internal jumpers to connect two or more levels together

b)

They are smaller and lighter than single level terminal blocks

c)

They are easier to manufacture

d)

They allow the placement of actual circuit components near connection points

65.

Why is the use of solid wire necessary with certain terminal blocks?

a)

Because stranded wire would become frayed by the combination of forces

b)

Because solid wire is more durable

c)

Because solid wire is cheaper

d)

Because solid wire is more flexible

66.

Why are compression-style terminals unsuitable for solid wire?

a)

They are too difficult to install on solid wire

b)

They are not available in the right sizes for solid wire

c)

They lose their tension rapidly on solid wire

d)

They are too expensive to use with solid wire

67.

What is the advantage of ring terminals over fork terminals?

a)

They are more suitable for use with solid wire

b)

They are cheaper

c)

They are easier to install and remove

d)

They are more secure and cannot fall off the connection point

68.

What is a DIN rail?

a)

A type of screw used in electrical installations

b)

A type of electrical wire

c)

A type of electrical component

d)

A narrow channel of metal for terminal blocks

69.

What is a feature of many DIN rail type terminal blocks?

a)

They can be attached to either “top hat” or “G” shaped DIN rail

b)

They can only be attached to “G” shaped DIN rail

c)

They can only be attached to “top hat” DIN rail

d)

They cannot be attached to any type of DIN rail

70.

What is the purpose of using conduit in cable routing?

a)

To make the cables easier to cut

b)

To support electrical cables and protect them from harsh conditions

c)

To increase the electrical conductivity of the cables

d)

To provide a decorative element to the wiring system

71.

What is the advantage of using plastic conduit over metal conduit?

a)

Plastic conduit is superior with regard to chemical corrosion resistance

b)

Plastic conduit is cheaper than metal conduit

c)

Plastic conduit is more durable than metal conduit

d)

Plastic conduit provides better electrical grounding

72.

What is the purpose of using flexible liquid-tight conduit when connecting electrical conduit to end-point devices?

a)

It increases the electrical conductivity of the conduit

b)

It provides stress relief to the conduit

c)

It makes the conduit look more attractive

d)

It makes the conduit easier to cut

73.

What is a busway used for in industrial facilities?

a)

For supporting the weight of the building

b)

For instrumentation, control, or signaling purposes

c)

For electrical power distribution

d)

For providing a pathway for workers to walk through the facility

74.

What is the purpose of wire duct and wire loom in an electrical enclosure?

a)

To make the wires easier to cut

b)

To provide a decorative element to the enclosure

c)

To increase the electrical conductivity of the wires

d)

To neatly route power, signal, and instrumentation conductors

75.

What is an optical fiber?

a)

A type of photodiode

b)

A pipe through which light flows

c)

A type of LED

d)

A type of electrical cable

76.

What is the predominant use of optical fiber in modern industry?

a)

As a replacement for photodiodes

b)

As a source of light for homes

c)

As a replacement for LED lights

d)

As a data communication

77.

What is one advantage of optical fiber over electrical cable?

a)

It has a much greater bandwidth

b)

It requires specialized tools for installation

c)

It requires expensive testing equipment

d)

It needs to avoid tight bend radii

78.

What is the primary function of the core in an optical fiber?

a)

To channel electrical energy

b)

To serve as a waveguide for light

c)

To provide coloring for fiber identification

d)

To protect the fiber from abrasion

79.

Why is the cladding layer necessary in an optical fiber?

a)

To enhance the tensile strength of the cable

b)

To prevent leakage of optical power

c)

To provide additional protection against abrasion

d)

To absorb specific light wavelengths

80.

What is the purpose of the plastic jacket around the cladding in an optical fiber?

a)

To increase the diameter of the fiber

b)

To absorb specific light wavelengths

c)

To provide protection against abrasion

d)

To prevent leakage of optical power

81.

What is the primary difference between multi-mode fibers and single-mode fibers?

a)

Multi-mode fibers are more suitable for high-speed data transmission.

b)

Single-mode fibers support multiple independent pathways within the core.

c)

Multi-mode fibers have a larger core diameter than single-mode fibers.

d)

Single-mode fibers exhibit less modal dispersion.

82.

What is the typical range of core diameters for single-mode optical fibers?

a)

8 microns

b)

20 microns

c)

4 to 10 microns

d)

50 microns or more

83.

What is the purpose of maintaining a minimum bend radius for optical fibers?

a)

To increase the speed of data transmission

b)

To prevent light leakage from the cladding

c)

To improve signal strength

d)

To reduce cable weight

84.

 What safety concern arises when working with optical fibers during installation or maintenance?

a)

Exposure to toxic chemicals

b)

all answers right

c)

Danger from glass fiber fragments

d)

Risk of electrical shock

85.

What is the purpose of testing optical fibers?

a)

To measure certain performance characteristics

b)

All answers correct

c)

To ensure all installed cable lengths and connectors are functioning properly

d)

To quantify any degradation of cables or connectors over time

86.

 Which type of optical fiber test measures the power level of light at the far end of the fiber from a known source?

a)

Sophisticated light analysis

b)

Time domain reflectometry.

c)

Echo signal analysis.

d)

Optical power loss testing

87.

What does an Optical Time-Domain Reflectometer (OTDR) do?

a)

Analyzes light over brief periods.

b)

Tests connectors on the spool prior to installation.

c)

Probes characteristics of long optical fibers.

d)

Measures optical power.

88.

Which type of diagram is used to represent the “big picture” of a process, focusing on the process itself rather than individual instruments?

a)

Functional diagrams

b)

Process Flow Diagrams (PFDs)

c)

Loop diagrams

d)

Process and Instrument diagrams (P&IDs)

89.

What type of diagram is used to document the strategy of a control system, placing emphasis on the algorithms used to control a process?

a)

Process Flow Diagrams (PFDs)

b)

Process and Instrument diagrams (P&IDs)

c)

Functional diagrams

d)

Loop diagrams

90.

Which type of diagram lies somewhere in the middle between process flow diagrams and loop diagrams, showing the layout of all relevant process vessels, pipes, and machinery, with instruments superimposed on the diagram?

a)

Functional diagrams

b)

Process Flow Diagrams (PFDs)

c)

Process and Instrument diagrams (P&IDs)

d)

Loop diagrams

91.

What is the primary purpose of a Process Flow Diagram (PFD) in a compressor control system?

a)

To show the interconnections of individual instruments

b)

To document the strategy of a control system

c)

To show the layout of all process vessels, pipes, and machinery with instruments superimposed on the diagram

d)

To show the general flow of the process itself and only a bare minimum of control instrumentation

92.

In the given compressor control system, what might the level transmitter (LT) on the bottom of the knockout drum control?

a)

The pressure inside the compressor

b)

The temperature of the evaporator

c)

The level valve (LV) on the bottom of the same vessel

d)

The flow of the compressor

93.

What does the Process Flow Diagram (PFD) show relating directly to the compressor in the given system?

a)

The temperature transmitter (TT) on the top of the evaporator

b)

  The level transmitter (LT) on the bottom of the knockout drum

c)

The flow transmitter (FT) on the suction line

d)

The control system of the compressor

94.

What does a Process and Instrument Diagram (P&ID) provide a “zoomed in” view of in a compressor control system?

a)

The compressor as a unit

b)

The whole evaporator process

c)

The control system

d)

  The individual instruments

95.

. In the given compressor control system, what does a common “loop number” indicate?

a)

The instruments are part of different control systems

b)

The instruments are of the same type

c)

The instruments are physically connected

d)

The instruments are part of the same control system

96.

What does the type of “bubble” used for each instrument in a P&ID indicate?

a)

The function of the instrument

b)

The loop number of the instrument

c)

The type of the instrument

d)

The location of the instrument

97.

What does a rectangular box enclosing both temperature recorders in a P&ID indicate?

a)

The temperature recorders are part of different physical instruments

b)

The temperature recorders are malfunctioning

c)

The temperature recorders are of different types

d)

The temperature recorders are part of the same physical instrument

98.

What is the most detailed form of diagram for a control system as a whole?

a)

Functional diagram

b)

Process and Instrument Diagram (P&ID)

c)

Process Flow Diagram (PFD)

d)

Loop diagram

99.

What does an “up” arrow (↑) next to an instrument bubble in a loop diagram represent?

a)

A reverse-acting instrument: one whose output signal decreases as the input stimulus increases

b)

A direct-acting instrument: one whose output signal increases as the input stimulus increases

c)

An instrument that is not part of the control system

d)

An instrument that is malfunctioning

100.

What is the primary focus of a functional diagram in a control system?

a)

The process piping or instrument interconnections

b)

The flow of information within the control system

c)

The actual equipment layout

d)

The final control element

101.

In a functional diagram, what do rectangular blocks represent?

a)

The final control element

b)

Automatic functions

c)

Manual functions set by a human operator

d)

The process sensing instrument

102.

In a functional diagram, what do dashed lines represent?

a)

The layout of all relevant process vessels, pipes, and machinery

b)

The flow of the process

c)

Analog (continuously variable) signals

d)

Discrete (on/off) signal paths

103.

What is the “normal” status of a switch?

a)

The status when the switch is in motion

b)

The status when the switch is at rest and not under physical stimulation

c)

The status when the switch is under physical stimulation

d)

The status when the switch is being pressed

104.

What is the “normal” condition for a flow switch?

a)

High flow rate (fluid flowing)

b)

Medium flow rate (fluid flowing slowly)

c)

No specific flow rate

d)

Low flow rate (fluid stopped)

105.

What is a pushbutton?

a)

An electrical switch actuated by a person’s eye movement

b)

An electrical switch actuated by a person’s foot motion

c)

An electrical switch actuated by a person’s hand motion

d)

An electrical switch actuated by a person’s voice

106.

What does a limit switch detect?

a)

The electrical current of an object

b)

The temperature of an object

c)

The physical motion of an object by direct contact

d)

The weight of an object

107.

What is a form-C contact set in the context of a limit switch?

a)

It does not incorporate any contacts

b)

It incorporates only a form-B contact (normally-closed)

c)

It incorporates both a form-A contact (NO) and a form-B contact (NC)

d)

It incorporates only a form-A contact (normally-open)

108.

What does a proximity switch detect?

a)

The weight of an object

b)

The closeness of an object

c)

The temperature of an object

d)

The color of an object

109.

How do inductive proximity switches sense the presence of metallic objects?

a)

hrough the use of a high-frequency light beam

b)

Through the use of a high-frequency sound wave

c)

Through the use of a high-frequency magnetic field

d)

Through the use of a high-frequency electric field

110.

How do ultrasonic proximity switches sense the presence of dense matter?

a)

By the reflection of sound waves

b)

By the reflection of magnetic fields

c)

By the reflection of electric fields

d)

By the reflection of light waves

111.

What is a common pressure-sensing element in pressure switches?

a)

  Pistons

b)

Diaphragms or bellows

c)

Gears

d)

Springs

112.

What is a disadvantage of mercury tilt switches?

a)

  They are insensitive to oil mist

b)

They are insensitive to corrosion

c)

They are insensitive to dust

d)

They are sensitive to mounting angle

113.

. What is often used as the level-sensing element in level switches?

a)

Floats

b)

   Pistons

c)

Springs

d)

Gears

114.

Where can simpler float switch designs be directly installed?

a)

In closed process vessels

b)

In open (vented) process vessels

c)

In any type of process vessel

d)

In isolated process vessels

115.

How does a tuning-fork style level switch indicate the presence of mass contacting the fork?

a)

The resonant frequency of the fork disappears

b)

The resonant frequency of the fork increases

c)

The resonant frequency of the fork decreases

d)

The resonant frequency of the fork remains the same

116.

What is often used as the temperature-sensing element in temperature switches?

a)

Floats

b)

Springs

c)

Diaphragms and Bellows

d)

Bimetallic strips

117.

What is often used as the flow-sensing element in flow switches?

a)

Floats

b)

Pistons

c)

Paddles

d)

Bimetallic strip

118.

 What happens when a paddle in a flow switch is placed in the midst of a fluid stream?

a)

It generates an electricity which used to actuate a switch mechanism

b)

It generates  sound waves which used to actuate a switch mechanism

c)

It breaks the electrical circuit

d)

It generates a mechanical force which used to actuate a switch mechanism

119.

What is the function of an on/off valve?

a)

To increase the flow of fluid

b)

To either allow flow or prevent flow

c)

To decrease the flow of fluid

d)

To measure the flow of fluid

120.

Fluid systems can be broadly grouped into which two categories?

a)

Gas and Solid

b)

Hot and Cold

c)

Pneumatic and Hydraulic

d)

Solid and Liquid

121.

What type of valve is used in pneumatic and hydraulic systems to direct the pressurized fluid to different locations?

a)

Gate Valve

b)

Spool Valve

c)

Butterfly Valve

d)

Ball Valve

122.

What is the purpose of a filter at the inlet of the pump in all hydraulic systems?

a)

To heat the hydraulic fluid

b)

To decrease the pressure of the fluid

c)

To remove particulate impurities from the fluid

d)

To increase the pressure of the fluid

123.

What is an advantage of fluid power systems over electric power?

a)

Fluid power systems are easier troubleshoot than electric systems

b)

Fluid power motors and cylinders overload at low speeds

c)

Fluid power systems present a high fire hazard

d)

Fluid power systems cannot be used in submerged environments

124.

What is a characteristic of pneumatic systems?

a)

They are not self-purging

b)

They can use liquefied nitrogen as a back-up gas supply

c)

They produce a lot of sparks

d)

They are difficult to equip with a back-up energy reserve

125.

What must pneumatic (instrument air) systems be free of?

a)

Water vapor and particulate contamination

b)

Liquefied nitrogen

c)

Desiccants

d)

Hydraulic oil

126.

 How is the moisture content in instrument air often expressed?

a)

Dew point

b)

Moisture index

c)

Wetness

d)

Humidity

127.

What is the purpose of the “wingnut” drain at the bottom of the regulator?

a)

To measure the amount of water in the compressed air

b)

To add water to the compressed air

c)

To purge collected water from the basin

d)

To increase the pressure of the compressed air

128.

What is a solenoid in the context of a solenoid valve?

a)

  A coil of wire

b)

A type of magnetic field

c)

type of fluid

d)

  A type of valve mechanism

129.

How are solenoid-actuated valves usually classified?

a)

According to the type of fluid they control

b)

According to the number of ports (“ways”)

c)

According to the type of magnetic field they produce

d)

According to the size of the solenoid coil

130.

What do the letters “P,” “E,” and “C” commonly represent on a pneumatic 3- way valve?

a)

Pump, Evaporator, and Condenser

b)

Positive, Earth, and Common

c)

Pressure, Exhaust, and Cylinder

d)

Power, Energy, and Current

131.

In a hydraulic system, what does the letter “T” represent when used as a label for a port?

a)

Tank

b)

Temperature

c)

Transformer

d)

Turbine

132.

When two or more bare conductors touch causing the resistance between the two to drop

a)

Electrical shock

b)

Short circuit

c)

Ground fault

d)

Overload

133.

When the current exceeds the trip class of the device

a)

Overload

b)

Electrical shock

c)

Short circuit

d)

Ground fault

134.

Inadvertent contact between an energized conductor and ground or equipment frame

a)

Overload

b)

Short circuit

c)

Ground fault

d)

Electrical shock

135.

What is the primary function of a contactor?

a)

To handle high motor starting currents.

b)

To regulate voltage fluctuations.

c)

To protect the motor from overload.

d)

To switch auxiliary circuits in control systems.

136.

Which component is used in conjunction with contactors for motor protection?

a)

Circuit breaker.

b)

Industrial control relay.

c)

General purpose relay.

d)

Overload relay.

137.

What type of circuits do industrial control relays switch?

a)

High-voltage circuits.

b)

Auxiliary circuits

c)

Lighting circuits.

d)

Low amperage circuits.

138.

How is a general purpose relay different from an industrial control relay?

a)

General purpose relays are physically larger.

b)

General purpose relays are for low amperage current.

c)

General purpose relays are more expensive.

d)

General purpose relays handle higher currents.

139.

How does a contactor differ from a relay?

a)

Contactors switch 3 phases, while relays switch single-phase circuits.

b)

Contactors are only used in industrial settings.

c)

Contactors are used for low amperage current, while relays handle high currents.

d)

Contactors are controlled by electronic systems, while relays are manually operated.

140.

What is the purpose of time delay relays?

a)

To switch auxiliary circuits.

b)

To control motor speed.

c)

To protect the motor from overload.

d)

To open or close contacts based on timing.

141.

What is the purpose of mechanical interlocking in contactors?

a)

To save power during voltage interruptions.

b)

To prevent short-circuits during manual actuation.

c)

To prevent surges in the control circuit.

d)

To allow simultaneous closing of two contactors.

142.

What is the purpose of a mechanical latch in a contactor?

a)

To allow the contactor to return to its rest position.

b)

To prevent the contactor from dropping out.

c)

To switch auxiliary circuits.

d)

To energize the coil.

143.

What is the primary function of a thermal overload relay?

a)

To detect excessive load in the circuit.

b)

To monitor incoming voltage.

c)

To trip the contactor coil circuit.

d)

To prevent motor overheating.

144.

How does an electronic overload relay monitor current?

a)

Using phase failure protection.

b)

By measuring temperature.

c)

Via built-in voltage transformers.

d)

Through current transformers.

145.

What is the primary function of a motor protection circuit breaker (MPCB)?

a)

All of the above

b)

Turning motors off and on

c)

Thermal motor protection

d)

Short circuit protection

146.

How does a thermistor-type protection unit monitor temperature in MCCBs?

a)

Via a PTC resistor on motor windings

b)

By measuring current flow

c)

  Using an external temperature sensor

d)

By detecting voltage fluctuations

147.

What is the primary function of a soft starter?

a)

To switch the motor on and off.

b)

To protect against short circuits.

c)

To control the frequency of the motor.

d)

To reduce mechanical torque to the load.

148.

What is the purpose of a variable speed drive (VSD)?

a)

To protect against overload.

b)

To reduce starting current peaks.

c)

To alter the motor speed by changing the frequency.

d)

To control the motor’s torque.

149.

What is the primary function of a load-break switch?

a)

To provide overload protection

b)

To make, carry, and break currents

c)

To protect against short circuits

d)

To operate as a manual disconnect switch

150.

How does a fuse protect an electrical circuit?

a)

By short-circuiting the circuit

b)

By increasing the circuit’s resistance

c)

By melting when too much current flows

d)

By regulating the voltage