Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Grade 9 Alberta Science Year End review

Total questions: 203

Worksheet time: 3hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following best describes a redshifted star?

a)

A star moving towards the Earth

b)

A star moving away from the Earth

c)

A star with no relative motion to the Earth

d)

A star that is stationary

2.

What happens to the spectral lines of a star that is redshifted?

a)

They move towards the blue end of the spectrum

b)

They move towards the red end of the spectrum

c)

They remain unchanged

d)

They disappear

3.

Which of the following is a consequence of the redshift of a star?

a)

The star appears bluer

b)

The star appears redder

c)

The star's brightness increases

d)

The star's brightness decreases

4.

If a star is redshifted, what can be said about its velocity relative to the observer?

a)

The star is moving towards the observer

b)

The star is moving away from the observer

c)

The star is moving at the speed of light

d)

The star is not moving

5.

Which of the following tools is most commonly used to measure the redshift of a star?

a)

A thermometer

b)

A barometer

c)

A spectrometer

d)

A hygrometer

6.

This model put the Sun at the center and the planets revolved around it.

a)

Heliocentric model

b)

Geocentric model

c)

Galileo model

d)

Ellipse model

7.

Small pieces of rock flying through space are called...

a)

Meteors

b)

Meteoroids

c)

Meteorite

d)

Comet

8.

The compass direction of an object in space is called the...

a)

Altitude

b)

Azimuth

c)

Zenith

d)

Eliptic

9.

Which of the following devices does a refracting telescope use to gather light?

a)

antenna

b)

concave lens

c)

concave mirror

d)

satellite dish

10.

When astronomers use a spectroscope, the resulting spectra have black lines present. These black lines indicate the:

a)

age of the star

b)

color of the star

c)

elements in the star

d)

distortion caused by Earth's atmosphere

11.

Which of the following combinations of reactants would have the fastest reaction rate?

a)
b)
c)
d)
12.

Which two elements listed above would be malleable and have a high melting point?

a)

Elements W and X

b)

Elements W and Z

c)

Elements X and Y

d)

Elements Y and Z

13.

Which of the following formulas accurately represents the product described above?

a)

Li3P3

b)

Li3P

c)

LiP3

d)

LiP

14.

The final mass of the cold pack after it has been activated is

a)

half of the original mass

b)

equal to the original mass

c)

slightly less than the original mass

d)

slightly more than the original mass

15.

If the teacher wanted to slow down the speed of this reaction, the next time the demonstration was carried out, the teacher would

a)

increase the initial hydrogen peroxide concentration

b)

increase the initial fluorescent dye concentration

c)

warm one of the initial reactants

d)

cool one of the initial reactants

16.

The number of electrons in one beryllium atom is

a)

9

b)

5

c)

4

d)

2

17.

Which of the following pairs of elements have the most properties in common?

a)

Fluorine and oxygen

b)

Fluorine and chlorine

c)

Sodium and neon

d)

Sodium and magnesium

18.

The process of metal corrosion slows down if a metal is kept:

a)

dry and warm

b)

dry and cool

c)

wet and warm

d)

wet and cool

19.

The melting of ice is considered a

a)

chemical change, because a new substance is formed

b)

physical change, because a new substance is formed

c)

chemical change, because the process is reversible

d)

physical change, because the process is reversible

20.

Which of the following titles is appropriate for the diagram above?

a)

“One Atom of Water”

b)

“Three Atoms of Water”

c)

“One Molecule of Water”

d)

“Three Molecules of Water”

21.

Which of the following statements accurately describes the reaction above?

a)

Combining hydrogen gas and chlorine gas produces hydrochloric acid.

b)

Combining hydrochloric acid with hydrogen gas produces chlorine gas.

c)

Hydrogen gas is produced when hydrochloric acid is combined with chlorine gas.

d)

Hydrogen gas and chlorine gas are produced when hydrochloric acid is broken down.

22.

Section I is best described as:

a)

A Family

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metals

d)

A Period

23.

Section II is best described as:

a)

A Family

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metals

d)

A Period

24.

Section III is best described as

a)

A Family

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metals

d)

A Period

25.

Section IV is best described as:

a)

A Family

b)

Non-Metals

c)

Metals

d)

A Period

26.

Individually, water and sugar are classified as __________ and the combination of both substances is a __________.

a)

compounds; solution

b)

elements; solution

c)

compounds; mechanical mixture

d)

elements; mechanical mixture

27.

Combustion and corrosion are similar reactions because they both

a)

have a metal as a reactant

b)

release oxygen as a product

c)

require oxygen as a reactant

d)

release carbon dioxide as a product

28.

Classify the substances above as ionic or molecular using the following code.

1 = Ionic 2 = Molecular


X =

Y=

Z=

a)

2

1

2

b)

1

2

1

c)

2

2

1

d)

2

1

1

29.

As part of a science lab project, a student was required to perform the following tasks:


I Mix food dye and water

II Burn sugar on a hot plate

III Evaporate water in a kettle

IV Break down steel wool in a blue solution


Which of the tasks are chemical reactions?

a)

I and III

b)

I and II

c)

II and IV

d)

III and IV

30.

Which of the following statements is untrue?

a)

Protons have more mass than electrons and they have opposite charges

b)

Neutrons have the same mass as protons and are found in the nucleus

c)

Electrons have almost no mass and orbit the nucleus in a cloud

d)

There are always the same number of protons and neutrons in an atom

31.

What is the correct name for CaCl2?

a)

Carbon chloride

b)

Calcium dichloride

c)

Monocarbon dichloride

d)

Calcium chloride

32.

What is the correct name for the chemical PO?

a)

Phosphorus oxide

b)

Monophosphorus monoxide

c)

Phosphorus monoxide

d)

Monophosphorus oxide

33.

21 g of sodium acetate, 5 g of water and 2 g of carbon dioxide are produced when 15 g of acetic acid mixed with an unknown mass of sodium bicarbonate.


This mass of sodium bicarbonate is _____ g.

a)

43 g

b)

14 g

c)

13 g

d)

15 g

34.
Which choice shows the correct order of the planets?
a)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Saturn, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Neptune Mercury, Uranus
35.
A large body made of gas or rock that orbits around a star.
a)
planet
b)
moon
c)
star
d)
super nova
36.
The _________ of a constellation changes during the night.
a)
position in the sky
b)
shape
c)
name 
d)
distance
37.
Asteroids "hang out" in the Asteroid Belt between the planets of:
a)
Earth and Mars
b)
Mercury and Venus
c)
Saturn and Neptune
d)
Mars and Jupiter
38.
What is the name of the explosion at the death of a massive star?
a)
Supergiant
b)
Supernova
c)
Black Hole
d)
Nebula
39.
The only objects in our Universe that produces and emits its own light is
a)
Nebulas
b)
Comets
c)
Planets
d)
Stars
40.
What is an object that is so massive and dense that even light can not escape its gravity?
a)
Main-sequence
b)
black hole
c)
Apparent Magnitude
d)
Comet
41.
Which is the smallest of the following: Planets; Solar System; Galaxy; Universe
a)
Universe
b)
Solar System
c)
Planets
d)
Galaxy
42.
What is the smallest planet in our solar system?
a)
Mars
b)
Mercury
c)
Earth
d)
Venus
43.
When we see a full moon from
Earth, how much of the entire
moon are we seeing?
a)
A.  the entire moon
b)
B.  half of the moon
c)
C.  a quarter of the moon
d)
D.  a sliver of the moon
44.
What is the farthest planet in our Solar System?
a)
Neptune
b)
Uranus
c)
Pluto
d)
Saturn
45.
To increase gradually in size.  The illuminated part of the moon is getting bigger.
a)
Full
b)
Tide
c)
Waxing
d)
Waning
46.
To decrease gradually in size.  The illuminated part of the moon is becoming smaller
a)
New
b)
eclispe
c)
waxing
d)
waning
47.
Made of ice, dust and gas
a)
asteroid
b)
meteoroid
c)
comet
d)
meteor
48.

What distinguishes static electricity from current electricity?

a)

The presence of stationary charges

b)

Continuous flow in a closed circuit

c)

Generation by moving charges

d)

Measurement in amperes

49.

Which of the following is an example of a phenomenon related to static electricity?

a)

Battery powering a flashlight

b)

Household wiring

c)

Lightning

d)

Flowing river

50.

What is the primary function of a three-prong plug?

a)

To increase voltage

b)

To regulate current flow

c)

To amplify electrical signals

d)

To provide a ground connection

51.

How does an electrolyte differ from a negative electrode in an electrochemical cell?

a)

Electrolyte conducts electric current

b)

Electrolyte generates electricity

c)

Negative electrode stores electrical energy

d)

Negative electrode prevents electrical discharge

52.

Compare and contrast the functions of fuses and circuit breakers in electrical systems. a) b) c) d)

a)

Fuses amplify electrical signals, while circuit breakers regulate current flow.

b)

Fuses regulate voltage, while circuit breakers prevent short circuits.

c)

Fuses store electrical energy, while circuit breakers generate electricity.

d)

Fuses break the circuit when overloaded, while circuit breakers trip in case of overload.

53.

Evaluate the significance of charge separation in the context of electrical phenomena.

a)

It prevents electrical discharge

b)

It generates static electricity

c)

It regulates current flow

d)

It reduces voltage potential

54.

What causes the jolts of static electricity when you touch certain objects?

a)
Friction between your skin and the object
b)
Magnetic attraction between the object and your body
c)
Transfer of electrons between the object and your body
d)
Chemical reaction with the object
55.

What is the fundamental difference between static electricity and current electricity?

a)
Static electricity is used in electronic devices, whereas current electricity is used in household appliances.
b)
Static electricity involves charges that are always positive, whereas current electricity involves charges that are always negative.
c)
Static electricity involves stationary charges, whereas current electricity involves moving charges.
d)
Static electricity can only be generated by friction, whereas current electricity can only be generated by chemical reactions.
56.

Which law governs the behavior of electric charges stating that opposite charges attract each other?

a)
Coulomb's Law
b)
Ohm's Law
c)
Newton's Law
d)
Boyle's Law
57.

What is the unit used to measure the rate at which electrical current flows?

a)
Joules (J)
b)
Amperes (A)
c)
Volts (V)
d)
Ohms (Ω)
58.

What is the primary purpose of a circuit breaker in an electrical system?

a)
To increase energy efficiency in the system
b)
To regulate the voltage in the circuit
c)
To protect the circuit from overloads and short circuits
d)
To improve the aesthetics of the electrical setup
59.

Which factor is more important in assessing the potential danger of an electrical shock?

a)
Amount of current flowing through the body
b)
Time of day when the shock occurs
c)
Type of electrical outlet
d)
Color of the electrical wires
60.

What is the danger of standing on hilltops or under trees during a thunderstorm?

a)
Decreased risk of being struck by lightning
b)
Enhanced ability to attract lightning
c)
Increased risk of being struck by lightning
d)
Improved chances of winning a lottery
61.

What type of cells are used in pacemakers to provide a steady current for controlling the beating of the heart?

a)

Primary cells

b)

Dry cells

c)

Wet cells

d)

Rechargeable cells

62.

What is the primary difference between primary cells and rechargeable cells?

a)
Primary cells are more environmentally friendly than rechargeable cells.
b)
Primary cells have a longer lifespan than rechargeable cells.
c)
Primary cells are more expensive than rechargeable cells.
d)
Primary cells are for one-time use, while rechargeable cells can be recharged and used multiple times.
63.

Which process involves separating useful elements from solutions using electricity?

a)
Electroplating
b)
Decomposition
c)
Electromagnetism
d)
Electrolysis
64.

What is the purpose of electroplating in industrial processes?

a)

To coat objects with a thin layer of metal for various purposes.

b)
Electroplating is done to increase the weight of objects
c)
Electroplating is used to remove metal from objects
d)
Electroplating is used to make objects transparent
65.

What is the main benefit of using wet cells over dry cells?

a)
Shorter lifespan and non-rechargeable
b)
Higher cost and less efficient
c)
Longer lifespan and rechargeable
d)
Heavier and less portable
66.

Which scientist is credited with inventing the first practical battery?

a)
Galileo Galilei
b)
Marie Curie
c)
Alessandro Volta
d)
Isaac Newton
67.

What is the unit of measurement for voltage?

a)
watts
b)
ohms
c)
amperes
d)
volts
68.

What type of charge separation occurs during electroplating?

a)
Anode attracts positive metal ions from the cathode
b)
Cathode attracts negative metal ions from the anode
c)
Cathode attracts positive metal ions from the anode
d)
Anode attracts negative metal ions from the cathode
69.
What is an asteroid?
a)
rocky, metallic bodies that orbit the sun
b)
a mixture of ices
c)
a dwarf planet
d)
a chunk of stony matter
70.
Appears as a streak in the sky.
a)
asteroid
b)
meteoroid
c)
comet
d)
meteor
71.
What tool would you use to study stars and space?
a)
microscope
b)
oscilloscope
c)
telescope
d)
nanoscope
72.
Which of the following is true?
a)
Earth is the center of the solar system
b)
The sun orbits the earth
c)
Gravity exists only on Earth
d)
The sun is the center of the solar system
73.
How long is Earth's revolution?
a)
one day
b)
one year
c)
one decade
d)
one hour
74.
How long is Earth's rotation?
a)
one day
b)
one year
c)
one decade
d)
one hour
75.
How many planets are there?
a)
6
b)
7
c)
8
d)
9
76.
Why do planets orbit the sun (and not float around in space)?
a)
the moons are keeping them in place
b)
They were hit by an asteroid
c)
they were hit by a comet
d)
the sun's gravity keeps them in place
77.
The path of an object as it revolves around another object in space
a)
path
b)
orbit
c)
ellipse
d)
circle
78.
What is the name of our Galaxy?
a)
Mily Galaxy
b)
Milky Way Galaxy
c)
Andromeda Galaxy
d)
Pinwheel Galaxy
79.
Which choice shows the correct order of the planets?
a)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Pluto
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
d)
Saturn, Venus, Mars, Mercury, Jupiter, Neptune Mercury, Uranus
80.
The moon appears to change shape because of _____.
a)
the Moon's revolution around Earth
b)
the seasons of the year
c)
the movement of stars in they sky
d)
Earth's rotation on its axis
81.

Where does a cell contain its genetic material?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Chloroplasts

82.

What is the image above?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

83.

The cell in this figure is in which stage of mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Telophase

84.

Which of the following has the correct order of phases of mitosis?

a)

Telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase

b)

Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

Metaphase, prophase, anaphase, telophase

d)

Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase

85.

The process by which a nucleus divides into two new identical nuclei is called:

a)

Mitosis

b)

Interphase

c)

Cell division

d)

Meiosis

86.

What is this phase of Mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

87.

What is this phase of Mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

88.

What is this phase of mitosis?

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

89.

In mitosis, the two resulting cells are

a)

Different from the starting cell and identical to each other.

b)

Different from the starting cell and different from each other.

c)

Identical to the starting cell and different from each other.

d)

Identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.

90.

Where does a cell contain its genetic material?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Cytoskeleton

d)

Chloroplasts

91.

What is the image above?

a)

Chromosome

b)

Chromotid

c)

Centromere

d)

Centriole

92.

Which is used to repair or grow cell?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

93.

Which distance is larger: 1 astronomical unit or 1 light-year?

a)

1 AU

b)

1 LY

94.

Light year is a unit of _?_.

a)

time

b)

distance

c)

brightness

d)

heat

95.

What units would you use to measure the diameter of a planet?

a)

Light Years

b)

Astronomical Units

c)

Kilometers

d)

Centimeters

96.

1 AU is equal to:

a)

150 000 miles

b)

150 000 000 km

c)

1 L

d)

150 000 000 miles

97.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Height

Weight

Sex

Blood type

Hairlines

Armspan

Earlobe types

Cheek dimples

Continuous variation
Discrete variation
98.

Two parents have two different blood types: Type A and Type B blood. In both cases, these two parents also have an O-blood type allele. Place the appropriate labels on this diagram of the blood types of the offspring they are able to have.

a)

Blood Type Zero

b)

Blood Type ABO

c)

Blood Type A

d)

Blood Type B

e)

Blood Type AB

f)

Blood Type O

1
2
3
4
1)
2)
3)
4)
99.

Categorize each of these as a dominant or recessive trait. There are four examples of each.

Categorize the following

Brown eyes

Dark hair

Freckles

Ability to roll tongue

Red hair

Straight hair

Attached earlobes

Blue eyes

Dominant trait
Recessive trait
100.

The trait of having polydactylism is a dominant trait. The picture here shows the hand of a person with polydactylism. When we take apart this word, the term "poly" is Greek for ​ (a)   while the term "dactylos" is Greek for ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
many
finger
foot
hand
arm
one
two
none
uncommon
101.

Rank the following, from best to worst, for the types of families that can be used to study the contrast between nature and nurture in offspring:

a)

Families with identical twins

b)

Families with non-identical twins

c)

Families with many children that aren't twins

d)

Families with only one child

1)
2)
3)
4)
102.

What is the name of any factor that causes a mutation? (Singular, not plural, answer.)

(a)  

103.

Based on their areas of discovery in science involving various factors that cause mutations, all of the following scientists died at an age that was less (some of them significantly less) than their life expectancy when they were alive. Mutations likely played a part in this. Match the names to their faces.

a)

1.

Rosalind Franklin (died at 37)

b)

2.

Clarence Dally (died at 39)

c)

3.

Elizabeth Aschheim

(died at 38)

d)

4.

Marie Curie

(died at 67)

e)

5.

Henri Becquerel (died at 55)

104.

In 1986, a nuclear reactor named Chernobyl No.4 melted down. People who lived in the nearby cities had children in the years after who showed high levels of physical mutations. Where was the Chernobyl reactor located?

A
B
C
D
E
F
105.

You ability to identify the number is this picture is an assessment of whether or not you are ​ (a)   . This is a genetic trait involving the XX/XY chromosomes, and for this reason, this disorder is more common in ​ (b)   .

Choose from the below words
colourblind
males
blind
deaf
dyslexic
dysgraphic
females
106.

Two identical twins are born and raised together. One spends as much time as possible outdoors, and the other spends as much time as possible indoors.

The one that spends more time outside is ​ (a)   likely to develop skin cancer due to their exposure to ​ (b)   radiation. This would ultimately be an example of a ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
more
ultraviolet
mutation
less
infrared
radiowave
occasion of pure chance
107.

What is the primary function of carbohydrates?

a)

Source of energy

b)

Build up tissue

c)

Storage of energy

d)

Pass on genetic information

108.

All organic compounds have ____ in their structure.

a)

Hydrogen and oxygen

b)

Oxygen and carbon

c)

carbon and hydrogen

d)

nitrogen and phosphorus

109.

For each of the substances listed below, indicate whether it is organic or inorganic using the following code:

(a)  

110.

The substrate on which encrusting algae live is

a)

Rock

b)

Water

c)

Snails

d)

Photosynthesis

111.

To avoid waste chemicals polluting the groundwater, landfills would most likely use…

a)

gravel and bacteria

b)

gravel and compacted soil

c)

plastic liner and compacted clay

d)

biodegradable liner and pebbles

112.

What color will drain cleaner appear when mixed with methyl orange?

a)

Red

b)

yellow

c)

orange

d)

impossible to determine

113.

Toothpaste has a pH of 10. Toothpaste is…

a)

neutral

b)

organic

c)

an acid

d)

a base

114.

About an hour after you finish your dinner, you start experiencing pains in your stomach. You conclude that you have acid indigestion. To best neutralize the excess acid being produced, you should eat something

a)

acidic

b)

salty

c)

basic

d)

fatty

115.

You conclude that the activities at the campsite caused the soil to become

a)

neutral

b)

more basic

c)

more acidic

d)

polluted

116.

Acidic lakes are treated with lime (calcium hydroxide) to neutralize them The compound calcium sulphate is produced. Calcuim sulphate is a

a)

acid

b)

base

c)

salt

d)

solution

117.

Which of the following gases does not contribute to the production of acid in acid rain?

a)

dihydrogen monoxide

b)

nitrogen oxide

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

sulfur dioxide

118.

Nutrients get into plant roots mainly through

a)

Absorption

b)

Ingestion

c)

Inhalation

d)

Transpiration

119.

The fertilizer plant would most likely have the least environmental impact on a town if the plant were located

a)

west of the town

b)

east of the town

c)

northwest of the town

d)

southeast of the town

120.

Where would you expect to find the lowest concentration of mercury in the food chain above?

a)

algae

b)

insects

c)

fish

d)

humans

121.

A dissolved oxygen concentration of 6 ppm indicates that 6 mL of oxygen is dissolved in

a)

100 mL of water

b)

1 000 ml of water

c)

10 000 mL of water

d)

1 000 000 mL of water

122.

Calculate the concentration of a solution in ppm when 0.00 52 ml of solute is present in 100 ml of solution

a)

0.52 ppm

b)

5.2 ppm

c)

52 ppm

d)

520 ppm

123.

The 50 in LD50 stands for…

a)

50 rats will die if they eat that dose

b)

50% of the test population will die if they eat the that dose

c)

50% of the test population will be harmed if they eat that dose

d)

50 rats will become immune to that dose

124.

Sarin, a toxic nerve gas, becomes a serious problem at a dose of 24 mg/kg. The LD50 for a 50 kg human would be:

a)

1200 mg

b)

120 mg

c)

50 mg

d)

24 mg

125.

The scientist was concerned that over a long period of time, the use of detergents containing phosphates could affect the stream by causing a decrease in factors

a)

I and III

b)

I and IV

c)

II and III

d)

III and IV

126.

The spreading of pollutants due to strong winds is an example of

a)

dispersion

b)

deposition

c)

leaching

d)

inhalation

127.

The scientist expressed concern that some waste could leach from the septic field and seep into the ground water, thus affecting the lake by

a)

increasing the dissolved oxygen

b)

increasing the rate of algae growth

c)

decreasing the turbidity level of the water

d)

decreasing the rate of aquatic decomposition

128.

You collect water samples from the pond and find more midge larvae than mayfly larvae. You infer that the oxygen concentration in this pond is most likely

a)

6 mg/L

b)

4 mg/L

c)

2 mg/L

d)

less than 2 mg/L

129.

The pollutant known as the “silent killer” is a colorless, odorless gas known as

a)

Carbon monoxide

b)

Ozone

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Sulfur dioxide

130.

Students from the town’s high school are concerned that emissions from the fertilizer plant contribute to the greenhouse effect and climate change. These emissions contain

a)

ozone, which traps infrared energy

b)

ozone, which reduces infrared energy

c)

carbon dioxide, which reduces infrared energy

d)

carbon dioxide, which traps infrared energy

131.

Plastic is used to line sanitary landfills because

a)

their large pores makes it impermeable to water which reduces leaching

b)

their small pores makes it impermeable to water which reduces leaching

c)

their small pores makes it permeable to water which increases leaching

d)

their large pores makes it permeable to water which increases leaching

132.

Some water can soak into the soil moving downward, dissolving harmful chemicals along the way and carrying them into the water table or groundwater. This liquid is called

a)

pollutant

b)

limestone

c)

leachate

d)

acid rain

133.

Which of the following uses plants to clean up contaminated soil?

a)

photolysis

b)

phytoremediation

c)

biodegradation

d)

dilution

134.

Which of the following would increase the rate of biodegradation in a composter?

a)

Higher temperature and more bacteria

b)

Lower temperature and more bacteria

c)

Higher temperature and less bacteria

d)

Lower temperature and less bacteria

135.

Which of the following is an effect of excess fertilizer washing into streams and lakes?

a)

the pH is too low for plants and animals

b)

cooler water holds more oxygen

c)

increased sediment reduces oxygen

d)

algae "blooms", leading to lower oxygen

136.

Eutrophication (nutrient overloading) is harmful to aquatic ecosystems because the over-competition of plants cause the following chain of events to occur.

a)

 algae growth → plants die  →  bacteria increase  →  oxygen decreases  →  organisms die

b)

bacteria increases  → algae growth → plants die  →  oxygen decreases  →   organisms die

c)

algae growth → bacteria increase  →  plants die  →  oxygen decreases  →  organisms die

d)

bacteria increases  →algae growth  →  organisms die  →  oxygen decreases  →  plants die

137.

Which of the following is likely to be A, B , C and D?

a)

A - Recyclable

B - Non-recyclable

C- Chicken bone

D - Paper plate

b)

A - Non-Recyclable

B - Recyclable

C- Plastic bottle

D - Aluminum

c)

A - Biodegradable

B - Non-biodegradable

C- Chicken bone

D - Plastic bottle

d)

A - Non-biodegradable

B - Biodegradable

C- Aluminum

D - Paper plate

138.

According to the graph above, an increase in the concentration of road salt in pond water from zero to 0.10 ppm results in a decrease in the number of

a)

organism 1

b)

organism 2

c)

organism 1 and 3

d)

organism 2 and 3

139.

On the map above, excessive plant growth caused by high level of nitrates in the water would MOST likely be found at location

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

140.

The days on which the water was recorded as being basic were

a)

days 1 to 3

b)

days 13 to 14

c)

days 5 to 12

d)

days 1 to 8

141.

Which one of the following shows the correct arrangement of the soil, from the most porous soil to the least porous soil?

a)

A, B, C

b)

B, A, C

c)

C, A, B

d)

C, B, A

142.

A location is to be chosen for a new gas station.  To minimize leaching, which soil location would be best to choose?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

all are equally effective

143.

What organic compound is in solution 2?

a)

glucose

b)

starch

c)

fat/oil

d)

protein

144.

Electricity is a result of the movement of

(a)  

145.

Materials that allow electrons/ electric current to flow through it easily

(a)  

146.

Materials that resist the flow of electrons/ electric current

(a)  

147.

This symbol represents an

(a)  

148.

The 2 symbols represent (more than one answer)

a)

Fuse

b)

bulb

c)

resistor

d)

ammeter

149.

The following symbol represents

(a)  

150.

Resistance is measured in

(a)  

151.

When 2 objects are rubbed together

(a)  

152.

When an object becomes polarised it means that one side becomes completely negatively charged while the other becomes completely positively charged.

a)

True

b)

False

153.

The bulb will shine in the following circuit

a)

True

b)

False

154.

The following image shows resistors in 

a)

parallel

b)

series

155.

If one bulb is disconnected in this circuit, will the other bulb still shine?

a)

Yes

b)

No

156.

The symbol representing current

a)

I

b)

R

c)

A

157.

Current is measured using a

a)

resistor

b)

ammeter

c)

bulb

d)

wire

158.

The greater the resistance

a)

the lower the current

b)

the higher the current

c)

current stays the same

159.

Factors increasing resistance

a)

the length of the wire

b)

the thickness of the wire

c)

the temperature of the wire

160.

in a circuit, current flows from

a)

positive to negative

b)

negative to positive

161.

In a circuit, electrons flow from

a)

negative to positive

b)

positive yo negative

162.

The ability of a component in an electrical circuit to oppose the flow of current

(a)  

163.

special electrical components that control the flow of electric current

a)

resistor

b)

ammeter

c)

diode

d)

variable resistor

164.
What is the voltage of a 60 ohm, 2 amp device?
a)
30
b)
0.033
c)
10.95
d)
120
165.
Resistance is measured in what unit?
a)
ohms
b)
amps
c)
watts
d)
volts
166.
Current is measured in what unit?
a)
ohms
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
amps
167.
What does the Greek letter Ω,  (i.e. Omega) represent?
a)
amps
b)
volts
c)
watts
d)
ohms
168.
Which of the following is NOT a good insulator?
a)
rubber
b)
wood
c)
iron
d)
plastic
169.
Potential difference is another term for
a)
current
b)
voltage
c)
energy
d)
watts
170.

what is the resistance of a lamp whose current is 6 A and the voltage across it is 120 V?

a)

120 0hm

b)

20 ohm

c)

16 ohm

d)

10 ohm

171.

What is another name for a battery in a circuit?

a)

Load

b)

Cell

c)

Switch

172.
What is another name for a lightbulb in a circuit?
a)
Switch
b)
Load
c)
Power Source
173.

What is another name for the wires in a circuit?

a)

Conductor

b)

Load

c)

Power Source

174.

True or False: Conductors allow electrons to pass through easily.

a)

True

b)

False

175.
Is an eraser a conductor, insulator, or both?
a)
Conductor
b)
Insulator
c)
Both
176.

Is this lightbulb a part of a closed or open circuit?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

177.

Is this switch closed or open?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

178.
What electrical symbol is this?
a)
Lightbulb
b)
Motor
c)
Battery
d)
Switch
179.
What electrical symbol is this?
a)
Open Switch
b)
Closed Switch
c)
Lightbulb
d)
Battery
180.
What electrical symbol is this?
a)
Open Switch
b)
Closed Switch
c)
Lightbulb
d)
Battery
181.
What electrical symbol is this?
a)
Battery
b)
Lightbulb
c)
Switch
d)
Motor
182.
What electrical symbol is this?
a)
Wire
b)
Lightbulb
c)
Battery
d)
Switch
183.

What is another name for the motor in a circuit?

a)

Power Source

b)

Load

c)

Conductor

184.

Does this picture show a closed or an open circuit?

a)

Closed

b)

Open

185.

True or False: A switch turns a circuit on or off.

a)

True

b)

False

186.

Which of the following is NOT required to build a circuit?

a)

Load

b)

Power Source

c)

Conductor

d)

Switch

187.
In a series circuit  with 4 bulbs:
a)
a switch is never used
b)
all of the bulbs become dimmer if another bulb is added
c)
There are many paths for electricity to take
d)
the remaining 3 bulbs stay lit if one burns out
188.
In a simple series circuit, why does the bulb light when you close the switch?   
a)
A. Because the switch produces electricity
b)
B. Because closing the switch completes the circuit
c)
C. Because closing the switch breaks the circuit
189.
What is the difference between a conductor and an insulator?
a)
An insulator allows electricity to flow through it easily and a conductor does not
b)
A conductor allows electricity to flow through it easily and an insulator does not.
c)
An insulator is magnetic and a conductor is not
d)
A conductor is magnetic and an insulator is not
190.
What happens to the brightness of the light bulbs in a series circuit when you add more lights.
a)
Each bulb gets dimmer
b)
Each bulb remains the same
c)
Half of the bulbs get dimmer
d)
Each bulb gets brighter
191.
Does this diagram represent a series or parallel circuit?
a)
series circuit
b)
parallel circuit
192.
Does this diagram represent a series or parallel circuit?
a)
series circuit
b)
parallel circuit
193.
Which best describes a parallel circuit?
a)
Electricity flows along one pathway.
b)
The flow of electricity comes from more than one source.
c)
Electricity flows along more than one pathway.
d)
The flow of electricity comes from more than 1 load.
194.
What kind of circuit is this?
a)
series
b)
parallel
195.
Current is referred to as:
a)
rate of flow of charge through a circuit
b)
rate of flow of amperes
c)
rate of flow of electrons through a circuit
d)
how the energy pushes the charge through the wire
196.
When there is only one path for electrons to move through it is called a _____. When one light goes out, they all go out. 
a)
closed circuit
b)
parallel circuit
c)
series circuit
d)
open circuit
197.

What is voltage?

a)

the rate of flow of charge

b)

the difference in charge between 2 points

c)

the amount of available charge

198.

What is resistance

a)

the rate at which a charge is flowing

b)

the material's tendency to resist flow of electrons

c)

the difference of charge between 2 points

d)

it is futile

199.
In a series circuit which of the following is the same  throughout the circuit
a)
Resistance
b)
Voltage
c)
Current
d)
None of the above
200.
3 resistors are connected to a 9 V battery n a series circuit, the first resistor uses 6 V, the second uses 2 V. How much voltage does the third resistor use?
a)
1 V
b)
2 V
c)
3 V
d)
9 V
201.
If you decrease the voltage of a series circuit, what happens?
a)
Current decreases
b)
Current increases
c)
Electrons disappear
d)
Bulbs get brighter
202.
If you add a second load to your series circuit, what will happen to the voltage in each load?
a)
Decrease
b)
Increase
c)
Stay the same
203.
Why are homes not wired in series circuits?
a)
The house will burn down
b)
If you turn off one appliance, the rest will turn off. 
c)
Homes are wired in series circuits.

Similar Resources on Wayground

fhgj

199 questions

fhgj

quiz

Worksheet

•

7th - 12th Grade